## Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. Residual soils are formed by
A. glaciers
B. wind
C. water
D. none of the above

2. Water content of soil can
A. never be greater than 100 %
B. take values only from 0 % to 100 %
C. be less than 0 %
D. be greater than 100 %

3. Which of the following types of soil is transported by gravitational forces ?
A. loess
B. talus
C. drift
D. dune sand

4. A fully saturated soil is said to be
A. one phase system
B. two phase system with soil and air
C. two phase system with soil and water
D. three phase system

5. Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil in percentage is
A. S>0
B. S<0
C. 0<S<100
D. 0 < S < 100

6. Constant head permeameter is used to test permeability of
A. silt
B. clay
C. coarse sand
D. fine sand

7. A soil has a bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and water content 10 %. The dry density of soil is
A. 18.6 kN/m3
B. 20.0 kN/m3
C. 22.0 kN/m3
D. 23.2 kN/m3

8. If the voids of a soil mass are full of air only, the soil is termed as
A. air entrained soil
B. partially saturated soil
C. dry soil
D. dehydrated soil

9. Valid range for n, the percentage voids, is
A. 0<n<100
B. 0<n<100
C. n>0
D. n<0

10. Select the correct statement.
A. Unit weight of dry soil is greater than unit weight of wet soil.
B. For dry soils, dry unit weight is less than total unit weight.
C. Unit weight of soil increases due to submergence in water.
D. Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water.

11. Voids ratio of a soil mass can
A. never be greater than unity
B. be zero
C. take any value greater than zero
D. take values between 0 and 1 only

12. If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, then the values of porosity and voids ratio respectively are
A. 1.0 and 0.0
B. 0.0 and 1.0
C. 0.5 and 1.0
D. 1.0 and 0.5

13. When the degree of saturation is zero, the soil mass under consideration represents
A. one phase system
B. two phase system with soil and air
C. two phase system with soil and water
D. three phase system

14. Select the correct range of density index,ID
A. lD>0
B. ID>0
C. 0 < lD < 1
D. 0 < ID < 1

15. If the degree of saturation of a partially saturated soil is 60%, then air content of the soil is
A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 80%
D. 100%

16. If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the voids ratio of the sample is
A. less than specific gravity of soil
B. equal to specific gravity of soil
C. greater than specific gravity of soil
D. independent of specific gravity of soil

17. The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil mass is called
A. air content
B. porosity
C. percentage air voids
D. voids ratio

18. Relative density of a compacted dense sand is approximately equal to
A. 0.4
B. 0.6
C. 0.95
D. 1.20

19. If the sand in-situ is in its densest state, then the relative density of sand is
A. zero
B. 1
C. between 0 and 1
D. greater than 1

20. Which of the following methods is most accurate for the determination of the water content of soil ?
A. oven drying method
B. sand bath method
C. calcium carbide method
D. pycnometer method

21. For proper field control, which of the following methods is best suited for quick determination of water content of a soil mass ?
A. oven drying method
B. sand bath method
C. alcohol method
D. calcium carbide method

22. A pycnometer is used to determine
A. water content and voids ratio
B. specific gravity and dry density
C. water content and specific gravity
D. voids ratio and dry density

23. Stoke’s law is valid only if the size of particle is
A. less than 0.0002 mm
B. greater than 0.2 mm
C. between 0.2 mm and 0.0002 mm
D. all of the above

24. In hydrometer analysis for a soil mass
A. both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are additive
B. both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are subtractive
C. meniscus correction is additive and dispersing agent correction is subtractive
D. meniscus correction is subtractive and dispersing agent correction is additive

25. The hydrometer method of sedimentation analysis differs from the pipette analysis mainly in
A. the principle of test
B. the method of taking observations
C. the method of preparation of soil suspension
D. all of the above

26. Which of the following is a measure of particle size range ?
A. effective size
B. uniformity coefficient
C. coefficient of curvature
D. none of the above

27. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Uniformity coefficient represents the shape of the particle size distribution curve.
B. For a well graded soil, both uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are nearly unity.
C. A soil is said to be well graded if it has most of the particles of about the same size
D. none of the above

28. Uniformity coefficient of a soil is
A. always less than 1
B. always equal to 1
C. equal to or less than 1
D. equal to or gi eater than 1

29. According to Atterberg, the soil is said to be of medium plasticity if the plasticity index PI is
A. 0 < PI < 7
B. 7<PI< 17
C. 17<PI<27
D. PI>27

30. If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the soil mass is said to be in
A. liquid state
B. plastic state
C. semi-solid state
D. solid state

32. When the plastic limit of a soil is greater than the liquid limit, then the plasticity index is reported as
A. negative
B. zero
C. non-plastic (NP)
D. 1

33. Toughness index is defined as the ratio of
A. plasticity index to consistency index
B. plasticity index to flow index
C. liquidity index to flow index
D. consistency index to liquidity index

34. If the plasticity index of a soil mass is zero, the soil is
A. sand
B. silt
C. clay
D. clayey silt

35. The admixture of coarser particles like sand or silt to clay causes
A. decrease in liquid limit and increase in plasticity index
B. decrease in liquid limit and no change in plasticity index
C. decrease in both liquid limit and plasticity index
D. increase in both liquid limit and plasticity index

36. Select the correct statement.
A. A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a non-uniform soil.
B. A uniform soil has less strength and stability than a non-uniform soil.
C. Uniformity coefficient does not affect strength and stability.
D. Uniformity coefficient of a poorly graded soil is more than that of a well graded soil.

38. The water content of soil, which represents the boundary between plastic state and liquid state, is known as
A. liquid limit
B. plastic limit
C. shrinkage limit
D. plasticity index

39. Which of the following soils has more plasticity index ?
A. sand
B. silt
C. clay
D. gravel

40. At liquid limit, all soils possess
A. same shear strength of small magnitude
B. same shear strength of large magnitude
C. different shear strengths of small magnitude
D. different shear strengths of large magnitude

41. If the material of the base of the Casagrande liquid limit device on which the cup containing soil paste drops is
softer than the standard hard rubber, then
A. the liquid limit of soil always increases
B. the liquid limit of soil always decreases
C. the liquid limit of soil may increase
D. the liquid limit of soil may decrease

42. According to IS classification, the range of silt size particles is
A. 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm
B. 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
C. 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm
D. 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm

43. Highway Research Board (HRB. classification of soils is based on
A. particle size composition
B. plasticity characteristics
C. both particle size composition and plasticity characteristics
D. none of the above

44. Inorganic soils with low compressibility are represented by
A. MH
B. SL
C. ML
D. CH

45. Sand particles are made of
A. rock minerals
B. kaolinite
C. illite
D. montmorillonite

46. The clay mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is
A. kaolinite
B. illite
C. montmorillonite
D. none of the above

47. Dispersed type of soil structure is an arrangement comprising particles having
A. face to face or parallel orientation
B. edge to edge orientation
C. edge to face orientation
D. all of the above

48. Effective stress is
A. the stress at particles contact
B. a physical parameter that can be measured
C. important because it is a function of engineering properties of soil
D. all of the above

49. Rise of water table above the ground surface causes
A. equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress
B. equal decrease in pore water pressure and total stress
C. increase in pore water pressure but decrease in total stress
D. decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress

50. The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a swimming pool are respectively
A. zero and zero
B. 0.5 kg/cm2 and zero
C. 0.5 kg/cm2 and 0.5 kg/cm2
D. 1.0 kg/cm2 and 0.5 kg/cm2

51. If the water table rises upto ground surface, then the
A. effective stress is reduced due to decrease in total stress only but pore water pressure does not change
B. effective stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but total stress does not change
C. total stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but effec-tive stress does not change
D. total stress is increased due to de-crease in pore water pressure but effective stress does not change

53. Quick sand is a
A. type of sand
B. flow condition occurring in cohesive soils
C. flow condition occurring in cohesionless soils
D. flow condition occurring in both cohesive and cohesionless soils

54. The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5 m, specific gravity 2.67 and voids ratio 0.67 is equal to
A. 1.0m
B. 1.5 m
C. 2.0 m
D. 3m

55. Physical properties of a permeant which influence permeability are
A. viscosity only
B. unit weight only
C. both viscosity and unit weight
D. none of the above

56. Select the correct statement.
A. The greater the viscosity, the greater is permeability.
B. The greater the unit weight, the greater is permeability.
C. The greater the unit weight, the smaller is permeability.
D. Unit weight does not affect per-meability.

57. Effective stress on soil
A. increases voids ratio and decreases permeability
B. increases both voids ratio and permeability
C. decreases both voids ratio and permeability
D. decreases voids ratio and increases permeability

58. If the permeability of a soil is 0.8 mm/sec, the type of soil is
A. gravel
B. sand
C. silt
D. clay

59. Which of the following methods is more suitable for the determination of permeability of clayey soil ?
A. constant head method
B. falling head method
C. horizontal permeability test
D. none of the above

60. Which of the following methods is best suited for determination of permeability of coarse-grained soils ?
A. constant head method
B. falling head method
C. both the above
D. none of the above

61. Due to a rise in temperature, the viscosity and the unit weight of the percolating fluid are reduced to 60% and 90% respectively.
If other things remain constant, the coefficient of permeability
A. increases by 25%
B. increases by 50%
C. increases by 33.3%
D. decreases by 33.3%

62. Coefficient of permeability of soil
A. does not depend upon temperature
B. increases with the increase in temperature
C. increases with the decrease in temperature
D. none of the above

63. The average coefficient of permeability of natural deposits
A. parallel to stratification is always greater than that perpendicular to stratification
B. parallel to stratification is always less than that perpendicular to stratification
C. is always same in both directions
D. parallel to stratification may or may not be greater than that perpendicular to stratification

64. The total discharge from two wells situated near to each other is
A. sum of the discharges from individual wells
B. less than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
C. greater than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
D. equal to larger of the two discharges from individual wells

65. The flownet for an earthen dam with 30 m water depth consists of 25 potential drops and 5 flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of dam material is 0.03 mm/sec. The discharge per meter length of dam is
A. 0.00018 nrVsec
B. 0.0045 m3/sec
C. 0.18m3/sec
D. 0.1125m3/sec

66. The most suitable method for drainage of fine grained cohesive soils is
A. well ppint system
B. vacuum method
C. deep well system
D. electroosmosis method

67. Total number of stress components at a point within a soil mass loaded at its boundary is
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 16

### Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering Interview Questions

76. The slope of isochrone at any point at a given time indicates the rate of change of
A. effective stress with time
B. effective stress with depth
C. pore water pressure with depth
D. pore water pressure with time

77. Within the consolidation process of a saturated clay
A. a gradual increase in neutral pressure and a gradual decrease in effective pressure takes place and sum of the two is constant
B. a gradual decrease in neutral pressure and a gradual increase in effective pressure takes place and sum of the two is constant
C. both neutral pressure and effective pressure decrease
D. both neutral pressure and effective pressure increase

78. The value of compression index for a remoulded sample whose liquid limit is 50% is
A. 0.028
B. 0.28
C. 036
D. 0.036

79. Which one of the following clays behaves like a dense sand ?
A. over-consolidated ciay with a high over-consolidation ratio
B. over-consolidated clay with a low over-consolidation ratio
C. normally consolidated clay
D. under-consolidated clay

80. Coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by
A. compressibility
B. permeability
C. both compressibility and permeability
D. none of the above

81. Degree of consolidation is
A. directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to drainage path
B. directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to square of drainage path
C. directly proportional to drainage path and inversely proportional to time
D. directly proportional to square of drainage path and inversely proportional to time

82. Time factor for a clay layer is
A. a dimensional parameter
B. directly proportional to permeability of soil
C. inversely proportional to drainage path
D. independent of thickness of clay layer

84. Clay layer A with single drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv takes 6 months to achieve 50% consolidation. The time taken by clay layer B of the same thickness with double drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv/2 to achieve the same degree of consolidation is
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months

85. Coefficient of consolidation for clays normally
A. decreases with increase in liquid limit
B. increases with increase in liquid limit
C. first increases and then decreases with increase in liquid limit
D. remains constant at all liquid limits

86. Direct measurement of permeability of the specimen at any stage of loading can be made
A. only in fixed ring type consolido-meter
B. only in floating ring type consolido-meter
C. both (A. and (B.
D. none of the above

87. Compressibility of sandy soils is
A. almost equal to that of clayey soils
B. much greater than that of clayey soils
C. much less than that of clayey soils
D. none of the above

88. Select the correct statement.
A. coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is less than that of a normally consolidated clay
B. coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is greater than that of a normally consolidated clay
C. coefficient of compressibility is cons-tant for any clay
D. none of the above

89. Coefficient of compressibility is
A. constant for any type of soil
B. different for different types of soils and also different for a soil under different states of consolidation
C. different for different types of soils but same for a soil under different states of consolidation
D. independent of type of soil but depends on the stress history of soil

90. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a structure resting on a soil
A. decreases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
B. decreases with the decrease in the plastic limit
C. increases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
D. increases with the decrease in the porosity of the soil

91. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a soil is
A. directly proportional to the voids ratio
B. directly proportional to the compression index
C. inversely proportional to the compression index
D. none of the above

92. A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm when effective stress was increased from 100 kN/m2 to 200 kN/ m2. If the effective stress is further increased from 200 kN/ m2 to 400 kN/ m2, then the settlement of the same clay is
A. 10 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 40 mm
D. none of the above

93. Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a
A. drum roller
B. rubber tyred roller
C. sheep’s foot roller
D. vibratory roller

94. With the increase in the amount of compaction energy
A. optimum water content increases but maximum dry density decreases
B. optimum water content decreases but maximum dry density increases
C. both optimum water content and maximum dry density increase
D. both optimum water content and maximum dry density decrease[ES 93]

95. The maximum dry density upto which any soil can be compacted depends upon
A. moisture content only
B. amount of compaction energy only
C. both moisture content and amount of compaction energy
D. none of the above

97. For better strength and stability, the fine grained soils and coarse grained soils are compacted respectively as
A. dry of OMC and wet of OMC
B. wet of OMC and dry of OMC
C. wet of OMC and wet of OMC
D. dry of OMC and dry of OMC where OMC is optimum moisture content

98. Select the incorrect statement.
A. Effective cohesion of a soil can never have a negative value.
B. Effective angle of internal friction for coarse grained soils is rarely below 30°.
C. Effective angle of internal friction for a soil increases as state of compact-ness increases.
D. Effective angle of internal friction is a complicated function of mineralogy and clay size content.

99. For a loose sand sample and a dense sand sample consolidated to the same effective stress
A. ultimate strength is same and also peak strength is same
B. ultimate strength is different but peak strength is same
C. ultimate strength is same but peak strength of dense sand is greater than that of loose sand
D. ultimate strength is same but peak

100. The shear strength of a soil
A. is directly proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
B. is inversely proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
C. decreases with increase in normal stress
D. decreases with decrease in normal stress

101. In a consolidated drained test on a normally consolidated clay, the volume of the soil sample during shear
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains unchanged
D. first increases and then decreases

102. Skempton’s pore pressure coefficient B for saturated soil is
A. 1
B. zero
C. between 0 and 1
D. greater than 1 [CS 95]

103. Shear strength of a soil is a unique function of
A. effective stress only
B. total stress only
C. both effective stress and total stress
D. none of the above

104. In a deposit of normally consolidated clay
A. effective stress increases with depth but water content of soil and un-drained strength decrease with depth
B. effective stress and water content increase with depth but undrained strength decreases with depth
C. effective stress and undrained strength increase with depth but water content decreases with depth
D. effective stress, water content and undrained strength decrease with depth

105. Select the incorrect statement.
Effective angle of shearing resistance
A. increases as the size of particles increases
B. increases as the soil gradation im-proves
C. is limited to a maximum value of 45°
D. is rarely more than 30° for fine grained soil

106. Unconfmed compressive strength test is
A. undrained test
B. drained test
C. consolidated undrained test
D. consolidated drained test

107. A cylindrical specimen of saturated soil failed under an axial vertical stress of 100kN/m2 when it was laterally unconfmed. The failure plane was inclined to the horizontal plane at an angle of 45°.
The values of cohesion and angle of internal friction for the soil are respectively
A. 0.5 N/mm2 and 30°
B. 0.05 N/mm2 and 0°
C. 0.2 N/mm2 and 0°
D. 0.05 N/mm2 and 45°

109. The angle that Coulomb’s failure envelope makes with the horizontal is called
A. cohesion
B. angle of internal friction
C. angle of repose
D. none of the above

111. If a cohesive soil specimen is subjected to a vertical compressive load, the inclination of the cracks to the horizontal is
A. 90°
B. 45°
C. 22.5°
D. 0°

112. Select the incorrect statement.
A. In a direct shear box test, the plane of shear failure is predetermined.
B. Better control is achieved on the drainage of the soil in a triaxial compression test.
C. Stress distribution on the failure plane in the case of triaxial compression test is uniform.
D. Unconfined compression test can be carried out on all types of soils.

113. If the shearing stress is zero on two planes, then the angle between the two planes is
A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 135°
D. 225°

114. In the triaxial compression test, the application of additional axial stress (i.e. deviator stress) on the soil specimen produces shear stress on
A. horizontal plane only
B. vertical plane only
C. both horizontal and vertical planes
D. all planes except horizontal and vertical planes

116. In a triaxial compression test when drainage is allowed during the first stage (i. e. application of cell pressure) only and not during the second stage (i.e. application of deviator stress at constant cell pressure), the test is known as
A. consolidated drained test
B. consolidated undrained test
C. unconsolidated drained test
D. unconsolidated undrained test

120. During the first stage of triaxial test when the cell pressure is increased from 0.10 N/mm2 to 0.26 N/mm2, the pore water pressure increases from 0.07 N/mm2 to 0.15 “N/mm2. Skempton’s pore pressure parameter B is
A. 0.5
B. -0.5
C. 2.0
D. – 2.0

121. Sensitivity of a soil can be defined as
A. percentage of volume change of soil under saturated condition
B. ratio of compressive strength of unconfined undisturbed soil to that of soil in a remoulded state
C. ratio of volume of voids to volume of solids
D. none of the above

122. Rankine’s theory of earth pressure assumes that the back of the wall is
A. plane and smooth
B. plane and rough
C. vertical and smooth
D. vertical and rough

123. The coefficient of active earth pressure for a loose sand having an angle of internal friction of 30° is
A. 1/3
B. 3
C. 1
D. 1/2

124. The major principal stress in an element of cohesionless soil within the backfill of a retaining wall is
A. vertical if the soil is in an active state of plastic equilibrium
B. vertical if the soil is in a passive state of plastic equilibrium
C. inclined at 45° to the vertical plane
D. none of the above

126. The effect of cohesion on a soil is to
A. reduce both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
B. increase both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
C. reduce the active earth pressure in-tensity but to increase the passive earth pressure intensity
D. increase the active earth pressure in-tensity but to reduce the passive earth pressure intensity [GATE 99]

127. A retaining wall 6m high supports a backfill with a surcharge angle of 10°. The back of the wall is inclined to the vertical at a positive batter angle of 5°. If the angle of wall friction is 7°, then the resultant active earth pressure will act at a distance of 2 m above the base and inclined to the horizontal at an angle of
A. 7°
B. 10°
C. 12°
D. 17°

128. Coefficient of earth pressure at rest is
A. less than active earth pressure but greater than passive earth pressure
B. greater than active earth pressure but less than passive earth pressure
C. greater than both the active earth pressure and passive earth pressure
D. less than both the active and passive earth pressures

137. Bishop’s method of stability analysis
A. is more conservative
B. neglects the effect of forces acting on the sides of the slices
C. assumes the slip surface as an arc of a circle
D. all of the above

138. Allowable bearing pressure for a foundation depends upon
A. allowable settlement only
B. ultimate bearing capacity of soil only
C. both allowable settlement and ultimate bearing capacity
D. none of above

142. The rise of water table below the foundation influences the bearing capacity of soil mainly by reducing
A. cohesion and effective angle of shearing resistance
B. cohesion and effective unit weight of soil
C. effective unit weight of soil and effective angle of shearing resistance
D. effective angle of shearing resistance

143. Terzaghi’s general bearing capacity formula for a strip footing
(C Nc + y D Nq + 0.5 Y NTB. gives
A. safe bearing capacity
B. net safe bearing capacity
C. ultimate bearing capacity
D. net ultimate bearing capacity where C = unit cohesion
Y =unit weight of soil D = depth of foundation B = width of foundation N„ Nq, NY = bearing capacity factors

144. Terzaghi’s bearing capacity factors Nc, Nq and Nr are functions of
A. cohesion only
B. angle of internal friction only
C. both cohesion and angle of internal friction
D. none of the above

145. In the plate loading test for determining the bearing capacity of soil, the size of square bearing plate should be
A. less than 300 mm
B. between 300 mm and 750 mm
C. between 750 mm and 1 m
D. greater than 1 m

146. Select the incorrect statement.
A. Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon the amount and direction of load.
B. Bearing capacity of a soil depends on the type of soil.
C. Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon shape and size of footing.
D. Bearing capacity of a soil is indepen-dent of rate of loading.

147. A 600 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in plate load test on a cohesionless soil under an intensity of loading of 0.2 N/ram2. The settlement of a prototype shallow footing 1 m square under the same intensity of loading is
A. 15 mm
B. between 15 mm and 25 mm
C. 25 mm
D. greater than 25 mm

148. A 300 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in a plate load test on a cohesive soil when the intensity of loading is 0.2 N/mm2. The settlement of a prototype shallow footing 1 m square under the same intensity of loading is
A. 15 mm
B. 30 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 167 mm

149. Rise of water table in cohesionless soils upto ground surface reduces the net ultimate bearing capacity approximately by
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%

150. Contact pressure beneath a rigid footing resting on cohesive soil is
A. less at edges compared to middle
B. more at edges compared to middle
C. uniform throughout
D. none of the above

151. In active state of plastic equilibrium in a non cohesive soil with horizontal ground surface

A. major principal stress is horizontal
B. minor principal stress is vertical
C. major principal stress is vertical
D. minor and major principal stresses are equally inclined to horizontal.

152. The reduction in volume of soil due to squeezing out of water from the voids, is termed

A. primary consolidation
B. primary compression
C. primary time effect
D. all the above.

153. ‘Drift’ is the material picked up, mixed, disintegrated, transported and redeposited by

A. wind
B. gravitational force
C. glaciated water
D. all the above.

154. The consistency index of a soil is defined as the ratio of

A. liquid limit plus the natural water content to the plasticity index of the soil
B. liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index of the soil
C. natural water content of a soil minus plastic limit to the plasticity index of the soil
D. natural water content of a soil plus its plastic limit to the plasticity index of the soil.

155. A clay subjected to pressure in excess to its present over-burden, is said to be

A. pre-compressed
B. pre-consolidated
C. over-consolidated
D. all the above.

156. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The void ratio in soils is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of solids
B. The porosity of a soil is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the gross volume of the soil
C. The bulk density of a soil is defined as the unit weight of the soil
D. The dry density of a soil is defined as weight of solids to the total volume of the soil
E. All the above.

157. The shear strength of a soil

A. increases with an increase in the normal stress
B. is proportional to the cohesion of the soil
C. is generally known as the strength of the soil
D. is proportional to the tangent of the angle of internal friction
E. all the above.

158. The property of a soil which permits water to percolate through it, is called

A. moisture content
B. permeability
C. capillarity
D. none of these.

159. The triaxial apparatus is usually used for

A. unconsolidated-undrained test
B. consolidated-undrained test
C. drained test
D. all the above tests.

160. A pycnometer is used to determine

A. voids ratio
B. dry density
C. water content
D. density index.

161. Soils containing organic matters

A. are of spongy nature
B. swell with decrease of moisture
C. shrink with increase of moisture content
D. none of these.

162. A soil not fully consolidated under the existing over-burden pressure, is called

A. pre-consolidated
B. normally consolidated
C. under-consolidated
D. none of these.

163. The angle of internal friction is maximum for

A. angular-grained loose sand
B. angular-grained dense sand
C. round-grained dense sand
D. round-grained loose sand
E. clays.

164. A grillage foundation

A. is provided for heavily loaded isolated columns
B. is treated as spread foundation
C. consists of two sets of perpendicularly placed steel beams
D. all the above.

165. The plasticity of fine soils may be assessed by means of

A. dry strength test
B. toughness test
C. dilatancy test
D. all of these.

166. The density of soil can be increased

A. by reducing the space occupied by air
B. by elastic compression of soil grains
C. by expelling water from pores
D. All the above.

167. The length/diameter ratio of cylindrical specimens used in triaxial test, is generally

A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 2.5
E. 3

168. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The object of classifying soils is to arrange them into groups according to their properties and behaviour
B. A soil classification system is meant to provide an accepted and systematic method of describing the various types of soils eliminating personal factors
C. The first category of soil classification is based on grain size of the soil
D. The second category of soil classification is based on fine as well as coarse grains
E. All the above.

169. The bearing capacity of a soil depends upon

A. size of the particles
B. shape of the particles
C. cohesive properties of particles
D. internal frictional resistance of particles
E. all the above.

170. A direct shear test possesses the following disadvantage:

A. A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick drainage
B. A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick dissipation of pore pressure developed during the test
C. As the test progresses the area under shear, gradually changes
D. none of these.

171. Through a point in a loaded soil mass, there exists n typical planes mutually orthogonal on which the stress is wholly normal and no shear stress acts, if n is

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

172. The pressure that builds up in pore water due to load increment on the soil, is termed

A. excess pore pressure
B. excess hydrostatic pressure
C. hydrodynamic pressure
D. all the above.

173. The ratio of emax and emin of silty sand, is

A. 2.0
B. 5
C. 3.0
D. 3.5
E. 4.0

174. A flow net may be utilised for the determination of

B. seepage
C. hydrostatic pressure
D. seepage pressure
E. all the above.

175. The neutral stress in a soil mass is

A. force per neutral area
B. force per effective area
C. stess taken up by the pore water
D. stress taken up by solid particles.

176. If voids ratio is 0.67, water content is 0.188 and specific gravity is 2.68, the degree of saturation of the soil, is

A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 75%

177. If water content of a soil is 40%, G is 2.70 and void ratio is 1.35, the degree of saturation is

A. 70%
B. 75%
C. 80%
D. 85%
E. 90%

178. On wetting, cohesive soils,

A. loose permeability
B. gain shear strength
C. loose elasticity
D. decrease their shear strength.

179. Which one of the following statements is true for Mohr-Coulomb envelope ?

A. Coulomb suggests that the relationship between shear strength and normal stress, is adequately represented by the straight line
B. The generalised Mohr theory suggests that, though the shear stress depends on the normal stress, the relation is not linear
C. Coulomb and Mohr suggest that a definite relationship exists among the principal stress and the angle of internal friction
D. For an ideal pure friction material, the straight line passes through the origin.
E. All the above.

180. A structure is erected on an impervious clay whose thickness is 12 m. Drainage is possible both at upper and lower surfaces. Coefficient of consolidation is 0.015 cm2 per minute. For attaining 50% consolidation with a time factor 0.20, the number of days required

A. 3233
B. 3123
C. 33331
D. 3313

181. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The range of water content between the liquid limit and plastic limit, is called plasticity index.
B. The ratio of the liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index of soils, is called consistency index
C. The ratio of natural water content minus its plastic limit to its plasticity index is called liquidity index
D. The ratio between plasticity index and flow index (i.e. slope of flow curve in case of liquid limit), is called toughness index
E. All the above.

182. ‘Talus’ is the soil transported by

A. wind
B. water
C. glacier
D. gravitational force.

183. A triaxial shear test is prefered to direct shear test, because

A. it can be performed under all three driange conditions with complete control
B. precise measurement of pore pressure and change in volume during test, is not posible
C. stress distribution on the failure plane, is non uniform
D. none of these.

184. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. When stress decreases, void, ratio decreases
B. When stress decreases, coefficient of permeability decreases
C. When stress decreases, coefficient of volume change decreases
D. When stress decreases void ratio, co-effi-cients of per-meability and volume change decrease.

185. Chemical weathering of soil is caused due to

A. oxidation
B. carbonation
C. hydration
D. leaching
E. all the above.

186. Hydrometer readings are corrected for:

A. temperature correction
B. meniscus correction
C. dispersing agent correction
D. meniscus and dispersing agent corrections
E. temperature, meniscus and dispersing agent corrections.

187. Tergazhi’s theory of one dimensional consolidation assumes

A. soil is homogeneous and fully saturated
B. water and soil particles are incompressible
C. deformation of the soil, is entirely due to change in volume
D. Darcey’s law for the velocity of flow of water through soil, is perfectly valid
E. all the above.

188. The specific gravity of Calcite is

A. 2.65
B. 2.72
C. 2.85
D. 2.90

189. The ratio of volume of air voids to the volume of total voids, is known as

A. air content
B. percentage air voids
C. percentage voids
D. porosity.

190. A plane inclined at an angle φ to the horizontal at which the soil is expected to stay in the absence of any lateral support, is known as

A. natural slope line
B. repose line
C. the φ line
D. all the above.

191. Tergazhi’s theory of one dimensional consolidation assumes

A. load is applied in one direction
B. coefficient of permeability is constant
C. excess pore water drains out only in the vertical direction
D. time lag in consolidation is due entirely to permeability
E. all the above.

192. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The dry density reduces by addition of water after attaining optimum moisture content
B. The line joining the peak of three moisture content graphs obtained by using three compactive energies, is called line of optimus
C. Well graded coarse grained soils can be compacted to a very high density as compared to fine grained soils
D. All the above. .

193. A soil mass is said to be in plastic equilibrium if

A. it is stressed to maximum
B. it is on the verge of failure
C. it is in plastic stage
D. it starts flowing.

194. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The permeability of the coarse-grained soils may be reduced by grouting.
B. The process of injecting fluids (i.e. grouts) into the pores space of the soil, is called grouting.
C. The grouting increases the soil strength.
D. All the above.

195. A soil sample of mass specific gravity 1.92, has a moisture content 30%. If the specific gravity of solids is 2.75, the void ratio, is

A. 0.858
B. 0.860
C. 0.862
D. 0.864

196. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids in a given mass of soil, is known

A. porosity
B. specific gravity
C. void ratio
D. water content.

197. During seepage through a soil, direction of seepage is always

A. parallel to equipotential lines
B. perpendicular to stream lines
C. perpendicular to equipotential lines
D. none of these.

198. The property of a soil which allows it to be deformed rapidly without rupture, elastic rebound and also a volume change, is known

A. porosity
B. plasticity
C. permeability
D. ductility.

199. The slip at critical angle, is generally known

A. δ 1-line
B. rupture plane
C. slip plane
D. all the above.

200. Pick up the cohesive soil from the following:

A. Red earth
B. Clay
C. Black cotton soil
D. Compacted ground.

201. Pile foundations are generally preferred to for

A. bridge foundations
B. sky scrapper buildings
C. residential buildings
D. runways.

202. The angle of internal friction of clays, is usually

A. 0° to 5°
B. 5° to 20°
C. 20° to 30°
D. 30° to 45°

203. The specific yield of soil depends upon

A. compaction of stratum
B. distribution of pores
C. shape and size of particles
D. all the above.

204. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Coefficient of compressibility is the decrease in void ratio per unit increase of pressure
B. The percent settlement at any time is called degree of consolidation
C. Time factor is a dimensionless quantity
D. The initial curve on either side of the point of unloading and reloading is called ‘virgin curve’
E. All the above.

205. ‘Loess’ is silty clay formed by the action of

A. water
B. glacier
C. wind
D. gravitational force.

206. The maximum possible value nf dry density is referred to as

A. dry density
B. zero air voids
C. saturation dry density
D. all the above.

207. Failure of a slope occurs only when total shear force is

A. equal to total shearing strength
B. greater than total shearing strength
C. less than total shearing strength
D. none of these.

208. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. A soil having pH value more than 7 is an acidic soil
B. A soil having pH value less than 7 is an acidic soil
C. A soil having pH value more than 7 is an alkaline soil
D. A soil containing chemicals for the manufacture of portland cement is preferred.

209. Cohesionless soil is

A. sand
B. silt
C. clay
D. clay and silt.

210. The shearing force acting along the slice of a curved surface of slippage, causes the soil to slide

A. down at the centre
B. down at the toe
C. upward at the centre
D. none of these.

211. The seepage exit gradient in a soil is the ratio of

A. total head to the length of seepage
B. flow line to slope
C. head upstream to that at downstream
D. head loss to the length of the seepage
E. none of these.

212. Sedimentation analysis is based on the assumption:

A. soil particles are spherical
B. particles settle independent of other particles
C. walls of the jar do not affect the settlement .
D. all the above.

213. The maximum pressure which a soil can carry without shear failure, is called

A. safe bearing capacity
B. net safe bearing capacity
C. net ultimate bearing capacity
D. ultimate bearing capacity.

214. For general engineering purposes, soils are classified by

A. particle size classification system
B. textural classification system
C. High Way Research Board (HRB), classification system
D. unified soil classification system.

215. If there is no impervious boundary at the bottom of a hydraulic structure, stream lines tend to follow :

A. a straight line
B. a parabola
C. a semi-ellipse
D. a semi-circle.

216. The change of moisture content of soils, changes the

A. value of the angle of repose
B. amount of compaction required
C. cohesive strength of soil
D. all the above.

217. A failure wedge develops if a retaining wall

A. moves away from the backfill
B. moves towards the backfill
C. sinks downwards
D. stresses equally by vertical and horizontal forces.

218. For determining the ultimate bearing capacity of soil, the recommended size of a square bearing plate to be used in load plate test should be 30 to 75 cm square with a minimum thickness of

A. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 20 mm
E. 25 mm

219. The water content in a soil sample when it continues to loose weight without loosing the volume, is called

A. Shrinkage limit
B. Plastic limit
C. liquid limit
D. semi-solid limit.

220. When a cohesionless soil attains quick condition, it looses

A. shear strength
B. bearing capacity
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (6).