300+ TOP Lab Technician MCQs and Answers Exam Quiz

Lab Technician Multiple Choice Questions

1. OSCE Means:
1. Objective structured Clinical Examination
2. Observation structured Clinical Examination
3. Objective subjective Clinical Examination
4. Observation subject Clinical Examination

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2. 7.0 is the normal pH of the:
1. Fluid within a typical cell
2. Urine
3. Blood in the renal artery
4. Blood in the testicular vein

3. The visceral pleura is:
1. The thinnest portion of the peritoneum
2. The membrane lining surface of the lungs
3. The fluid around the lungs
4. The membrane lining the wall of the thoracic cavity

4. Calorie intake of 1 year old child:
1. 800 Kcal/day
2. 1500 Kcal/day
3. 1000 Kcal/day
4. 1200 Kcal/day

5. Lactated Ringer’s solution is contraindicated in:
1. Lactic acidosis
2. Fluid lost as bile or diarrhea
3. Hypovolemia
4. Burns

6. Acid medium of vaginal maintained by:
1. E-coli
2. Doderleins bacilli
3. Trichomonas vaginalis
4. Staphylococci

7. An acid-fast bacillus which is pathogenic:
1. Coryne bacterium diphtheria
2. Mycobacterium leprae
3. Salmonella typhi
4. Bascillus pertusis

8. Intrinsic factor of castle is secreted by:
1. B Cells
2. Chief cells
3. Mucus cells
4. Parietal cells

9. What is the full form of ACTH?
1. Acetylcholine
2. Angiotensin converting hormone
3. Angiotensin converting enzyme
4. Adreno cortico Tropic hormone

10. One function of parasympathetic nervous system is:
1. Constriction of pupil.
2. Acceleration of heart beat
3. Stimulating of sweat gland
4. Contraction of hair muscles

11. The best and safest method of sterilization is:
1. Immersion in chemical germicide
2. Flaming
3. Autoclaving
4. Boiling for 30 minutes

12. Hygiene factors and motivational factors are key concepts in:
1. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
2. Herzberg’s two factor theory
3. Goal setting theory
4. Expectancy theory

13. Ketone bodies are found in urine of patients with uncontrolled diabetes due to:
1. Decomposition of excess sugar in blood
2. Impaired kidney function
3. Increased metabolism of fat
4. Increased metabolism of protein

14. Which of the following is a differentiating test between mucus and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from a nasal discharge:
1. Glucose
2. Protein
3. Microorganism
4. Specific gravity

15. Hygiene factors and motivational factors are key concepts in:
1. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
2. Herzberg’s two factor theory
3. Goal setting theory
4. Expectancy theory

16. An acid-fast bacillus which is pathogenic:
1. Coryne bacterium diphtheria
2. Mycobacterium leprae
3. Salmonella typhi
4. Bascillus pertusis

17. Acid medium of vaginal maintained by:
1. E-coli
2. Doderleins bacilli
3. Trichomonas vaginalis
4. Staphylococci

18 Rorschach Inkblot test, Thematic apperception test are based on the phenomenon of:
1. Identification
2. Projection
3. Observation
4. Transference

19 Calorie intake of 1 year old child:
1. 800 Kcal/day
2. 1500 Kcal/day
3. 1000 Kcal/day
4. 1200 Kcal/day

20 Inadequate intake by the pregnant woman of which vitamin can cause neural tube detect?
1. Riboflavin
2. Niacin
3. Thiamine
4. Folic acid

21 Disposal of expired and cytotoxic drugs is by:
1. Separate landfill disposal
2. Municipal waste
3. Chemical treatment
4. Autoclaving

22 The Fifth Vital sign is
(A) SaO2
(B) Pain
(C) ABG analysis)
(D) Mean arterial pressure

23 – The innermost layer of the heart is called:
(A) Pericardium
(B) Myocardium
(C) Visceral pericardium
(D) Endocardium

24 -Which cells are that takes part in innate immunity by killing virus-infected cells?
(A) Neutrophils
(B) T-cells
(C) Macrophages
(D) NK-cells

25 – Leprosy is also called as
(A) Darier’s disease
(B) Scabies
(C) Hansen’s disease
(D) Psoriasis

26 Sperms are produced by the process of
(A) Gestational
(B) Oogenesis
(C) Spermatogenesis
(D) Ovulation

27 – The normal human body temperature is maintained by
(A) Fiber
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Fat
(D) Protein

28 – Which of the following is transmitted by rodents?
(A) Norwalk virus
(B) Hepatitis-A virus
(C) Polio virus
(D) Ebola virus

29 – The sterilization of glasswares is done through
(A) Disinfection
(B) Dry heat
(C) Moist heat
(D) Fumigation

30- The most common hospital acquired infection is
(A) Respiratory (Chosen option)
(B) Digestive system
(C) Bladder
(D) Kidney

31 -Which among the following do the phagocytic action?
(A) Neutrophils
(B) Eosinophils
(C) Polymorphs
(D) Basophils

31 – Which of the following is an air-borne disease?
(A) Cholera
(B) Hepatitis A
(C) Typhoid
(D) Measles

33- Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by
(A) Spinal cord
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Choroid plexus
(D) Cerebrum

34- Increased glucose tolerance is seen in
(A) Hypopituitarism
(B) Hyperinsulinism
(C) Hypothyroidism
(D) All of the above

35 – . Which of the following blood group is considered a universal donor ?
(A) A
(C) AB
(B) B
(D) 0

36 – Which vitamin is essential for Calcium Absorption?
(A) Vitamin D
(B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin B12

37 – What is the main source of energy ?
(A) Vitamins
(B) Iron
(C) Water
(D) Fats

38 – Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of ____________
(A) Zinc
(B) Vitamin K
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Folic Acids

39 – Which is known as the sunshine vitamin?
(A) Vitamin D
(B) Vitamin K
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin C

40 – Which of the following is NOT an arthropod-borne disease?
(A) Hookworm (Chosen option)
(B) Malaria
(C) Plague
(D) Filaria

41 – Which one of the following diseases is caused by culex mosquitos?
(A) Malaria
(B) Cholera
(C) Plague (Chosen option)
(D) Filaria

42- Malaria is a ________ disease caused by mosquito bite
(A) Protozoal
(B) Bacterial ()
(C) Viral
(D) Worms

43. Dengue syndrome is a/an ________ kind of infection
(A) Respiratory)
(B) Intestinal
(C) Arthropod-borne
(D) None of the above

44. Some diseases last for only very short period are called __________ diseases
1 : chronic
2 : acute
3 : endemic
4 : epidemic

45. Name the anticoagulant present in the tube shown in the image:

1 : Sodium citrate
2 : EDTA
3 : Sodium fluoride
4 : Heparins
Answer: 1

47 – 34. The arrow mark point to which part of the analyser as shown in the image?

1 : Switch plate
2 : Display
3 : Printer
4 : The probe in which the sample is introduced
Answer: 4

48 . Name the part marked by the arrow as shown in the image.

1 : Reagent tray
2 : Sample probe
3 : Cuvette
4 : Reaction tube
Answer: 2

49 – Which sample is NOT suitable for electrolyte analysis?
1 :Hemolysed sample
2 : Serum sample
3 : Whole blood with heparin
4 : Arterial blood
Answer: 1

50 -. Identify the instrument shown in the image.
50%2Bq

1 : Glucometer
2 : ELISA reader
3 : Semi auto analyser
4 : None of the above
Answer: 2

51 – Which is the best choice of automatic analysers?
1 : Continuous flow analyser
2 : Random access analyser
3 : Semi-auto analyser
4 : Batch analyser
Answer: 2

52. Microscopic examination of urine is done to find out:
1 : RBCs
2 : Pus cells
3 : Casts
4 : All of the above
Answer: 4

53. Sample used for platelet counting is
1 : Serum
2 : Plasma
3 : Citrated blood
4 : EDTA blood
Answer: 3,4

54. Abnormal proliferation of hematopoietic cells is called
1 : Pancytopenia
2 :Leukemia
3 :Anemia
4 : All of the above
Answer: 2

55. The acid hematin method of estimation of hemoglobin is also known as the:
1 : Colorimetric method
2 : Automated method
3 :Sahli’s method
4 : None of the above
Answer: 3

56. Normal level of total protein present in cerebrospinal fluid is
1 : 25 to 80 mg/dL
2 : 15 to 60 mg /dL
3 : 100 to 120mg/dL
4 : 90 to 110mg/dL
Answer: 2

57. Which one of the following is the parent cell of platelets?
1 : Granulocytes
2 :Lymphoblasts
3 : Megakaryocytes
4 : Erythroblast
Answer: 3

58. Normal level of MCH (mean corpuscular hemoglobin) is
1 : 59.5 ± 205pg per cell
2 : 39.5 ± 2.5pg per cell
3 : 79.5 ± 2.5pg per cell
4 : 29.5 ± 2.5pg per cell
Answer: 4

59. Finger prick is used to determine
1 : Bleeding time
2 :Prothrombin time
3 :aPTT
4 : None of the above
Answer: 1

60. Rh typing is based on the D-antigen present in:
1 : Platelets
2 : RBC
3 : Lymphocytes
4 :Eosinophils
Answer: 2

61. Which of the following personnel work for a blood bank?
1 : Medical officer
2 : Technician
3 : Nurse
4 : All of the above
Answer: 4

62. Which one of the following does not include in blood bank registers?
1 : Donor register
2 : Stock register
3 : Male and female register
4 : Issue register
Answer: 3

63. Which one of the following does not include criteria for blood donors?
1 : Age between 18 to 50 years
2 : HB more than 12.5%
3 : Monthly blood donation allowed
4 : Weight more than 45 kg
Answer: 3

64. ESR equipment is known as:
1 :Sahli’s tube
2 : Centrifuge
3 :Vacutainer
4 :Westegren’s tube
Answer: 4

65. Name the graph shown in the image:

1 :Levey-Jennings chart
2 : Accuracy chart
3 : Precision chart
4 : Standardisation chart
Answer: 4

66. The method used to measure the rate of a reaction is ________
1 : Principle method
2 : End point method
3 : Kinetic method
4 :Immuno method
Answer: 3

67. In which of the following staining method, only methylene blue or carbolfuchsin is used?
1 :Supravital stain
2 : Simple staining
3 :Leishman staining
4 : PAS stain
Answer: 2

68. The amount of anticoagulant in a CPD-A 300 ml blood collection bag is:
1 : 25 ml
2 : 35 ml
3 : 42 ml
4 : 45ml
Answer: 3

69. The Maximum Permissible Dose for the whole body for radiation workers is:
1 : 10 mRem/year
2 : 8 mRem/year
3 : 5 mRem/year
4 : 15 mRem/year
Answer: 3

70. The plasma membrane of muscle cells is known as the:
1 : Pericardium
2 : Pleural membrane
3 : Sarcolemma
4 : Diaphragm
Answer: 3

71. Cerebrospinal fluid flows through the:
1 : Sub dural space
2 :Pia mater
3 : Sub arachnoid space
4 : None of the above
Answer: 3

72. Hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary does not include ____________
1 : Thyroid stimulating hormone
2 :Parathormone
3 :Adrenocortico tropic releasing hormone
4 : Gonadotropin releasing hormone
Answer: 3,4
This Question is “Multiple answer key”.

73. Which one of the following is not lymphoid organs?
1 : Thymus
2 : Liver
3 : Bone marrow
4 : Lymph node
Answer: 2

74. A specific molecule that binds to a receptor is called a _____ of the receptor.
1 : Ion
2 : Carrier
3 : Ligand
4 : Linkers
Answer: 3

75. Which one of the following does not include in maintenance of biosafety cabinets?
1 : Should not be loaded with unnecessary items
2 : Regular decontamination should be done
3 : Work can be done near the front of the cabinet
4 : Avoid bringing hands and arms out of the cabinet while working
Answer: 3

76. Which section of a clinical laboratory deals with the assessment of different cells in blood?
1 : Biochemical analysis
2 : Haematology
3 : Serology
4 : Specimen collection
Answer: 2

77. Which of the following records should be retained in a laboratory?
1 : Quality control records
2 : Instrument maintenance records
3 : Blood donor records
4 : All of the above
Answer: 4

78. Chemicals which liquefy when exposed to air are called:
1 : Primary standard
2 : Buffer.
3 : Hygroscopic
4 : Reagent mixture
Answer: 3

79. The reagent used in the estimation of glucose is:
1 : Urease reagent
2 : Hexokinase reagent
3 : Jaffe’s reaction
4 : None of the above
Answer: 2

80. All special types of investigations use:
1 : Distilled water
2 : Type 3 reagent grade water
3 : Type 2 reagent grade water
4 : Type 1 reagent grade water
Answer: 4

81. Which of the following helps to keep a reagent or chemical dry?
1 : Amber bottles
2 : Desiccators
3 : Test tubes
4 : Plastic bottles
Answer: 2

82. Precautions followed against biohazards include:
1 : Prevention of self-injury during specimen collection
2 : Decontamination of laboratory instruments regularly
3 : Immunization of laboratory personnel
4 : All of the above
Answer: 4

83. A fragment of tissue taken out of an organ from living person for examination is called:
1 : Adhesion
2 : Cryostat
3 : Smear
4 : Biopsy
Answer: 4

84. The commonly used fixative for slide preparation is:
1 : Benedict’s reagent
2 : Distilled water
3 : Formalin
4 : None of the above
Answer: 3

85. Anti-immunoglobulin is also known as
1 : Coomb’s serum
2 : Local serum
3 :Cryo serum
4 : None of the above
Answer: 1

86. Which one of the following does NOT include in various aspects of quality control in blood banks?
1 : All the reagents should be clear without any turbidity
2 : The Rho(D) antigen should be checked with only the positive control
3 : Working of refrigerators, centrifuges and water baths should be checked periodically
4 : Records of validation, quality control and staff training procedures must be maintained
Answer: 2

87. Samples of skin scrapings are obtained using:
1 : A sharp needle
2 : A blunt scalpel
3 : A knife
4 : Cotton
Answer: 2

88. Which of the following specimens is tested for parasites?
1 : Urine
2 : Blood
3 : Urine and Blood
4 : None of the above
Answer: 3

89. Which of the following cultures is difficult to maintain?
1 : Aerobic
2 :Capnophilic
3 :Anerobic
4 : All of the above
Answer: 3

90. Staining of mycobacterium leprae requires:
1 : 10% sulfuric acid
2 : 12% sulfuric acid
3 : 5% sulfuric acid
4 : None of the above
Answer: 3

91. Nigrosin solution is used for
1 : Gram staining
2 : Acid fast staining
3 : Simple staining
4 : Negative staining for capsules
Answer: 4

92. Which of the following are catalase producing bacteria?
1 : Streptococci
2 : Staphylococci
3 : Parasites
4 : Nematodes
Answer: 2

93. Which one of the following is NOT a solid culture media?
1 : Blood agar
2 : Nutrient agar
3 : Selenite F broth
4 : None of the above
Answer: 3

94. Which one of the following is NOT the characteristics of the BACTEC system?
1 : The selection of culture bottles depends on the clinical history of the patient
2 : It uses miniaturised biochemical strips
3 : Bacterial subcultures can be processed for identification of organisms based on biochemical reactions
4 : Biochemical analysis results are not displayed
Answer: 4

95. What temperature is maintained in a bacterial incubator?
1 : 20 degrees Celsius
2 : 28 degrees Celsius
3 : 37 degrees Celsius
4 : 45 degrees Celsius
Answer: 3

96. The device which maintains the set temperature in a hot air oven is called:
1 : Chamber
2 : Steel door
3 : Indicator
4 : Thermostat
Answer: 4

97. Rice water stool is a characteristic feature of
1 : Cholera
2 :Steatorrhea
3 : Bacterial infection
4 : Constipation
Answer: 1

98. The unit of length is:
1 : Kilogram
2 : Mole
3 : Metre
4 : Seconds
Answer: 3

99. Components of professional socialization include:
1 : Knowledge and skills
2 : Attitudes
3 : Professional values
4 : All of the above
Answer: 4

100. The incubation period for the hepatitis B virus within the body is ________
1 : 45 to 180 days
2 : 20 to 30 days
3 : 10 to 20 days
4 : 30 to 80 days
Answer: 1

101. The disinfectant commonly applied on the site of blood collection is:
1 : 70% ethanol
2 : Acetone
3 : HCL
4 : Sodium carbonate
Answer: 1

102. Synovial fluid is collected from the:
1 : Joints
2 : Pericardium
3 : Pleural cavity
4 : Abdomen
Answer: 1

103. Which one of the following does not include routine liver function test?
1 : Bilirubin
2 : Bile acids
3 : SGOT
4 : Alkaline phosphatase
Answer: 2

104. The reagent used in the estimation of bilirubin is _____
1 : Peroxide reagent
2 : Urease reagent
3 :Diazo reagent
4 : Methylene reagent
Answer: 3

105. Hormone assays using immunoassay techniques require all except
1 : Serum sample
2 : Calibrators
3 : Washing solution
4 : Tap water
Answer: 4

106. Which one of the following tests does not form part of the glucose tolerance test?
1 : Fasting blood glucose
2 : Blood urea
3 : One-hour blood glucose
4 : Urine reducing sugar
Answer: 2

107. Un-iced blood samples taken for blood gas analysis should be analysed within:
1 : 1 hour
2 : 30 minutes
3 : 2 hours
4 : 45 minutes
Answer: 2

108. Acid phosphatase estimation is done in the disease related to
1 : Thyroid
2 : Brain
3 : Prostate
4 : Intestine
Answer: 3

109. Cerebrospinal fluid samples are collected by
1 : Lab technician
2 : Physician
3 : Staff nurse
4 : Ward boy
Answer: 2

110. The normal level of reticulocytes in adults is:
1 : 5 to 6%
2 : 0.5 to 2.5 %
3 : 2 to 4%
4 : 4 to 5%
Answer: 2

111. Simultaneous presence of anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia is called
1 : Pancytopenia
2 :Megaloblasticanemia
3 :Hemolyticanemia
4 : Sickle cell anemia
Answer: 1

112. Dengue is caused by
A. Alphavirus
B. Bunyavirus
C Flavivirus
D. Hantavirus

Answer: C

113. Yellow fever is caused by
A Flavivirus
B Alphavirus
C Calcivirus
D. Bunyavirus
Answer: A

114. Infective period of Aedes mosquitoes in dengue
A 1-2 days
B-10 days
C.- Till next bite
D- Till death
Answer: D

115. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
A Louse
B. Trombiculid mite
C. Rat fles
D. Soft tick
Answer: B

116. Tinea pedis is casued by
A. E floccosum
B.T rubrum
C. Microsporum
D. T schoenleinii

Answer: B

117. Tenia pedia is seen among
A. People of cold countries
B. Those wearings socks and shoes
C. Those walking barefoot
D. Hospitalized peope

Answer: B

118. Chances of perinatal HIV infectin to the baby
A 0.5-1%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 90%

Answer: B

119. VDRL is used in the diagnosis of
A. Syphilis
B. HIV
C. Typhoid
D. Tuberculosis
Answer: A
120. Incubation period for primary syphilis
A 1-2 days
B. 1-2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 3 months
Answer: C

121. Jarisch-Harxheimer reaction is common in
A Congenital syphilis
B. Primary syphilis
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Tertiary syphilis

Answer: B
122. Lyme disease is caused by
A Borrelia vincenti
B. Borrelia burgdoferi
C. Borrelia recurrentis
D. Leptospira interrogans

Answer: B
123. SARS virus is a
A. Coronavirus
B. Lentivirus
C. Calcivirus
D. Arenavirus

Answer: A

124- Which one of the following agent can be used to
malaria?
A Chloroquine
B. Albendazole
C. Attenuated vaccine
D Chloramphenice

Answer: A

125 . Range of incubation period in typhoid
A 3-21 days
B 10- 30 Day
C 1 – 3 months
D. 3-6 months

Answer: A

126. Route of administration of influenza vaccine
A. Intradermal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Per oral
D. intranasal

Answer: D

127. Incubation period for influenza pandemic H1N1
A. 12-24 hours
B. 1-3 days
C. 1 – 7 days
D. 5-10 day

Answer: C

128. Incubation period of mumps
A. 1-7 days
7-14 days
C 12-24 days
D. 21-28 days

Answer: C

129. Who discovered Oral polio vaccine which is used now-a-das
Α. Καρrowsky
В. СоX
C. Salk
D. Sabin

Answer: D

130. Usual dose of purified protein derivative in Mantoux testis
A- 5 IU
B.- 50 IU
C-100 IU
D -500IU

Answer: A

131. Corneal beading is a complication of
A. Leprosy
B AIDS
C. Herpes simplex keratitis
D. Acanthamoeba keratitis

Answer: A

132. Most common site of extrathoracic TB in children
A Lymph node
B. Skeleton
C. Central nervous system
D. Heart
Answer: A

133. Mantoux +ve is induration measuring
A 10mm
B. 6-9mm
C. <5mm D. >20mm
Answer: A

134. The botulism intoxication occurs due to
A. An endotoxin
B. An exotoxin
C. Neurotoxin
D. Mycotoxin
Answer: C

Question135. Aorta arises from
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle
Answer: D

136. The protein portion of the enzyme is
A. Apoenzyme
B. Prosthetic group
C. Co-factor
D. Coenzyme
Answer: A

137. Which of the following cells is not a WBC ?
A. Neutrophil
B. Basophil
C. Manocyte
D. Thrombocyte
Answer: D

138. The colouring agent used in antisera AB is
A. Methelene blue
B. Acriflavin
C. Eosin
D. Safranin
Answer: C

139. Name the anticoagulant present in purple coloured vacutainer tube
A. Heparin
B. EDTA
C. Sodium citrate
D. None of these
Answer: B

140. pH of buffered distilled water used in Leishman’s staining is
A. 6.8
B. 7.2
C. 7.4
D. 8
Answer: A

141. Blood collected in CPD-A can be stored in blood bank refrigerator for ______ days.
A. 35
B. 28
C. 21
D. 25
Answer: A

142. HDN due to Rh incompatibility can be prevented by giving anti-D antibody to Rh negative mother within
________ hours of delivery of Rh positive infant.
A. 48 hrs
B. 72 hrs
C. 24 hrs
D. 36 hrs
Answer: B

143. Which of the following is not an RBC diluting fluid ?
A. Normal saline
B. Dacies fluid
C. Turkes fluid
D. Toissons fluid
Answer: C

144. During donor screening persons having history of malaria should be avoided for a period of _______________
years.
A. 1 week
B. 2 years
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
Answer: D

145. Bombay blood group persons have _________ antigen in their blood.
A. A Ag
B. B Ag
C. h Ag
D. H Ag
Answer: C

146. Depth of improved neubauer counting chamber is
A. 0.1 mm
B. .01 mm
C. .001 mm
D. 1 mm
Answer: A

147. Name the enzyme estimation done in semen sample to analyse the secretory function of prostate
A. alanine transaminase
B. asparte transaminase
C. acid phosphatase
D. alkaline phasphatase
Answer: C

Q148. The only cell in normal CSF is
A. Neutrophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Manocyte
D. None of these
Answer: B

Q149. Name the tests used to detect bile salt in urine.
A. Benzidine test
B. Fouchet’s test
C. Ehrlich’s test
D. Hays test
Answer: D

150. Ketone bodies in urine are
A. acetone
B. `beta` hydroxy butyric acid
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of these
Answer: C

151. Normal sperm count is
A. 80 – 160 millions / ml
B. 40 – 80 millions / ml
C. 100 – 120 millions / ml
D. 140 – 200 millions / ml
Answer: A

152. Name the hormone detected in pregnancy.
A. ADH
B. GH
C. TSH
D. hCG
Answer: D

153. Specific gravity of urine less than 1.010 indicates
A. Diabetes millitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. None of the above
Answer: B

154. ‘Glucose memory test’ is
A. GCT
B. Hb`A_1` C
C. GTT
D. PPBS
Answer: B

155. Which of the following is not a renal function test ?
A. Serum urea
B. Serum creatinine
C. Cystatin – C
D. Total cholesterol
Answer: D

156. Who is known as ‘father of microbiology’ ?
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Robert Koch
C. Alexander Fleming
D. Edward Jenner
Answer: A

157. Serum electrolytes are analysed using
A. Calorimeter
B. Flamephotometer
C. Spectrophotometer
D. None of these
Answer: B

158. Van-den-Bergh reaction is used to detect
A. Serum creatinine
B. Serum urea
C. Serum bilirubin
D. Blood glucose
Answer: C

159. Cob-Web appearance of clot in CSF indicates
A. Jaundice
B. Haemorrhage
C. Spinal constriction
D. Tuberculous meningitis
Answer: D

160. _____________ is otherwise known as ‘bad cholesterol’.
A. LDL
B. HDL
C. VLDL
D. Chylomicrons
Answer: A

161. All the following are motile bacteria except
A. E.Coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Vibrio
D. Proteus
Answer: B

162. Oils and grease can be sterilised using
A. autoclave
B. vaccine bath
C. hot air oven
D. none of these
Correct Answer. Option-C

163. Solidifying agent of a culture media is
A. peptone
B. meat extract
C. sodium chloride
D. agar
Answer: D

164. ______________ is added to Mac Conkeys agar to inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria.
A. Bile salt
B. Peptone
C. Neutral red
D. Agar
Answer: A

165. All the following are examples of transport media except
A. VR medium
B. Thioglycollate medium
C. Stuarts medium
D. Amies medium
Answer: B

166. Which of the following tests come under IMViC tests ?
A. Coagulase test
B. Catalase test
C. Citrate utilisation test
D. None of above

Answer: C

167. The type of immunoglobulin which provides local immunity is
A. `I_g` M
B. `I_g` D
C. `I_g` G
D. `I_g` A
Answer: D

168. Confirmatory tests for AIDs is
A. Western blot
B. Southern blot
C. ELISA
D. CLIA
Answer: A

169. The bacteria which require ‘X’ and ‘V’ factors for its growth is
A. staphylococcus
B. haemophilus
C. brucella
D. salmonella
Answer: B

170. RPR and VDRL tests are done for the diagnosis of
A. AIDs
B. Hepatitis
C. Syphilis
D. Malaria
Answer: C

171. All the following are examples of blood parasites except
A. Plasmodium
B. Brugia malayi
C. Leishmania
D. Giardia lamblia
Answer: D

172. The fixative used for blood containing specimen is
A. Carnoy’s fluid
B. 95% ethyl alcohol
C. 10% formalin
D. Zenker’s fluid
Answer: A

173. Staining technique for assessment of hormonal status is
A. Pap stain
B. Shorrs stain
C. H & E stain
D. JSB stain
Answer: B

174. The ‘word’ which refers to the ‘closeness of a result on repeated analysis’ is
A. accuracy
B. sensitivity
C. precision
D. specificity
Answer: C

175. ‘Mycology’ means the study of
A. bacteria
B. immunity
C. parasites
D. fungus

Answer: D

176. Infections induced by a ‘physician’ is known as
A. iatrogenic
B. nosocomial
C. congenital
D. subclinical
Answer: A

177. The enzyme estimation done for the diagnosis of pancreatitis
A. acid phosphatase
B. amylase
C. alkaline phosphatase
D. creatinine kinase
Answer: B

178. The basic component of Leishman’s stain is
A. cosin
B. malachite green
C. methelene blue
D. none of the above
Answer: C

179. Name the blood cells increased in asthma
A. basophil
B. neutrophil
C. lymphocyte
D. cosinophil
Answer: D

180. Intermediate host of plasmodium is
A. man
B. female anopheles mosquito
C. male anopheles mosquito
D. none of the above
Answer: A

181. Which of the following is a Romanowsky stain
A. Leishmans stain
B. Giemsas stain
C. Jenners stain
D. All the above
Answer: D

182. In wintrobes mixture, ammonium oxalate and potassium oxalate is mixed in the ratio
A. 2 : 3
B. 3 : 2
C. 1 : 4
D. 2 : 1
Answer: B

183. The anticoagulant used in OFT is
A. EDTA
B. Citrate
C. Heparin
D. Sodium flouride-potassium oxalate mixture
Answer: C

184. The bacteria showing swarming growth is
A. E.coli
B. Salmonella
C. Proteus
D. All the above
Answer: C

185. To remove blood clots from blood pipette, it is immersed in
A. KOH
B. `NH_4OH`
C. INHCl
D. 3% acetic acid
Answer: A

186. Incomplete antibodies are detected using
A. Electrophoresis
B. Coombs test
C. Agglutination test
D. VDRL test
Answer: B

187. Van den Bergh Reaction is use to detect ?
Serum Bilirubin

188. Tuberculous Meningitis which test indicates ?
cob-web- Appearance of clot.

189. Who is bad Cholestrol.?
LDL

190. Which is add mac conkeys agar to inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria?
Bile Salt

191. Confirmatory Test for Aids?
western Blot test.

192. The Fixative use for blood containing specimen is ?
Cornoy’s Fluid

193. Mycology Means Study of ?
Fungus

194. The basic component of Leishman’s Stain is
methelene Blue.

195. The Anticoagulant use in OFT is?
Heparin

196. To remove blood clots from blood pipetts it is immersed in
KOH

197. In complete Antibody are detected using. ?
Coombs Test.

198. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is also known as-
Koch’s Bacillus

199. mycobacterium Leprae is is also known as –
hensen’s bacillus

200. Diagnostic test use for diphtheria is –
Shick test

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