MCQs and Answers [2024]

[PDF Notes] What are the Sources of Funds Supply to the New York Money Market?

Funds are supplied to the New York money market from the following sources.

1. Commercial Banks:

Commercial banks mainly concentrate on granting very short-term (i.e., one or two-day) loans to other banks (known as Federal Funds transactions), to brokers and dealers in short-term U.S. government securities. The banks earn interest on these loans and call back money on short notice.

2. Other Financial Institutions:

Other financial institutions such as insurance companies, pension funds, saving banks, saving and loan associations, also supply large funds to the money market. Primarily these institutions are interested in the long-term securities as a means of providing liquidity

3. Business Firms:

Business firms profitably invest their temporary surplus funds in short-term securities, mostly treasury bills. They also provide funds to other business firms through purchase of commercial papers.

4. Foreigners:

Foreigners accumulate dollars through trade with America. They largely utilise these dollars in purchasing short-term Treasury securities.

5. Federal Reserve:

Federal Reserve may operate either as a supplier or as an observer of short-term funds. It all depends upon the economic and money market conditions.

6. Government:

Sometimes, States and local governments may supply funds to the money market through the purchase of short- terms securities.

7. Individuals:

Of late, individuals have become more interested and more active in the money market. They invest directly in Treasury bills and other government securities and also purchase other money market instruments.

8. Money Market Mutual Funds:

Individual investors with relatively small savings participate in the money market through money market mutual funds. The investment of these funds is entirely in the money market instruments.

300+ TOP Airport Engineering MCQs and Answers Quiz

Airport Engineering Multiple Choice Questions

1. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The centre line of the approach area coincides with that of the runway

B. Approach areas are measured in horizontal surfaces

C. Obstruction clearance surface and approach surface are same

D. All the above

Answer: D

2. According to I.C.A.O. all markings on the runways are painted white and on taxiways

A. Black

B. Red

C. Yellow

D. Green

Answer: C

3. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be

A. 1 : 2

B. 1 : 5

C. 1 : 8

D. 1 : 40

Answer: C

4. If lift off distance of an craft is 2000 m, the clear way at the end of the runway should not be less than

A. 145 m

B. 152.5 m

C. 162.5 m

D. 172.5 m

Answer: D

5. The height of the pilot’s eye above the runway surface is assumed

A. 1 m

B. 3 m

C. 4 m

D. 5 m

Answer: B

6. The coordinates of the ends of a runway are (5000, 5000) and (8000, 7000). The co-ordinates of another runway are (4600, 5100) and (7000, 5300). The co-ordinates of the A.R.P. are

A. (6500, 6000)

B. (5800, 5200)

C. (61500, 5600)

D. (8000, 7000)

Answer: C

7. The fuse large includes

A. Passengers chamber

B. Pilot’s cabin

C. Tail of aircraft

D. All the above

Answer: D

8. According to I.C.A.O. the recommended length of air ports is decided on

A. Sea level elevation

B. Standard sea level temperature (15°C)

C. Effective gradient percentage

D. All the above

Answer: D

9. The lift off distance is the distance along the centre of the runway between the starting point and

A. End of the runway

B. End of stop-way

C. Point where air craft becomes air borne

D. Point where air craft attains a height of 10.7 m

Answer: A

10. For the proposed runway stated in if the aerodrome reference temperature is 17°.2, the net designed length of the runway is

A. 2716 m

B. 2816 m

C. 2916 m

D. 3016 m

Answer: B

Airport Engineering mcqs objective type questions — Airport Engineering mcqs

11. According to the International Civil Aviation Organization (I.C.A.O.), the runway lengths of aerodromes, have been coded by

A. Seven English alphabets

B. Last Seven English alphabets

C. First Seven English alphabets

D. First seven natural numbers

Answer: C

12. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The distance between the points of intersection of the extreme tangents to the transition curve is kept greater than 7500 m × sum of grade changes at the point of intersection

B. The rate of change of grade is limited to 0.3% per 30 m length of the curve

C. According to I.C.A.O. the maximum longitudinal gradient along a runway is limited to 1.5%

D. All the above

Answer: D

13. The runway orientation is made so that landing and takeoff are

A. Against the wind direction

B. Along the wind direction

C. Perpendicular to wind direction

D. None of these

Answer: A

14. According to I.C.A.O. the slope of transitional surface at right angles to the centre line of runway, is kept

A. 1 in 4

B. 1 in 5

C. 1 in 6

D. 1 in 7

Answer: D

15. The depressions and undulations in the pavement, are caused due to

A. Improper compaction of sub-grade

B. Impact of heavy wheel loads

C. Punching effect

D. All the above

Answer: D

16. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. In single engine aeroplanes, the engine is provided in the nose of the aircraft

B. In double engine aeroplanes, one engine on either wing is placed symmetrically

C. In three engine aeroplanes, two engines are placed on both wings and one engine is placed in the tail

D. None of these

Answer: C

17. The thickness design of the pavement, is decided on the load carried by

A. Main gears

B. Nose wheel

C. Tail wheel

D. All the above

Answer: A

18. For Class ‘A’ Air port the difference of reduced levels of higher and lower edges of the conical surface, is

A. 25 m

B. 50 m

C. 75 m

D. 100 m

Answer: D

19. Beaufort scale is used to determine

A. Strength of winds

B. Direction of winds

C. Height of air-crafts

D. None of these

Answer: A

20. The distance between main gears is 10 m, and the distance of nose gear from centre of main gears is 30 m. If the angle of turning is 60°, the distance of centre of rotation from the nearer main gear, is

A. 12.30 m

B. 11.30 m

C. 10.30 m

D. 9.30 m

Answer: A

21. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. L.O.M. is installed at 7.2 km from the threshold

B. L.M.M. is installed at 1.0 km from the threshold

C. Localizer antenna is installed at 300 m from the other end of the runway

D. Glide slope antenna is installed at the centre of the runway about 150 m on one side

Answer: D

22. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are

A. Zero

B. 300

C. 3000

D. Unrestricted

Answer: B

23. Effective length of a runway is the distance between

A. Ends of the runway

B. Point of intersection of the obstruction clearance line and the extended plane of the runway surface, and the other end of the runway

C. Point of intersection of the glide path and the extended plane of the runway surface and the other end of the runway

D. Ends of the clear way on either side

Answer: B

24. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of

1. Runway orientation
2. Estimating the runway capacity
3. Geometric design of holding apron of these statements

A. 1 and 2 are correct

B. 2 and 3 are correct

C. 1 and 3 are correct

D. 1 alone is correct

Answer: D

25. The length of a runway under standard atmospheric conditions is 1800 m. If the actual reduced level of the site is 1200 m, the design length of the runway is

A. 2360 m

B. 2460 m

C. 2560 m

D. 2660 m

Answer: C

26. In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than

A. 20 m

B. 30 m

C. 45 m

D. 51 m

Answer: B

27. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Tar concrete pavements are suitable if fuel spillage occurs

B. Rubberized tar concrete hot blast as well as spillage

C. Epoxy asphalt concrete sets in very small time

D. All the above

Answer: D

28. The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require

A. Only clearway

B. Only stop way

C. Either a clearway or a stop-way

D. Either a clearway or a stop-way or both

Answer: D

29. The maximum value of the angle of turning of the nose gear large jet aircrafts, is limited to

A. 20°

B. 30°

C. 45°

D. 60°

Answer: D

30. Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions.
Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor visibility conditions.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:

A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

Answer: A

31. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Approximate geometric centre of the landing area, is called air port reference point

B. The boundaries of horizontal surface and conical surface are marked with reference to air port reference point

C. The location of the air port on a map is the position of air port reference point

D. All the above

Answer: D

32. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed

A. 15 kmph

B. 25 kmph

C. 35 kmph

D. 45 kmph

Answer: C

33. The threshold markings are

A. 4 m wide

B. 1 m clear space between adjacent

C. Placed symmetrically on either side of the runway centre line

D. All the above

Answer: D

34. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width.
Reason R: The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway.
Select your answer based on coding system given below

A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

Answer: C

35. An aircraft is flying in an atmosphere of 30°C with a speed of 1260 kmph. Its speed is known as

A. Subsonic

B. Sonic

C. Super-sonic

D. Mach

Answer: B

36. The bearing of the runway at threshold is 290°, the runway number is

A. N 70° W

B. 290°

C. 29°

D. W 20° N

Answer: C

37. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The speed of the aircraft relative to the ground, is called cruising speed

B. The speed of the aircraft relative to wind, is called air speed

C. When wind is blowing the direction of the flight, air speed is less than cruising speed

D. All the above

Answer: D

38. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and takeoff area should be

A. 2.5 m

B. 5.0 m

C. 7.5 m

D. 10.0 m

Answer: C

39. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Approach zone survey is carried out to determine the elevations of the protruding obstructions above horizontal, conical and transitional surfaces

B. The wind data of an air port is depicted in the form of a chart known as wind rose

C. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the wind direction

D. All the above

Answer: D

40. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The basic length of a runway is increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of elevation of M.S.L.

B. The standard temperature at the site is obtained by reducing the standard sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate of 6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation

C. The aerodrome reference temperature is the monthly mean of the mean daily temperature for the hottest month of the year

D. All the above

Answer: D

41. The length of runway is increased per 300 m rise above M.S.L.

A. 3 %

B. 4 %

C. 5 %

D. 7 %

Answer: D

42. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Landing speed is directly proportional to the wing loading

B. Wing loading remaining constant, the take off distance is directly proportional to the powder loading

C. NeitherA. norB.

D. BothA. andB.

Answer: D

43. From the end of an instrumental runway, the approach surface rises outwards

A. 1 in 20

B. 1 in 30

C. 1 in 40

D. 1 in 50

Answer: D

44. Pick up the component not applicable to aeroplanes

A. Wings

B. Engines

C. Air screw

D. None of these

Answer: D

45. Airport elevation is the reduced level above M.S.L. of

A. Control tower

B. Highest point of the landing area

C. Lowest point of the landing area

D. None of these

Answer: B

46. Pick up the correct abbreviation from the following:

A. L.M.M. (low powered middle marker)

B. V.H.F. (very high frequency)

C. L.O.M. (low powered outer marker)

D. All the above

Answer: D

47. The best direction of a runway is along the direction of

A. Longest line on wind rose diagram

B. Shortest line on the wind rose diagram

C. Line clear of wind rose diagram

D. None of these

Answer: A

48. International Civil Aviation Organization (I.C.A.O.) was set up at Montreal (Canada), in

A. 1929

B. 1939

C. 1947

D. 1950

Answer: C

49. For the taxiways, the following statement is true

A. The maximum longitudinal grade is 3%

B. The permissible rate of change of grade is 1%

C. The permissible transverse grade is 1.5%

D. All the above

Answer: D

50. If the width of the approach area near the runway end is 150 m, the width of the approach area at a distance of 3 kilometers from runway end will be

A. 1500 m

B. 1200 m

C. 1000 m

D. 800 m

Answer: B

51. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is

A. 60 m

B. 120 m

C. 180 m

D. 240 m

Answer: C

52. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are

A. 3 m and 30 m

B. 4.2 m and 30 m

C. 4.2 m and 50 m

D. 3 m and 45 m

Answer: B

53. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be

A. 32

B. 36

C. 44

D. 68

Answer: B

54. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be

A. 2845 m

B. 2910 m

C. 3030 m

D. 3130 m

Answer: C

55. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of

A. 0.1 %

B. 0.2 %

C. 0.3 %

D. 0.4 %

Answer: A

56. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are

A. Yellow

B. White

C. Black

D. Red

Answer: B

57. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be

A. 2500 m

B. 2600 m

C. 2700 m

D. 2800 m

Answer: C

58. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft?

A. Apron

B. Hanger

C. Terminal building

D. Holding apron

Answer: B

59. The minimum width of clearway is

A. 50 m

B. 100 m

C. 150 m

D. 250 m

Answer: C

60. The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be

A. 450 kmph and 500 kmph

B. 500 kmph and 450 kmph

C. 450 kmph and 450 kmph

D. 500 kmph and 500 kmph

Answer: A

61. The size of landing area for multi engine helicopters operating under 1 FR conditions is

A. 22.5 m × 22.5 m

B. 30 m × 30 m

C. 22.5 m × 30 m

D. 60 m × 120 m

Answer: D

62. The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be

A. 1 : 5

B. 1 : 7

C. 1 : 10

D. 1 : 12

Answer: B

63. Castor angle is defined as the angle

A. Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear

B. Between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway

C. Between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component

D. Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis

Answer: A

64. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:

A. Equal to empty operating weight

B. Equal to maximum landing weight

C. Less than empty operating weight

D. Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load

Answer: D

65. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25°C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46°C, the airport reference temperature is

A. 32°C

B. 35.5°C

C. 48°C

D. 25°C

Answer: C

66. Wing loading of an aircraft is

A. Load of the wings

B. Gross total weight of the aircraft/ load of the wings

C. Gross total weight of the aircraft/ wing area

D. Gross total weight of the aircraft/total available H.P of engines

Answer: C

67. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the

A. Aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building

B. Hot blast is directed towards the terminal building

C. Overall apron area required is more

D. All the above

Answer: B

68. The air is blowing at a speed of 75 knots in the direction of the aircraft flying at a ground speed of 775 knots. The air speed of the aircraft, is

A. 775 knots

B. 75 knots

C. 850 knots

D. 675 knots

Answer: D

69. Maximum gross takeoff weight of an aircraft is

A. Equal to the maximum structural landing weight

B. Less than the maximum structural landing weight

C. More than the maximum structural landing weight

D. Equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload

Answer: C

70. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Minimum turning radius of aircrafts decides the size of the apron and the radius of the curves at taxi-ends

B. Take off and landing distances for an aircraft, determine the minimum runway length

C. The length of the normal haul of the air craft decides the frequency of operation

D. All the above

Answer: D

71. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be

A. 1500 m and 600 m

B. 2100 m and 750 m

C. 1500 m and 750 m

D. 2100 m and 600 m

Answer: D

72. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Runway edge from the landing side, is called threshold

B. Localizer indicates to the pilot his position with respect to the proposed alignment

C. The glide slope indicates the correct angle of descent

D. All the above

Answer: D

73. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport
Capacity: Reason R : Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:

A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

Answer: A

74. A gradient of + 0.08% is followed by a gradient of – 0.07%. If the permissible rate of change of grade is 0.003 per 30 meters, the length of the transition curve, is

A. 150 m

B. 140 m

C. 160 m

D. 175 m

Answer: A

75. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.

A. 0.10 %

B. 0.26 %

C. 0.43 %

D. 0.65 %

Answer: B

76. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than

A. 4.8 kmph

B. 6.4 kmph

C. 8.0 kmph

D. 9.6 kmph

Answer: B

77. For the proposed air port, the survey project provides

A. Master plan

B. Topographic plan

C. Grading plan

D. All the above

Answer: D

78. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilization factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be

A. 1 aircraft per hour

B. 2 aircrafts per hour

C. 4 aircrafts per hour

D. 16 aircrafts per hour

Answer: C

79. The strength of winds is measured with the help of

A. Beaufort scale

B. Wind indicator

C. Barometers

D. None of these

Answer: A

80. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be

A. 78 m

B. 150 m

C. 300 m

D. 450 m

Answer: C

81. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. F.I.R. stands for flight information regions

B. Radius of control area is 160 km

C. Radius of control zone is 40 km

D. All the above

Answer: D

82. For determining the basic runway length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is

A. 40 %

B. 50 %

C. 60 %

D. 75 %

Answer: C

83. According to the International Civil Aviation Organization (I.C.A.O.) the strength of runway pavements, have been coded by

A. Seven English alphabets

B. Last Seven English alphabets

C. First Seven English alphabets

D. First seven numbers

Answer: D

84. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements?

A. Alligator cracking

B. Mud pumping

C. Warping cracks

D. Shrinkage cracks

Answer: A

85. For night landing, the thresholds are lighted

A. Green

B. Red

C. White

D. Yellow

Answer: A

86. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the direction of wind. In no case the centre line of the runway should make an angle with the wind direction exceeding

A. 10°

B. 20°

C. 30°

D. 40°

Answer: C

87. Consider the following statements regarding ICAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length

1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level.
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation.
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient.

Of these statements

A. 1 and 2 are correct

B. 2 and 3 are correct

C. 1 and 3 are correct

D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: A

88. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Channelization of pavement is caused by constant use of tri-cycle gears of aircraft

B. Blast pads are used over cohesion-less soils to resist erosion due to tremendous speed of the jet blast

C. Over-run areas of at least 300 m length on either side of the runway are provided

D. None of these

Answer: D

89. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are

A. 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5

B. 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0

C. 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0

D. 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0

Answer: A

90. The meteorological condition which influences the size and location of an air port is

A. Atmosphere pressure

B. Air density

C. Reduced level

D. All the above

Answer: D

91. The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is

A. 150 m

B. 300 m

C. 600 m

D. 750 m

Answer: B

92. To cope up high temperature of 196°C, the taxi ways and aprons are constructed with

A. Asphaltic concrete

B. Rubberised tar concrete

C. Plain concrete

D. All the above

Answer: D

93. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of

A. 3 m from runway end

B. 6 m from runway end

C. 10 m from runway end

D. 15 m from runway end

Answer: B

94. The reduced level of the proposed site of an air port is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the recommended length by I.C.A.O. for the runway at sea level is 2500 m, the required length of the runway is

A. 2500 m

B. 3725 m

C. 3000 m

D. 3250 m

Answer: B

95. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon

A. Weather conditions and navigational aids available

B. Lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions

C. Lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available

D. Lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available.

Answer: D

96. Conical surface of the approach area rises outwards

A. 1 in 10

B. 1 in 15

C. 1 in 20

D. 1 in 25

Answer: C

97. Speed of

A. Sound at 0°C is 1190 kmph

B. Sound varies 2.4 kmph per degree centigrade rise in temperature

C. Sound at 0°C is called one Mach

D. All the above

Answer: D

98. The maximum length and pavement strength of the runway is that of

A. A 1

B. B 2

C. B 3

D. G 7

Answer: A

99. Total correction for elevation, temperature and gradient for a runway should not be more than

A. 15 %

B. 20 %

C. 25 %

D. 35 %

Answer: D

100. In instrument landing system

A. L.O.M. and L.M.M. are installed on one side and Localizer antenna on the other side

B. L.O.M. and Localizer are installed on one side and L.M.M. on the other side

C. Localizer and L.M.M. are installed on one side and L.O.M. on the other side

D. None of these

Answer: A

101. In Instrumental landing system, the middle markers are located

A. Along the extended centre line of runway end

B. About 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold

C. At the runway threshold

D. About 7 km. ahead of the runway threshold

Answer: B

102. The bearing of the longest line of a wind rose is S 45° E, the bearing of the runway will be numbered

A. 135°

B. 31

C. 13

D. BothC. andD.

Answer: D

103. Two single runways may be arranged so as to have

A. L-shape

B. T-shape

C. X-shape

D. All the above

Answer: D

104. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Air screw converts the energy given by the engine into speed

B. The propellers which are driven by turbine engines, are technically called turboprops

C. The aircrafts which obtain the thrust directly from turbine engine, are called turbo-jets

D. All the above

Answer: D

105. Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?

1. Normal maximum temperature
2. Airport elevation
3. Maximum landing weight
4. Effective runway gradient

Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 3 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 2 and 4

Answer: D

Airport Engineering objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

[PDF Notes] Essay on the Structure and Working of London Money Market

Commercial bills and treasury bills are the two main financial instruments in which the London money market deals. Hence the money market is composed of two sub-markets: (a) Commercial bill market and (b) Treasury bill market. In what follows is discussed the structure, working and the historical changes of the London money market.

1. Commercial Bill Market:

Commercial bills dominated the London money market till the World War I. A bill of exchange is a written order by a seller or an exporter to the buyer or importer to pay a specified sum of money on demand or at a specified future date. Most bills are drawn for three months after date for making payment for goods sold.

The bill thus drawn is sent to the buyer or importer who gets it accepted by either a bank or an acceptance house.

The acceptance house accepts the bill by giving an undertaking to pay the specified amount in the event of default by the drawee of the bill (i.e., buyer or importer). On acceptance, the bill becomes a complete document and is returned to the seller or exporter.

There are now three options open to the seller or exporter who possesses the accepted bill: (a) he can hold it himself for three months when it is due for payment (b) he can endorse it in favour of his creditor in settlement of the debt (c) he can sell it to a discount house and get it discounted, i.e., receive payment minus interest for the outstanding period and some service charges.

Generally, the third option is chosen. In this way, the bill is thrice blessed: (a) it blesses the drawer (seller or exporter) who immediately receives the liquid funds; (b) it blesses the drawee (buyer or importer) who gets his goods and will make the payment on maturity of the bill, and (c) it blesses the holder of the bill (the discount house) who earns a good return in the form of interest.

The discount houses generally sell the bills to the bankers through brokers. The banks then ultimately receive the payment of the bills on their maturity.

2. Decline of Commercial Bills:

After 1914, the volume of commercial bills declined considerably. On the other hand, increased borrowing by the government to finance the war expenditure increased the volume of Treasury bills. Even today, the volume of Treasury bills far exceeds that of commercial bills.

Many factors are responsible for the decline in importance of commercial bills:

(a) Borrowers on the bills of exchange were not willing to have their name in circulation,

(b) Commercial bills were non-flexible as regards maturity period,

(d) There has been a considerable decline in international trade,

(e) In international trade, alternative methods of payment, such as telegraphic transfer, have been developed.

3. Treasury Bills Market:

Treasury bill is a bill of exchange drawn by the Treasury on itself, usually for three months. They are issued in denominations of £ 5000 or multiple of £ 5000 and carry just over 5% rate of interest. These bills can be purchased only by institutions.

Treasury bills are issued in two forms:

(a) When the Treasury bills are offered by tender to the highest bidder in the money market, they are known as tender bills. Such bills are purchased by British banks, discount houses, foreign banks and governments, and big industrial and commercial firms,

(b) When the Treasury bills are bought by government departments, the Bank of England and some foreign monetary authorities, they are known as tap bills.

4. Emergence of Short Term Bonds:

Although the Treasury bills dominate the London money market, the profit yield on the Treasury bills had been very low. This led the discount market to look for other more profitable sources of investment. Such a source was found in the short-term government bonds.

Short-term government bonds were of two types: (a) short-term bonds of one to five year maturity, and (b) long-term bonds of 15 to 20 years becoming short-term bonds nearing maturity. The short-term bonds were preferred on the considerations of safety and higher return.

300+ TOP CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY & Design of Concrete Structures MCQs

Concrete Technology and Design of Concrete Structures Questions :-

1. To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test specimen used is
a) 150 x150 x500 mm
b) 100 x100 x700 mm
c) 150 x150 x700 mm
d) 100 x100 x500 mm
Ans: c

2. The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface while placing and compacting, is called
a) segregation
b) bleeding
c) bulking
d) creep
Ans: b

3. Select the incorrect statement
a) Lean mixes bleed more as compared to rich ones.
b) Bleeding can be minimized by adding pozzuolana finer aggregate.
c) Bleeding can be increased by addition ‘of calcium chloride.
d) none of the above
Ans: d

4. The property of the ingredients to separate from each other while placing the concrete is called
a) segregation
b) compaction
c) shrinkage
d) bulking
Ans: a

5. Workability of concrete is directly proportional to
a) aggregate cement ratio
b) time of transit
c) grading of the aggregate
d) all of above
Ans: c

6. Workability of concrete is inversely pro¬portional to
a) time of transit
b) ‘vater-cement ratio
c) the air in the mix
d) size of aggregate
Ans: a

7. Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete, is
a) 0.003
b) 0.0003
c) 0.00003
d) 0.03
Ans: b

8. Air entrainment in the concrete increases
a) workability
b) strength
c) the effects of temperature variations
d) the unit weight
Ans: a

9. The relation between modulus of rupture fcr, splitting strength fcs and direct tensile strength fcl is given by
a) tcr – rcs = tct
b) fcr>fcs>fc.
C) fcr<fcs<fc>
d) fc5>fcr>fC.
Ans: b

10. The approximate value of the ratio between direct tensile strength and flexural strength is
a) 0.33
b) 0.5
c) 0.75
d) 1.0
Ans: b

11. Strength of concrete increases with
a) increase in water-cement ratio
b) increase in fineness of cement
c) decrease in curing time
d) decrease in size of aggregate
Ans: b

12. The relation between modulus of rupturefcr and characteristic strength of concrete fck is given by
a) fcr=0.35Vf7
b) fcr=0.57f7
c) fcr=0.7Vf7
d) fcr=1.2Vf7
where fcr and fck are in N/mm2′
Ans: c

13. The compressive strength of 100 mm cube as compared to 150 mm cube is always
a) less
b) more
c) equal
d) none of the above
Ans: b

14. According to IS : 456 -1978, the modulus of elasticity of concrete Ec (in N/mm2) can be taken as
a) Ec = = 5700
b) Ec = = 570
c) Ec = = 5700fck
d) Ec = where fck N/mm2 = 700 is the characteristic strength in
Ans: a

15. Increase in the moisture content in concrete
a) reduces the strength
b) increases the strength
c) does not change the strength
d) all of the above
Ans: a

16. As compared to ordinary portland cement, use of pozzuolanic cement
a) reduces workability
b) increases bleeding
c) increases shrinkage
d) increases strength
Ans: c

17. Admixtures which cause early setting, and hardening of concrete are called
a) workability admixtures
b) accelerators
c) retarders
d) air entraining agents
Ans: b

18. The most commonly used admixture which prolongs the setting and hardening time is
a) gypsum
b) calcium chloride
c) sodium silicate
d) all of the above
Ans: a

19. The percentage of voids in cement is approximately
a) 25%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 80%
Ans: b

20. The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength is about
a) 10 to 15% more
b) 15 to 20% more
c) 20 to 25% more
d) 25 to 50% more
Ans: c

21. As compared to ordinary portland cement, high alumina cement has
a) higher initial setting time but lower final setting time
b) lower initial setting time but higher final setting time
c) higher initial and final setting times
d) lower initial and final setting times
Ans: a

22. Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of
a) flexural tensile strength
b) direct tensile strength
c) compressive strength
d) split tensile strength
Ans: a

23. In order to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is
a) rounded
b) elongated
c) angular
d) all of the above
Ans: a

24. The effect of adding calcium chloride in concrete is
i) to increase shrinkage
ii) to decrease shrinkage
iii) to increase setting time
iv) to decrease setting time
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: b

25. Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about
a) 2 %
b) 4%
c) 6%
d) 10%
Ans: b

26. Finer grinding of cement
a) affects only the early development of strength
b) affects only the ultimate strength
c) both (a) and (b)
d) does not affect the strength
Ans: a

27. Poisson’s ratio for concrete
a) remains constant
b) increases with richer mixes
c) decreases with richer mixes
d) none of the above
Ans: b

28. 1% of voids in a concrete mix would reduce its strength by about
a) 5%
b) 10 %
c) 15%
d) 20%
Ans: a

29. The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the range of
a) 2.0 to 3.5
b) 3.5 to 5.0
c) 5.0 to 7.0
d) 6.0 to 8.5
Ans: a

30. The factor of safety for
a) steel and concrete are same
b) steel is lower than that for concrete
c) steel is higher than that for concrete
d) none of the above
Ans: b

31. Examine the following statements :
i) Factor of safety for steel should be based on its yield stress,
ii) Factor of safety for steel should be based on its ultimate stress,
iii) Factor of safety for concrete should be based on its yield stress,
iv) Factor of safety for concrete should be based on its ultimate stress.
The correct statements are
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: b

32. For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is
a) wholly parabolic
b) wholly rectangular
c) parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
d) rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis
Ans: c

33. Diagonal tension in a beam
a) is maximum at neutral axis
b) decreases below the neutral axis and increases above the neutral axis
c) increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the neutral axis
d) remains same
Ans: c

34. If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economi-cally by
a) increasing the depth of beam
b) using thinner bars but more in number
c) using thicker bars but less in number
d) providing vertical stirrups
Ans: b

35. If nominal shear stress tv exceeds the design shear strength of concrete xc, the nominal shear reinforcement as per IS : 456-1978 shall be provided for carrying a shear stress equal to
a) xv
b) xc
c) xv – TC
d) Tv + Tc
Ans: c

36. If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than the depth of critical neutral axis, then the beam is called
a) balanced beam
b) under-reinforced beam
c) over-reinforced beam
d) none of the above
Ans: c

37. If the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular section is represented by kd in working stress design, then the value of k for balanced section
a) depends on as, only
b) depends on aCbC only
c) depends on both crst and acbc
d) is independant of both ast and acbc where d is the effective depth, ast is per-missible stress in steel in tension and ocbc is permissible stress in concrete in bend¬ing compression.
Ans: a

38. If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm2, then the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular balanced section will be
a) 0.35 d
b) 0.40 d
c) 0.45 d
d) dependent on grade of concrete also
Ans: b

39. Modulus of elasticity of steel as per IS : 456-1978 shall be taken as
a) 20 kN/cm2
b) 200 kN/cm2
c) 200kN/mm2
d) 2xl06N/cm2
Ans: c

40. Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS:456-1978 is
a) M15
b) M20
c) M 10
d) M25
Ans: a

41. For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the workability of concrete expressed as compacting
factor should be
a) 0.75-0.80
b) 0.80-0.85
c) 0.85 – 0.92
d) above 0.92
Ans: d

42. Maximum quantity of water needed per 50 kg of cement for M 15 grade of concrete is
a) 28 liters
b) 30 liters
c) 32 liters
d) 34 liters
Ans: c

43. In case of hand mixing of concrete, the extra cement to be added is
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Ans: b

44. For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally removed after
a) 24 to 48 hours
b) 3 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days
Ans: a

45. The individual variation between test strength of sample should not be more than
a) ±5% of average
b) ± 10% of average
c) ± 15% of average
d) ±20% of average
Ans: c

46. One of the criteria for the effecvve width of flange of T-beam is bf =—+ bw +6Df 6
In above formula, l0 signifies
a) effective span of T-beam
b) distance between points of zero moments in the beam
c) distance between points of maximum moments in the beam
d) clear span of the T-beam
Ans: b

47. For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5m, the maximum span to satisfy vertical deflection limit is
a) 3.5 m
b) 4 m
c) 4.5 m
d) 5 m
Ans: a

48. For a simply supported beam of span 15m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the vertical deflection limits should be
a) 600 mm
b) 750 mm
c) 900 mm
d) more than 1 m
Ans: b

49. For a continuous slab of 3 m x 3.5 m size, the minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical deflection limits is
a) 50 mm
b) 75 mm
c) 100 mm
d) 120 mm
Ans: b

50. According to IS : 456-1978, the fiexural strength of concrete is
a) directly proportional to compressive strength
b) inversely proportional to compressive strength
c) directly proportional to square root of compressive strength
d) inversely proportional to square root of compressive strength
Ans: c

51. According to IS : 456-1978, the cblumn or the strut is the member whose effective length is greater than
a) the least lateral dimension
b) 2 times the least lateral dimension
c) 3 times the least lateral dimension
d) 4 times the least lateral dimension
Ans: c

52. According to IS : 456- 1978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is
a) less than 12
b) less than 18
c) between 18 and 24
d) more than 24
Ans: a

53. Lap length in compression shall not be less than
a) 15 4>
b) 20 <}>
c) 24 (j)
d) 30 (j)
where (j) is diameter of bar
Ans: c

54. The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than
a) 10 mm
b) 15 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 13 mm
Ans: b

55. For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column, the minimum cover shall neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than
a) 15 mm
b) 25 mm
c) 30 mm
d) 40 mm
Ans: d

56. The ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and the slab thickness is
a) 1/4
b) 1/5
c) 1/6
d) 1/8
Ans: d

57. According to IS: 456-1978, the maximum reinforcement in a column is
a) 2 %
b) 4%
c) 6 %
d) 8 %
Ans: c

58. The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high strength deformed bars are used is not less than
a) 0.15
b) 0.12
c) 0.30
d) 1.00
Ans: b

59. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
a) Minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement in a column is 0.8%.
b) Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of column should not exceed 300 mm.
c) Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than 12 mm in diameter.
d) The number of longitudinal bars provided in a circular column should not be less than four.
Ans: d

60. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
a) Higher Vee-Bee time shows lower workability.
b) Higher slump shows higher workability.
c) Higher compacting factor shows higher workability.
d) none of the above
Ans: d

61. Minimum pitch of transverse reinforcement in a column is
a) the least lateral dimension of the member
b) sixteen times the smallest diameter of longitudinal reinforcement bar to be tied
c) forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement
d) lesser of the above three values
Ans: d

62. Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures as per IS : 456 – 1978 is
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 45 m
d) 60 m
Ans: c

63. A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the ratio of effective span to
overall depth (1/D) is less than
a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 2.5
d) 3.0
Ans: c

64. Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs is at a distance of
a) effective depth of slab from periphery of column/drop panel
b) d/2 from periphery of column/capital/ drop panel
c) at the drop panel of slab
d) at the periphery of column
Ans:b

65. Minimum thickness of load bearing RCC wall should be
a) 50 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 150 mm
d) 200 mm
Ans:b

66. If the storey height is equal to length of RCC wall, the percentage increase in strength is
a) 0
b) 10
c) 20
d) 30
Ans: b

67. In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge should not be less than
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm
Ans:b

68. The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is
a) less than 1
b) between 1 and 1.5
c) between 1.5 and 2
d) greater than 2
Ans: d

69. Ratio of permissible stress in direct compression and bending compression is
a) less than 1
b) between 1 and 1.5
c) between 1.5 and 2.0
d) greater than 2
Ans: a

70. A higher modular ratio shows
a) higher compressive strength of con-crete
b) lower compressive strength of concrete
c) higher tensile strength of steel
d) lower tensile strength of steel
Ans:b

71. The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in tension is
a) increased by 10% for bars in compression
b) increased by 25% for bars in compression
c) decreased by 10% for bars in compression
d) decreased by 25% for bars in compression
Ans:b

74. In working stress design, permissible bond stress in the case of deformed bars is more than that in plain bars by
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
Ans: d

75. The main reason for providing number of reinforcing bars at a support in a simply supported beam is to resist in that zone
a) compressive stress
b) shear stress
c) bond stress
d) tensile stress
Ans: c

76. Half of the main steel in a simply supported slab is bent up near the support at a
distance of x from the center of slab bearing where x is equal to
a) 1/3
b) 1/5
c) 1/7
d) 1/10
where 1 is the span
Ans:c

77. When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by
a) increasing the depth
b) providing shear reinforcement
c) using high strength steel
d) using thinner bars but more in number
Ans: a

78. If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6m x 6m, then as per Indian Standard Code, the widths of column strip and middle strip are
a) 3.0 m and 1.5 m
b) 1.5 m and 3.0 m
c) 3.0 m and 3.0 m
d) 1.5 m and 1.5 m
Ans:c

79. For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held down and loaded uniformly, the Marcus correction factor to the moments obtained by Grashoff Rankine’s theory
a) is always less than 1
b) is always greater than 1
c) can be more than 1
d) can be less than 1
Ans: a

80. The permissible diagonal tensile stress in reinforced brick work is
a) about 0.1 N/mm2
b) zero
c) 0.3 N/mm2 to 0.7 N/mm2
d) about 1.0 N/mm2
Ans: a

81. The limits of percentage p of the longitudinal reinforce-ment in a column is given by
a) 0.15% to 2%
b) 0.8% to 4%
c) 0.8% to 6%
d) 0.8% to 8%
Ans: c

82. The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is
a) 6 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 12 mm
d) 16 mm
Ans:c

83. The minimum cover to the ties or spirals should not be less than
a) 15 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 50mm
Ans: c

84. The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to that of a tied column is about
a) 5% less
b) 10% less
c) 5% more
d) 10% more
Ans:c

86. The diameter of ties in a column should be
a) more than or equal to one fourth of diameter of main bar
b) more than or equal to 5 mm
c) more than 5 mm but less than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
d) more than 5 mm and also more than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
Ans: d

87. Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a spirally reinforced column
a) capacity of column is decreased
b) ductility of column reduces
c) capacity of column is decreased but ductility of column increases
d) both the capacity of column and ductility of column increase
Ans: d

88. Maximum percentage reinforcement in case of slabs is limited to
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Ans: b

89. Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond 6m?
a) L-shaped wall
b) T-shaped wall
c) counterfort type
d) all of the above
Ans: c

90. For the design of retaining walls, the minimum factor of safety against overturning is taken as
a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 2.5
d) 3.0
Ans: b

Concrete Technology and Design of Concrete Structures Objective Questions

91. In counterfort type retaining walls
i) the vertical slab is designed as a continuous slab
ii) the heel slab is designed as a continuous slab
iii) the vertical slab is designed as a cantilever
iv) the heel slab is designed as a cantilever
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans:a

92. A T-shaped retaining wall mainly conssits of
a) one cantilever
b) two cantilevers
c) three cantilevers
d) four cantilevers
Ans: c

93. In T-shaped R C. retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem is provided on
a) the front face in one direction
b) the front face in both directions
c) the inner face in one direction
d) the inner face in both directions
Ans:c

94. The main reinforcement in the toe of a T- shaped R C. retaining wall is provided on
i) top face parallel to the wall
ii) top face perpendicular to the wall
iii) bottom face paralleUo the wall
iv) bottom face perpendicular to the wall
The correct answer is
a) only (ii) is correct
b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) only (iv) is correct
Ans: d

95. The temperature reinforcement in the vertical slab of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is
a) not needed
b) provided equally on inner and front faces
c) provided more on inner face than on front face
d) provided more on front face than on inner face
Ans: d

96. The main reinforcement in the heel of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is provided on
a) top face perpendicular to wall
b) bottom face perpendicular to wall
c) both top and bottom faces perpendicular to wall
d) none of the above
Ans: a

97. In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is provided on the
i) bottom face in front counterfort
ii) inclined face in front counterfort
iii) bottom face in back counterfort
iv) inclined face in back counterEort
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii),
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: c

98. In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem at support is
a) not provided
b) provided only on inner face
c) provided only on front face
d) provided both on inner and front faces
Ans: b

99. In the design of a front counterfort in a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is provided on
i) bottom face near counterfort
ii) top face near counterfort
iii) bottom face near centre of span
iv) top face near centre of span The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) only (ii)
c) both (i) and (iv)
d) both (ii) and (iii)
Ans: c

100. In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in the stem at mid span is provided on
a) front face only
b) inner face only
c) both front face and inner face
d) none of the above
Ans: a

101. The depth of footing for an isolated column is governed by
i) maximum bending moment
ii) shear force
iii) punching shear The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d

102. If the foundations of all the columns of a structure are designed on the total live and dead load basis, then
a) there will be no settlement of columns
b) there will be no differential settlement
c) the settlement of exterior columns will be more than interior columns
d) the settlement of interior columns will be more than exterior columns
Ans:c

103. To minimise the effect of differential settlement, the area of a footing should be designed for
a) dead load only
b) dead load + live load
c) dead load + fraction of live load
d) live load + fraction of dead load
Ans: c

104. The critical section for finding maximum bending moment for footing under masonry wall is located
a) at the middle of the wall
b) at the edge of the wall
c) halfway between the middle and edge of the wall
d) at a distance equal to effective depth of footing from the edge of the wall
Ans: c

105. In a pile of length /, the points of suspension from ends for lifting it are located at
a) 0.207 1
b) 0.25 /
c) 0.293 /
d) 0.333 /
Ans: a

106. During erection, the pile of length / is supported by a crane at a distance of
a) 0.207 /
b) 0.293 /
c) 0.7071
d) 0.793 /
from the driving end of pile which rests on the ground
Ans: c

107. While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are nearly
a) both ends hinged
b) both ends fixed
c) one end fixed and other end hinged
d) one end fixed and other end free
Ans: c

108. The recommended value of modular ratio for reinforced brick work is
a) 18
b) 30
c) 40
d) 58
Ans: c

109. According to ISI recommendations, the maximum depth of stress block for balanced section of a beam of effective depth d is
a) 0.43 d
b) 0.55 d
c) 0.68 d
d) 0.85 d
Ans: a

110. Assertion A : The load factor for live load is greater than that for dead load.
Reason R : The live loads are more uncertain than dead loads.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a

111. The centroid of compressive force, from the extreme compression fiber, in limit state design lies at a distance of
a) 0.367 xu
b) 0.416 xu
c) 0.446 xu
d) 0.573 xu
where xu is the depth of neutral axis at the limit state of collapse
Ans: b

112. The design yield stress of steel according to IS: 456-1978 is
a) 0.37 fy
b) 0.57 fy
c) 0.67 fy
d) 0.87 fy
where fy is the characteristic yield strength of steel
Ans: d

113. According to Whitney’s theory, ultimate strain of concrete is assumed to be
a) 0.03%
b) 0.1%
c) 0.3%
d) 3%
Ans: c

114. According to Whitney’s theory, depth of stress block for a balanced section of a concrete beam is limited to
a) 0.43 d
b) 0.537 d
c) 0.68 d
d) 0.85 d
where d is effective depth of beam[ES 2k]
Ans: b

115. The load factors for live load and dead load are taken respectively as
a) 1.5 and 2.2
b) 2.2 and 1.5
c) 1.5 and 1.5
d) 2.2 and 2.2
Ans:b

116. As per Whitney’s theory, the maximum moment of resistance of the balanced section of a beam of width b and effective
depth d is given by
a) ^acybd2
b) ^acybd2
c) 0.185acybd2
d) 0.43acybd2
where acy is the cylinder compressive strength of concrete
Ans: b

127. The effect of creep on modular ratio is
a) to decrease it
b) to increase it
c) either to decrease or to increase it
d) to keep it unchanged
Ans: b

128. Shrinkage of concrete depends upon
i) humidity of atmosphere
ii) passage of time
iii) stress The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) only (iii)
d) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: a

129. Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported beam having reinforcement only at bottom tends to
a) deflect downward
b) deflect upward
c) deflect downward or upward
d) none of the above
Ans: a

130. In symmetrically reinforced sections, shrinkage stresses in concrete and steel are respectively
a) compressive and tensile
b) tensile and compressive
c) both compressive
d) both tensile
Ans: b

131. A beam curved in plan is designed for
a) bending moment and shear
b) bending moment and torsion
c) shear and torsion
d) bending moment, shear and torsion
Ans: d

132. In a spherical dome subjected to concentrated load at crown or uniformly distributed load, the meridional force is always
a) zero
b) tensile
c) compressive
d) tensile or compressive
Ans: c

133. Sinking of an intermediate support of a continuous beam
i) reduces the negative moment at support
ii) increases the negative moment at support
iii) reduces the positive moment at center of span
iv) increases the positive moment at center of span The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: b

134. The maximum value of hoop compression in a dome is given by
a) wR / 4d
b) wR/2d
c) wR/d
d) 2wR/d
where, w = load per unit area of surface of dome R = radius of curvature d = thickness of dome
Ans: b

135. In a spherical dome the hoop stress due to a concentrated load at crown is
a) compressive everywhere
b) tensile everywhere
c) partly compressive and partly tensile
d) zero
Ans:b

136. In a ring beam subjected to uniformly distributed load
i) shear force at mid span is zero
ii) shear force at mid span is maximum
iii) torsion at mid span is zero
iv) torsion at mid span is maximum The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:a

137. In prestressed concrete
a) forces of tension and compression change but lever arm remains unchanged
b) forces of tension and compressions remain unchanged but lever arm changes with the moment
c) both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm change
d) both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm remain unchanged
Ans: b

138. The purpose of reinforcement in prestressed concrete is
a) to provide adequate bond stress
b) to resist tensile stresses
c) to impart initial compressive stress in concrete
d) all of the above
Ans: c

139. Normally prestressing wires are arranged in the
a) upper part of the beam
b) lower part of the beam
c) center
d) anywhere
Ans: b

140. Most common method of prestressing used for factory production is
a) Long line method
b) Freyssinet system
c) Magnel-Blaton system
d) Lee-Macall system
Ans:a

141. Select the incorrect statement
a) The loss of prestress is more in pre-tensioning system than in post-tensioning system.
b) Pretensioning system has greater certainty about its durability.
c) For heavy loads and large spans in buildings or bridges, post-tensioning system is cheaper than pretensioning system
d) none of the above
Ans:d

142. Which of the following losses of prestress occurs only in pretensioning and not in post-tensioning ?
a) elastic shortening of concrete
b) shrinkage of concrete
c) creep of concrete
d) loss due to friction
Ans: a

143. Prestress loss due to friction occurs
a) only in post-tensioned beams
b) only in pretensioned beams
c) in both post-tensioned and preten-sioned beams
d) none of the above
Ans:a

145. Which of the following has high tensile strength ?
a) plain hot rolled wires
b) cold drawn wires
c) heat treated rolled wires
d) all have same tensile strength
Ans: b

146. High carbon content in the steel causes
a) decrease in tensile strength but increase in ductility
b) increase in tensile strength but decrease in ductility
c) decrease in both tensile strength and ductility
d) increase in both tensile strength and ductility
Ans:b

147. Stress strain curve of high tensile steel
a) has a definite yield point
b) does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.1% proof stress
c) does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.2% proof stress
d) does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 2% proof stress,
Ans: c

148. Select the correct statement
a) Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild steel.
b) Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is more than that of mild steel.
c) Carbon percentage in high carbon steel is less than that in mild steel.
d) High tensile steel is cheaper than mild steel.
Ans:a

149. Cube strength of controlled concrete to be used for pretensioned and post-tensioned work respectively should not be less than
a) 35 MPa and 42 MPa
b) 42 MPa and 35 MPa
c) 42 MPa and 53 MPa
d) 53 MPa and 42 MPa
Ans: b

150. Ultimate strength of cold drawn high steel wires
a) increases with increase in diameter of bar
b) decreases with increase in diameter of bar
c) does not depend on diameter of bar
d) none of the above
Ans: b

151. Prestressing losses in post-tensioned and pre-tensioned beams are respectively
a) 15% and 20%
b) 20% and 15%
c) 15% and 15%
d) 20% and 20%

152. In concrete, use of angular crushed aggregate in place of natural rounded gravel affects
a) direct tensile strength
b) split tensile strength
c) flexural tensile strength
d) compressive strength

153. Ratio of compressive strength to tensile strength of concrete
a) increases with age
b) decreases with age
c) remains constant
d) none of the above

154. According to Indian Standards, the grad¬ing of fine aggregates is divided into
a) two zones
b) three zones
c) four zones
d) five zones

155. Assertion A : Lightweight concrete exhi¬bits higher shrinkage than normal weight concrete.
Reason R : Modulus of elasticity of light-weight concrete is lower, than that of normal weight concrete. Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A.and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

156. Endurance limit of mild steel is approximately equal to,
a) 0.3
b) 0.5
c) 0.7
d) 0.8
Endurance limit is defined as the maxi-mum value of the ratio of maximum stress to short time static strength, below which no failure occurs.

157. With the increase in rate of loading during testing, compressive strength of concrete
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) none of the above

158. For a given aggregate content, increasing the water-cement ratio in concrete
a) increases shrinkage
b) decreases shrinkage
c) does not change shrinkage
d) none of the above

159. Assertion A : The net loss of strength due to air entrainment of a richer mix is higher than that of a leaner mix. Reason R : Effect of air entrainment on improving workability is smaller in richer mix than in a leaner mix. Select your answer based on the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

160. The bond strength between steel rein-forcement and concrete is affected by i) steel properties ii) concrete properties iii) shrinkage of concrete The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

161. The bond strength between steel and concrete is due to
a) friction
b) adhesion
c) both friction and adhesion
d) none of the above

162. Impact strength of concrete increases by using
i) smaller maximum size of aggregate
ii) aggregate with high modulus of elasticity
iii) aggregate with low poisson’s ratio The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

163. Impact strength of concrete is greater for
i) water stored concrete than for dry concrete
ii) angular crushed aggregates
iii) rounded aggregates The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) only (i)
d) only (ii)

164. If the contributions of tricalcium silicate, dicalcium silicate, tricalcium aluminate
and terra calcium alumino ferrite to the 28 days strength of hydrated ordinary Portland cement are respectively W, X, Y
and Z, then
a) W>.X>Y>Z
b) X>W>Y>Z
c) W>X>Z>Y
d) W>Y>X>Z

165. The initial and final setting times for ordinary portland cement are approxi¬
mately related as
a) T = 530 + t
b) T = 270 + t
c) T = 90+1.2t
d) T = 600-1.2t
where T and t are respectively final and initial setting times in minutes. * 166 Assertion A : The presence of tricalcium aluminate in cement is undesirable. Reason R : Tricalcium aluminate in cement contributes very little to strength of cement.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

167. Amount of gypsum required to be added to the clinker depends on the following contents of cement i) tricalcium silicate ii) dicalcium silicate iii) tricalcium aluminate iv) alkali The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (i)and(iv)

168. The diameter of needle used in Vicat’s apparatus for the determination of initial
setting time is prescribed as
a) 0.5 mm
b) 1 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 10mm

169. The heat of hydration of cement can be reduced by
a) reducing the proportions of C3A and C3S
b) increasing the proportions of C3A and C3S
c) increasing the fineness of cement
d) both (a) and (c)

171. Assertion A : Rapid hardening cement is generally not used in mass concrete construction.
Reason R : The rate of heat development is low in rapid hardening cement. Select your answer based on the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

172. If the angularity number of an aggregate is increased, then the workability of the concrete using this aggregate will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) not change
d) none of the above

173. If W,, W2, W3 and W4 are the weights of sand in oven dry, air dry, saturated but
surface dry and moist conditions respectively, then the moisture content of sand is
a) W3 – W,
b) W4-W2
c) W4-W3
d) W3-W2

174. The ordinate of grading curve of an aggregate represents
a) cumulative percentage passing each sieve plotted on normal scale
b) cumulative percentage passing each sieve plotted on logarithmic scale
c) sieve size plotted on normal scale
d) sieve size plotted on logarithmic scale

175. Increase in fineness modulus of aggregate indicates
a) finer grading
b) coarser grading
c) gap grading
d) none of the above

176. Weight of an oven dry sand and air dry sand are 500 gm and 520 gm respectively.
If the weight of the same sand under saturated but surface dry condition is 525 gms, then the water absorption of sand is
a) 1%
b) 4%
c) 4.76%
d) 5%

177. Soundness test of cement by Le-Chatelier’s apparatus gives unsoundness due to
a) free lime only
b) magnesia only
c) both free lime and magnesia
d) none of the above

178. Maximum permissible limit of magnesia content in ordinary Portland cement is
a) 4%
b) 6%
c) 8%
d) 10%

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY and Design of Concrete Structures Questions Answers pdf free download ::

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300+ TOP Design of Steel Structures MCQs and Answers

Design of Steel Structures Multiple Choice Questions

1. Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to

A. Minimum weight

B. Minimum depth

C. Maximum weight

D. Minimum thickness of web

Answer: A

2. Slenderness ratio of a compression member is

A. Moment of inertia/Radius of gyration

B. Effective length/Area of cross-section

C. Radius of gyration/Effective length

D. Radius of gyration/ Area of cross-section

Answer: C

3. The least permissible clear dimension of the web of thickness t in the panel of a plate girder, is restricted to

A. 150 t

B. 160 t

C. 170 t

D. 180 t

Answer: D

4. According to I.S. : 800 – 1871, lacing bars resist transverse shear equal to

A. 1.0% of the axial load

B. 2.0% of the axial load

C. 2.5% of the axial load

D. 3.0% of the axial load

Answer: C

5. The effective length of a battened strut effectively held in position at both ends but not restrained in direction is taken as

A. 1.8 L

B. L

C. 1.1 L

D. 1.5 L

Answer: C

6. The method of design of steel framework for greatest rigidity and economy in weight, is known as

A. Simply design

B. Semi-rigid design

C. Fully rigid design

D. None of these

Answer: C

7. For a cantilever beam of length ‘L’ built-in at the support and restrained against torsion at the free end, the effective projecting length ‘l’ is

A. l = 0.7 L

B. l = 0.75 L

C. l = 0.85 L

D. l = 0.5 L

Answer: B

8. Bearing stiffeners are provided at
(i) The supports
(ii) The mid span
(iii) The point of application of concentrated loads
The correct answer is

A. Only (i)

B. Both (i) and (ii)

C. Both (i) and (iii)

D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: C

9. Web crippling generally occurs at the point where

A. Bending moment is maximum

B. Shearing force is minimum

C. Concentrated loads act

D. Deflection is maximum

Answer: C

10. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars for compression members should not exceed 145

B. The minimum width of lacing bar connected with rivets of nominal diameter 16 mm, is kept 50 mm

C. The minimum thickness of a flat lacing bar is kept equal to one-fortieth of its length between inner end rivets

D. All the above

Answer: D

11. The basic wind speed is specified at a height ‘h’ above mean ground level in an open terrain. The value of ‘h’ is

A. 10 m

B. 20 m

C. 25 m

D. 50 m

Answer: A

12. If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders are spaced not greater than

A. d

B. 1.25 d

C. 1.5 d

D. 1.75 d

Answer: C

13. If d is the distance between the flange angles of a plate girder, vertical stiffeners are provided at a distance not greater than

A. d but not less than 0.20 d

B. 1.25 d but not less than 0.33 d

C. 1.5 d but not less than 0.33 d

D. 2.0 d but not less than 0.50 d

Answer: B

14. The allowable tensile stress in structural mild steel plates for steel tank is assumed as

A. 95.0 MPa on net area

B. 105.5 MPa on net area

C. 105.5 MPa on gross area

D. 150.0 MPa on gross area

Answer: B

15. A second horizontal stiffener is always placed at the neutral axis of the girder if the thickness of the web is less than

A. d/250 for structural steel

B. d/225 for high tensile steel

C. Both A. and (b)

D. Neither A. nor (b)

Answer: C

16. The strength of ISA 125 = 75 × 10 mm used as a tie member with its longer leg connected at the ends by 27 mm diameter rivets, is

A. 26,000 kg

B. 26,025 kg

C. 26,050 kg

D. 26,075 kg

Answer: D

17. The effect of racking forces is considered in the design of
(i) Lateral braces
(ii) Chord members
The correct answer is

A. Only (i)

B. Only (ii)

C. Both (i) and (ii)

D. None of the above

Answer: A

18. For a column of height ‘L’ fixed in position and direction both at its top and bottom, its effective length, is

A. L

B. 1/√2 × L

C. ½ L

D. 2L

Answer: C

19. As per ISI, rolled steel beam sections are classified into

A. Two series

B. Three series

C. Four series

D. Five series

Answer: D

20. Shape factor is a property which depends

A. Only on the ultimate stress of the material

B. Only on the yield stress of the material

C. Only on the geometry of the section

D. Both on the yield stress and ultimate stress of material

Answer: C

21. A tension member, if subjected to possible reversal of stress due to wind, the slenderness ratio of the member should not exceed

A. 180

B. 200

C. 300

D. 350

Answer: D

22. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Tacking rivets are used if the minimum distance between centres of two adjacent rivets exceeds 12 t or 200 mm, whichever is less

B. Tacking rivets are not considered to calculate stress

C. Tacking rivets are provided throughout the length of a compression member composed of two components back to back

D. All the above

Answer: D

23. Lug angles

A. Are used to reduce the length of connection

B. Are unequal angles

C. Increases shear lag

D. All the above

Answer: A

24. The Indian standard code which deals with steel structures, is

A. IS : 875

B. IS : 800

C. IS : 456

D. IS : 1893

Answer: B

25. Under a concentrated load, bearing stress fb in a beam is given by (where b is the length of the bearing plate and h is the depth of the root of the fillet).

A. fb = W/(b + h√3)tw

B. fb = W/(b + 2h√3)tw

C. fb = W/(b + 2h√2)tw

D. fb = W/(b + h√2)tw

Answer: B

26. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the rivets are subjected to

A. Only shear stresses

B. Only tensile stresses

C. Both A. and (B)

D. None of the above

Answer: A

27. For double angles carrying tension, placed back to back and connected to either side of the gusset plate, the sectional area of the section, is equal to cross sectional area of

A. The section

B. The section plus area of rivet holes

C. The section minus area of rivet holes

D. The section multiplied by the area of the rivet hole

Answer: C

28. The beam outside a wall up to floor level above it, is known as

A. Rafter

B. Purlin

C. Spandrel beam

D. Lintel

Answer: C

29. In the cross-section of a weld, throat is the

A. Minimum dimension

B. Average dimension

C. Maximum dimension

D. None of the above

Answer: A

30. The rivets which are heated and then driven in the field, are known

A. Power driven shop rivets

B. Power driven field rivets

C. Hand driven rivets

D. Cold driven rivets

Answer: B

31. If fbt and fc are the co-existent bending tensile stress and shear stress in a member, the equivalent stress fc is

A. √(fbt2 + fc2)

B. √(fbt2 + ½fc2)

C. √(fbt2 + 3fc2)

D. √(fbt2 – 3fc2)

Answer: C

32. According to IS: 800, in the Merchant Rankine formula the value of imperfection index (n) is

A. 1.0

B. 1.4

C. 1.8

D. 2.0

Answer: B

33. When a large value of radius of gyration is not required

A. Channels are placed back to back

B. Channel flanges are kept inward

C. Channel flanges are kept outward

D. None of these

Answer: B

34. The ratio of hydrostatic stress to the volumetric strain within the elastic range, is called

A. Modulus of elasticity

B. Shear modulus of elasticity

C. Bulk modulus of elasticity

D. All the above

Answer: D

35. Minimum thickness of web in a plate girder, when the plate is accessible and also exposed to weather, is

A. 5 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 8 mm

D. 10 mm

Answer: B

36. If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders without horizontal stiffeners, are spaced at a distance not less than

A. 0.15 d

B. 0.22 d

C. 0.33 d

D. 0.44 d

Answer: C

37. Long column is one

A. Which is more than 3 m long

B. Whose lateral dimension is less than 25 cm

C. Which is free at its top

D. Which has a ratio of effective length and least lateral dimension more than 15

Answer: D

38. To minimize the total cost of a roof truss, the ratio of the cost of truss to the cost of purlins shall be

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: B

39. When the length of a tension member is too long

A. A wire rope is used

B. A rod is used

C. A bar is used

D. A single angle is used

Answer: C

40. In factory buildings, the horizontal beams spanning between the wall columns supporting a wall covering, are called

A. Stringers

B. Trimmers

C. Girts

D. Lintels

Answer: C

41. The minimum thickness of plates in a steel stack should be

A. 4 mm

B. 5 mm

C. 6 mm

D. 8 mm

Answer: C

42. To keep the intensity of bearing pressure between the column base and concrete, compressive throughout the length of the column base, the ratio of the moment M to axial load P should be

A. < L/3

B. < L/6 C. > L/3

D. > L/6

Answer: B

43. A structural member subjected to tensile force in a direction parallel to its longitudinal axis, is generally known as

A. A tie

B. A tie member

C. A tension member

D. All the above

Answer: D

44. Compression force in two end posts, the pin of a rocker bearing in a bridge is designed for

A. Bearing and shear

B. Bending and shear

C. Bearing and bending

D. Bearing, shear and bending

Answer: D

45. According to the Unwin’s formula, if ‘t’ is thickness of the plate in mm, the nominal diameter of the rivet, is

A. d = 1.91 t

B. d = 1.91 t2

C. d = 1.91 √t

D. d = 1.91 ∛t

Answer: C

46. If the area of cross-section of a single angle discontinuous strut is 30 cm2 and allowable working stress corresponding to its slenderness ratio is 625 kg/cm2, the safe load carrying capacity of the member, is

A. 10 tonnes

B. 12 tonnes

C. 15 tonnes

D. 18 tonnes

Answer: C

47. The ratio of plastic section modulus to elastic section modulus

A. Is equal to 1

B. Is always less than 1

C. Is always greater than 1

D. Can be less than 1

Answer: C

48. Bulb angles are used in

A. Column building

B. Bridge building

C. Ship building

D. Water tank building

Answer: C

49. The diameter of a bolt hole is taken as the nominal diameter of the bolt plus

A. 1.0 mm

B. 1.2 mm

C. 1.4 mm

D. 1.6 mm

Answer: D

50. The minimum thickness of a steel plate, which is directly exposed to weather and is not accessible for cleaning and repainting, should be:

A. 4.5 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 8 mm

D. 10 mm

Answer: C

51. For determination of allowable stress in axial compression, Indian Standard Institution has adopted

A. Euler’s formula

B. Rankine formula

C. Perry Robertson formula

D. Secant formula

Answer: D

52. Rolled steel beams are:

A. Mainly used to resist bending stress

B. Used as independent sections to resist compressive stress

C. Used as independent sections to resist tensile stress

D. All the above

Answer: D

53. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the most heavily loaded rivet will be the one which

A. Is at the maximum distance from CG of the rivet group

B. Is at the minimum distance from CG of the rivet group

C. Gives the maximum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm

D. Gives the minimum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm

Where, ‘Fa’ is the load shared by each rivet due to axial load and ‘Fm’ is the shearing load due to moment in any rivet.

Answer: D

54. According to IS : 800 – 71, the minimum thickness of a vertically stiffened web plate, shall not be less than

A. d/85

B. d/200

C. d/225

D. d/250

Answer: D

55. A web plate is called unstiffened if the ratio of clear depth to thickness is less than

A. 35

B. 50

C. 65

D. 85

Answer: D

56. A butt weld is specified by

A. Effective throat thickness

B. Plate thickness

C. Size of weld

D. Penetration thickness

Answer: B

57. The most economical section for a column, is

A. Rectangular

B. Solid round

C. Flat strip

D. Tubular section

Answer: D

58. In rolled steel beams, shear force is mostly resisted by

A. Web only

B. Flanges only

C. Web and flanges together

D. None of these

Answer: A

59. If the 20 mm rivets are used in lacing bars, then the minimum width of lacing bar should be

A. 40 mm

B. 60 mm

C. 80 mm

D. 100 mm

Answer: B

60. The minimum edge distance of a rivet line connecting two or more plates, is kept equal to 37 mm plus (where t is the thickness in mm of the thinner outside plate).

A. 2 t

B. 4 t

C. 6 t

D. 8 t

Answer: B

61. Select the correct statement

A. Material cost of a rivet is higher than that of a bolt

B. Tensile strength of a bolt is lesser than that of a rivet

C. Bolts are used as a temporary fastening whereas rivets are used as permanent fastenings

D. Riveting is less noisy than bolting

Answer: C

62. The forces acting on the web splice of a plate girder are

A. Axial forces

B. Shear and axial forces

C. Shear and bending forces

D. Axial and bending forces

Answer: C

63. Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid

A. Axial force in rafter

B. Shear force in rafter

C. Deflection of rafter

D. Bending moment in rafter

Answer: D

64. Which of the following sections should preferably be used at places where torsion occurs?

A. Angle section

B. Channel section

C. Box type section

D. Any of the above

Answer: C

65. Other conditions being same, the load factor in indeterminate structures is

A. Equal to load factor in determinate structures

B. More than the load factor in determinate structures

C. Less than the load factor in determinate structures

D. Unpredictable

Answer: B

66. Rivets connecting flange angles to cover plates in a plate girder are subjected to

A. Horizontal shear only

B. Vertical load only

C. Both A. and (B)

D. None of the above

Answer: A

67. The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than

A. Two times the weld size

B. Four times the weld size

C. Six times the weld size

D. Weld size

Answer: B

68. In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on the base plate, then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate

A. Fully by direct bearing

B. Fully through fastenings

C. 50% by direct bearing and 50% through fastenings

D. 75% by direct bearing and 25% through fastenings

Answer: C

69. If the floor is supported at or near the bottom but top chords of a bridge is not braced, then the bridge is called

A. Deck type

B. Through type

C. Half through type

D. Double deck type

Answer: C

70. The elastic strain for steel is about

A. 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/120 of maximum strain

B. 1/2 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/12 of maximum strain

C. 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and 1/200 of maximum strain

D. 1/24 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/200 of maximum strain

Answer: C

71. In the virtual work method, the virtual quantity is

A. Displacement

B. Load

C. Slope

D. Moment

Answer: A

72. In moment resistant connections, the moment resistance of riveted connection depends upon

A. Shear in rivets

B. Compression in rivets

C. Tension in rivets

D. Strength of rivets in bearing

Answer: C

73. The portal bracing in a truss bridge is used to

A. Transfer load from top of end posts to bearings

B. Keep the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section

C. Stiffen the structure laterally

D. Prevent the sides-way buckling of top chord

Answer: A

74. The maximum permissible span of asbestos cement sheets is

A. 650 mm

B. 810 mm

C. 1250 mm

D. 1680 mm

Answer: D

75. Lacing bars in a steel column should be designed to resist

A. Bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load

B. Shear force due to 2.5% of the column load

C. 2.5% of the column load

D. Both A. and (B)

Answer: B

76. The moment of the couple set up in a section of a beam by the longitudinal compressive and tensile force, is known as

A. Bending moment

B. Moment of resistance

C. Flexural stress moment

D. None of these

Answer: B

77. The thickness of the web of a mild steel plate girder is less than d/200. If only one horizontal stiffener is used, it is placed at

A. The neutral axis of the section

B. 2/3rd of the depth of the neutral axis from the compression flange

C. 2/5th of the depth of the neutral axis from the compression flange

D. 2/5th of the height of the neutral axis from tension flange

Answer: C

78. Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using

A. Vertical intermediate stiffener

B. Horizontal stiffener at neutral axis

C. Bearing stiffener

D. None of the above

Answer: A

79. The most commonly used sections in lateral system to carry shear force in built up columns, are

A. Rolled steel flats

B. Rolled angles

C. Rolled channels

D. All the above

Answer: D

80. The stress in the wall of a thin cylinder subjected to internal pressure, is

A. Hoop compression

B. Shear

C. Torsional shear

D. Hoop tension

Answer: D

81. The risk coefficient k, depends on

A. Mean probable design life of structures

B. Basic wind speed

C. Both A. and (B)

D. None of the above

Answer: C

82. For eccentrically loaded columns, the bending factor is

A. Cross-sectional area of column/Radius of gyration

B. Radius of gyration/Cross-sectional area of column

C. Cross-sectional area of column/Section modulus of the section

D. Section modulus of the section/Cross-sectional area of column

Answer: C

83. The net area of round bars to resist the tension, is the area of cross section at

A. Mid-section

B. Root of the thread

C. Difference of A. and (b)

D. None of these

Answer: B

84. The bracing between two columns of a steel tank will be designed to resist

A. Horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake only

B. Horizontal, shear due to wind or earthquake + 2.5% of column loads

C. Column loads + 2.5% of horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake

D. Column loads + full horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake

Answer: B

85. A column splice is used to increase

A. Length of the column

B. Strength of the column

C. Cross-sectional area of the column

D. None of these

Answer: A

86. A beam may be designed as a cased beam if

A. Section is of double open channel form with the webs not less than 40 mm apart

B. Overall depth and width of the steel section do not exceed 750 and 450 mm respectively

C. Beam is solidly encased in concrete with 10 mm aggregate having 28 days strength 160 kg/cm2

D. All the above

Answer: D

87. The bracing provided in the plane of end posts is called

A. Sway bracing

B. Portal bracing

C. Top lateral bracing

D. Bottom lateral bracing

Answer: B

88. In a built up beam actual bending compressive stress fbc is given by (when y1 is the distance of the edge of the beam from the neutral axis).

A. fbc = (M/Ixx) × y1

B. fbc = (Ixx/M) × y1

C. fbc = (Ixx/M) + y1

D. fbc = (M/Ixx) + y1

Answer: A

89. If the thickness of a structural member is small as compared to its length and width, it is classified as

A. One dimensional

B. Two dimensional

C. Three dimensional

D. None of these

Answer: B

90. The statical method of plastic analysis satisfies

A. Equilibrium and mechanism conditions

B. Equilibrium and plastic moment conditions

C. Mechanism and plastic moment conditions

D. Equilibrium condition only

Answer: B

91. Lug angle is

A. Used with single angle member

B. Not used with double angle member

C. Used with channel member

D. All the above

Answer: D

92. Compression members composed of two channels back-to-back and separated by a small distance are connected together by riveting so that the minimum slenderness ratio of each member between the connections, does not exceed

A. 40

B. 50

C. 60

D. 70

Answer: A

93. The connection of intermediate vertical stiffeners to the web, not subjected to external loads, shall be designed for a minimum shear force (kN/m) of

A. 75 t2/h

B. 125 t3/h2

C. 125 t2/h

D. 175 t2/h

Where, t = the web thickness in mm and h = the outstand of stiffener in mm

Answer: C

94. When the upper column does not provide full bearing area over lower column, the column splice is provided with the following assumption

A. Bearing plate is assumed as a short beam to transmit the axial load to the lower column section

B. Axial load is assumed to be taken by flanges

C. Load transmitted from the flanges of upper column and reactions from the flanges of lower columns are equal and form a couple

D. All the above

Answer: D

95. For the economical design of a combined footing to support two equal column loads, the projections of beams in lower tier are kept such that bending moment under column is equal to

A. Bending moment at the centre of the beam

B. Half the bending moment at the centre of the beam

C. Twice the bending moment at the centre of the beam

D. None of these

Answer: A

96. The allowable shear stress in the web of mild steel beams decreases with

A. Decrease in h/t ratio

B. Increase in h/t ratio

C. Decrease in thickness

D. Increase in height

Where ‘h’ is height and ‘t’ is thickness

Answer: B

97. On eccentrically loaded columns, the equivalent axial load may be obtained by

A. Adding the axial load, eccentric load, the product of the bending moment due to eccentric load and the appropriate bending factor

B. Adding the axial load and eccentric load and subtracting the product of bending moment and appropriate bending factor

C. Dividing the sum of axial load and eccentric load by the product of the bending moment and appropriate bending factor

D. None of these

Answer: A

98. Stiffeners are used in a plate girder

A. To reduce the compressive stress

B. To reduce the shear stress

C. To take the bearing stress

D. To avoid bulking of web plate

Answer: D

99. As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are

A. Stronger

B. Weaker

C. Equally strong

D. Any of the above

Answer: A

100. A fillet weld whose axis is parallel to the direction of the applied load, is known as

A. Diagonal filler weld

B. End fillet weld

C. Side fillet weld

D. All the above

Answer: C

101. In a truss girder of a bridge, a diagonal consists of mild steel flat 4001.S.F. and carries a pull of 80 tonnes. If the gross-diameter of the rivet is 26 mm, the number of rivets required in the splice, is

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Answer: C

102. When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is

A. Black bolt

B. Ordinary unfinished bolt

C. Turned and fitted bolt

D. High strength bolt

Answer: D

103. Factor of safety is the ratio of

A. Yield stress to working stress

B. Tensile stress to working stress

C. Compressive stress to working stress

D. Bearing stress to working stress

Answer: A

104. The size of a butt weld is specified by the effective throat thickness which in the case of incomplete penetration, is taken as

A. ½ of the thickness of thicker part

B. ¾ of the thickness of thicker part

C. ¾ of the thickness of thinner part

D. 7/8 of the thickness of thinner part

Answer: D

105. The best arrangement to provide unified behaviour in built up steel columns is by

A. Lacing

B. Battening

C. Tie plates

D. Perforated cover plates

Answer: A

106. The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain within elastic limit, is known as

A. Modulus of elasticity

B. Shear modulus of elasticity

C. Bulk modulus of elasticity

D. Tangent modulus of elasticity

Answer: B

107. In a built up section carrying a tensile force, the flanges of two channels are turned outward

A. To simplify the transverse connections

B. To minimize lacing

C. To have greater lateral rigidity

D. All the above

Answer: C

108. The overlap of batten plates with the main members in welded connections should be more than

A. 3 t

B. 4 t

C. 6 t

D. 8 t

Where ‘t’ = thickness of the batten plate

Answer: B

109. A fillet weld may be termed as

A. Mitre weld

B. Concave weld

C. Convex weld

D. All the above

Answer: D

110. Modified moment of inertia of sections with a single web, is equal to moment of inertia of the section about Y-Y axis at the point of maximum bending moment and is multiplied by the ratio of

A. Area of compression flange at the minimum bending moment to the corresponding area at the point of maximum bending moment

B. Area of tension flange at the minimum bending moment of the corresponding area at the point of maximum bending moment

C. Total area of flanges at the maximum bending moment to the corresponding area at the point of maximum bending moment

D. None of these

Answer: C

111. Gantry girders are designed to resist

A. Lateral loads

B. Longitudinal loads and vertical loads

C. Lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads

D. Lateral and longitudinal loads

Answer: C

112. The distance between e.g. of compression and e.g. of tension flanges of a plate girder, is known as

A. Overall depth

B. Clear depth

C. Effective depth

D. None of these

Answer: C

113. The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position at both ends but not restrained in direction, is

A. L

B. 0.67 L

C. 0.85 L

D. 1.5 L

Answer: A

114. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to roof, is taken as

A. 0.65 kN/m2

B. 0.75 kN/m2

C. 1.35 kN/m2

D. 1.50 kN/m2

Answer: A

115. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Dead load includes self-weight of the structure and super-imposed loads permanently attached to the structure

B. Dead loads change their positions and vary in magnitude

C. Dead loads are known in the beginning of the design

D. None of these

Answer: A

116. Design of a riveted joint is based on the assumption:

A. Bending stress in rivets is accounted for

B. Riveted hole is assumed to be completely filled by the rivet

C. Stress in the plate in not uniform

D. Friction between plates is taken into account

Answer: B

117. Steel tanks are mainly designed for

A. Weight of tank

B. Wind pressure

C. Water pressure

D. Earthquake forces

Answer: C

118. The cross-section of a standard fillet is a triangle whose base angles are

A. 45° and 45°

B. 30° and 60°

C. 40° and 50°

D. 20° and 70°

Answer: A

119. If N is the number of rivets in the joint, the strength of a riveted joint against shearing of rivets, is given by

A. Ps = N × (π/4) d2 × Ps

B. Ps = N × (d × t × ps)

C. Ps = N × (p – d) × t × Ps

D. Ps = N × (P + d) × t × ps

Answer: A

120. The sway bracing is designed to transfer

A. 20% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing

B. 10% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing

C. 25% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing

D. 50% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing

Answer: D

121. Column footing is provided

A. To spread the column load over a larger area

B. To ensure that intensity of bearing pressure between the column footing and soil does not exceed permissible bearing capacity of the soil

C. To distribute the column load over soil through the column footing

D. All the above

Answer: D

122. Cold driven rivets range from

A. 6 to 10 mm in diameter

B. 10 to 16 mm in diameter

C. 12 to 22 mm in diameter

D. 22 to 32 mm in diameter

Answer: C

123. The mechanism method of plastic analysis satisfies

A. Equilibrium and mechanism conditions

B. Equilibrium and plastic moment conditions

C. Mechanism and plastic moment conditions

D. Equilibrium condition only

Answer: A

124. Rolled steel beams are designated by Indian Standard series and its

A. Weight per metre and depth of its section

B. Depth of section and weight per metre

C. Width of flange and weight per metre

D. Weight per metre and flange width

Answer: B

125. When plates are exposed to weather, tacking rivets are provided at a pitch in line not exceeding (where t is the thickness of the outside plate).

A. 8 t

B. 16 t

C. 24 t

D. 32 t

Answer: B

126. For a compression member with double angle section, which of the following section will give larger value of minimum radius of gyration?

A. Equal angles back to back

B. Unequal legged angles with long legs back to back

C. Unequal legged angles with short legs back to back

D. Both B. and (C)

Answer: B

127. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The minimum pitch should not be less than 2.5 times the gross diameter of the river

B. The minimum pitch should not be less than 12 times the gross diameter of the rivet

C. The maximum pitch should not exceed 10 times the thickness or 150 mm whichever is less in compression

D. All the above

Answer: A

128. The gross section of the web of a beam is defined as

A. Depth of the beam multiplied by its web thickness

B. Width of the flange multiplied by its web thickness

C. Sum of the flange width and depth of the beam multiplied by the web thickness

D. None of these

Answer: A

129. Pitch of tacking rivets, when double angles connected back to back and acting as tension members should not be more than

A. 500 mm

B. 600 mm

C. 1000 mm

D. 300 mm

Answer: C

130. For a steel grillage footing to support two unequal column loads

A. Line of action of the resultant of two column loads, is made to coincide with the centre of gravity of the base of the footing

B. Trapezoidal shape is used for the base footing

C. Projections of beams on either side in lower tier are such that bending moments under columns are equal

D. All the above

Answer: D

131. In a tension member if one or more than one rivet holes are off the line, the failure of the member depends upon:

A. Pitch

B. Gauge

C. Diameter of the rivet holes

D. All the above

Answer: D

132. The heaviest I-section for same depth is

A. ISMB

B. ISLB

C. ISHB

D. ISWB

Answer: C

133. The effective length of a compression member of length L, held in position and restrained in direction at both ends, is

A. L

B. 0.67 L

C. 0.85 L

D. 1.5 L

Answer: B

134. Efficiency of a riveted joint is defined as the ratio of

A. Least strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate

B. Greatest strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate

C. Least strength of a riveted plate to the greatest strength of the riveted joint

D. All the above

Answer: D

135. By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint can be avoided?

A. Tension failure of the plate

B. Shear failure of the rivet

C. Shear failure of the plate

D. Crushing failure of the rivet

Answer: C

136. The maximum tensile and compressive bending stress in extreme fibres of rolled I-sections and channels on the effective section, is

A. 1500 kg/cm2

B. 1420 kg/cm2

C. 1650 kg/cm2

D. 2285 kg/cm2

Answer: C

137. When the ratio of the moment M to axial load P is greater than L/6, the resultant of the compressive bearing pressure which acts at a distance Y from one side, is given by

A. y = (L/3) – (M/P)

B. y = (L/2) – (P/M)

C. y = (L/2) + (M/P)

D. y = (L/3) + (M/P)

Answer: B

138. A circular column section is generally not used in actual practice because

A. It is uneconomical

B. It cannot carry the load safely

C. It is difficult to connect beams to the round sections

D. All of the above

Answer: C

139. The safe working pressure for a spherical vessel 1.5 m diameter and having 1.5 cm thick wall not to exceed tensile stress 50 kg/cm2, is

A. 16 kg/cm2

B. 18 kg/cm2

C. 20 kg/cm2

D. 22 kg/cm2

Answer: C

140. Rise of a Jack arch is kept about

A. 1/2 to 1/3 of the span

B. 1/3 to 1/4 of the span

C. 1/4 to 1/8 of the span

D. 1/8 to 1/12 of the span

Answer: D

141. Battening is preferable when the
(i) Column carries axial load only
(ii) Space between the two main components is not very large
(iii) Column is eccentrically loaded
The correct answer is

A. Only (i)

B. Only (iii)

C. (i) and (ii)

D. (ii) and (iii)

Answer: C

142. For a steel member of slenderness ratio 350, the allowable stress is 76 kg/cm2 if it is

A. HTW grade of thickness exceeding 32 mm

B. HT grade of thickness exceeding 45 mm

C. HT grade of thickness not exceeding 45 mm

D. All the above

Answer: D

143. The main type of butt joints, is a double cover

A. Shear riveted joint

B. Chain riveted joint

C. Zig-zag riveted joint

D. All the above

Answer: D

144. Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to

A. Transfer the load from the top flange to the bottom one

B. Prevent buckling of web

C. Decrease the effective depth of web

D. Prevent excessive deflection

Answer: B

145. The central deflection of a simply supported steel beam of length L with a concentrated load W at the centre, is

A. WL3/3EI

B. WL4/3EI

C. WL3/48EI

D. 5WL4/384EI

Answer: C

146. If d is the distance between the flange angles,

A. Vertical stiffeners are provided in steel plate girders if the web is less than d/85

B. Vertical stiffeners are provided in high tensile steel plate girders if the web is less than d/175

C. Horizontal stiffeners are provided in steel plate girders if the web is less than d/200

D. All the above

Answer: D

147. Area of openings for buildings of large permeability is more than

A. 10% of wall area

B. 20% of wall area

C. 30% of wall area

D. 50% of wall area

Answer: B

148. In case horizontal stiffeners are not used, the distance between vertical legs of flange angles at the top and bottom of a plate girder, is known as

A. Overall depth

B. Clear depth

C. Effective depth

D. None of these

Answer: B

149. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The steel beams placed in plain cement concrete, are known as reinforced beams

B. The filler joists are generally continuous over three-supports only

C. Continuous fillers are connected to main beams by means of cleat angles

D. Continuous fillers are supported by main steel beams

Answer: D

150. The diameter of base of conical flare of a steel stack is

A. Less than d

B. Equal to d

C. More than d

D. Any of the above

Where ‘d’ is the diameter of the cylindrical part

Answer: C

Design of Steel Structures objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

151. The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position and restrained in direction at one end and effectively restrained in direction but not held in position at the other end, is

A. L

B. 0.67 L

C. 0.85 L

D. 1.5 L

Answer: A

152. Working shear stress on the gross area of a rivet as recommended by Indian Standards, is

A. 785 kg/cm2

B. 1025 kg/cm2

C. 2360 kg/cm2

D. None of these

Answer: B

153. The least dimension in case of a circular column of diameter ‘D’ is taken as

A. 0.5 D

B. 0.68 D

C. 0.88 D

D. D

Answer: C

154. The critical load for a column of length I hinged at both ends and having flexural rigidity El, is given by

A. Pc = π2EI/l2

B. Pc = πEI/l2

C. Pc = πEI/I2

D. None of these

Answer: A

155. Length of an outstanding leg of a vertical stiffener, may be taken equal to

A. 1/10th of clear depth of the girder plus 15 mm

B. 1/20th of clear depth of the girder plus 20 mm

C. 1/25th of clear depth of the girder plus 25 mm

D. 1/30th of clear depth of the girder plus 50 mm

Answer: C

156. In case of plastic design, the calculated maximum shear capacity of a beam as per IS: 800 shall be

A. 0.55 Aw.fy

B. 0.65 Aw.fy

C. 0.75 Aw.fy

D. 0.85 Aw.fy

Where, Aw = effective cross-sectional area resisting shear fy = yield stress of the steel

Answer: A

157. If the depth of two column sections is equal, then the column splice is provided

A. With filler plates

B. With bearing plates

C. With filler and hearing plates

D. None of these

Answer: D

158. On steel structures the dead load is the weight of

A. Steel work

B. Material fastened to steel work

C. Material supported permanently

D. All the above

Answer: D

159. A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from wall is termed as

A. Stringer beam

B. Lintel beam

C. Spandrel beam

D. Header beam

Answer: C

160. The area Ap of cover plates in one flange of a built up beam, is given by

A. Ap = Zreqr + Zbeam/h

B. Ap = Zreqr + Zbeam/A

C. Ap = Zreqr × Zbeam/h

D. Ap = Zreqr – Zbeam/h

Answer: D

161. The economical depth d of a web plate in which allowable bearing stress is fb, and the maximum bending moment is M, as suggested by Rawater and Clark, is

A. d = ∛(M/fb)

B. d = 1.5 ∛(M/fb)

C. d = 2.5 ∛(M/fb)

D. d = 4.5 ∛(M/fb)

Answer: D

162. Bending compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on

A. Net area and gross area

B. Gross area and net area

C. Net area in both cases

D. Gross area in both cases

Answer: B

163. The thickness ‘t’ of a single flat lacing should not be less than

A. 1/30th length between inner end rivets

B. 1/40th length between inner end rivets

C. 1/50th length between inner end rivets

D. 1/60th length between inner end rivets

Answer: B

164. Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than

A. 1.5 d

B. 2.0 d

C. 2.5 d

D. 3.0 d

Where d is gross diameter of rivet

Answer: C

165. Tongue plates are provided in a steel girder at

A. The upper flange

B. The lower flange

C. The upper end of the web

D. The upper and lower ends of the web

Answer: D

166. For steel members exposed to weather and not accessible for repainting, the thickness of steel should not be less than

A. 4.5 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 8 mm

D. 10 mm

nswer: Option C

167. The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout its length by a masonry wall is

A. Zero

B. 10

C. 100

D. Infinity

Answer: A

168. The main assumption of the method of simple design of steel frame work, is:

A. Beams are simply supported

B. All connections of beams, girders and trusses are virtually flexible

C. Members in compression are subjected to forces applied at appropriate eccentricities

D. All the above

Answer: D

169. Outstanding length of a compression member consisting of a channel, is measured as

A. Half of the nominal width

B. Nominal width of the section

C. From the edge to the first row of rivets

D. None of these

Answer: B

170. The use of tie plates in laced columns is

A. Prohibited

B. Not prohibited

C. Permitted at start and end of lacing system only

D. Permitted between two parts of the lacing

Answer: C

171. According to IS : 800-1962 the permissible bending stress in steel slab plates, is

A. 1500 kg/cm2

B. 1420 kg/cm2

C. 2125 kg/cm2

D. 1890 kg/cm2

Answer: D

172. The side thrust T on the tie rods provided at the end beam of jack arch of rise R, is calculated from the formula

A. T = WL/4R

B. T = WR/8L

C. T = WL/8R

D. T = WL/2R

Answer: C

173. Intermediate vertical stiffeners in a plate girder need be provided if the depth of web exceeds

A. 50 t

B. 85 t

C. 200 t

D. 250 t

Where ‘t’ is thickness of web

Answer: B

174. The minimum pitch of rivet holes of diameter d should not be less than

A. d

B. 1.25 d

C. 1.5 d

D. 2.5 d

Answer: D

175. Design of a riveted joint, is based on the assumption:

A. Load is uniformly distributed among all the rivets

B. Shear stress on a rivet is uniformly distributed over its gross area

C. Bearing stress in the rivet is neglected

D. All the above

Answer: D

176. For the buildings having a low permeability, the internal wind pressure acting normal to the wall and roof surfaces is taken as

A. Zero

B. ± 0.2 p

C. ± 0.5 p

D. ± 0.7 p

Where ‘p’ is basic wind pressure

Answer: B

177. If ‘f’ is the maximum allowable bending stress in a tension member whose radius of gyration is ‘r’ and depth is 2y, the required cross sectional area ‘A’ is given by

A. A = My/fr2

B. A = My2/fr2

C. A = My/fr

D. A = My/f2r2

Answer: A

178. The load on a lintel is assumed as uniformly distributed if the height of the masonry above it, is up to a height of

A. The effective span

B. 1.25 times the effective span

C. 1.50 times the effective span

D. 2.0 times the effective span

Answer: B

179. Maximum pitch of rivets, used in steel stacks, is limited to

A. 6 t

B. 10 t

C. 12 t

D. 16 t

Where ‘t’ is thickness of thinner plate being connected

Answer: B

180. Diameter of a rivet hole is made larger than the diameter of the rivet by

A. 1.0 mm for rivet diameter upto 12 mm

B. 1.5 mm for rivet diameter exceeding 25 mm

C. 2.0 mm for rivet diameter over 25 mm

D. None of these

Answer: C

181. According to IS: 800-1962, the coefficient of expansion of steel per degree centigrade per unit length, is taken as

A. 0.000008

B. 0.000010

C. 0.000012

D. 0.000014

Answer: C

182. In case of timber structures, the simple bending formula M = fz may be applied for

A. Rectangular beams up to 300 mm depth

B. All rectangular beams

C. Solid circular beams only

D. All square cross-section beams

Answer: A

183. Perforated cover plates are particularly suitable for built up sections consisting of

A. Channels placed back to back

B. Channels placed toe to toe

C. Four angle box section

D. All the above

Answer: C

184. If R is the reaction on the bearing plate, the minimum moment of. inertia of the bearing stiffener provided at the support of a plate girder of overall depth D, the maximum thickness of the compression flange T, carrying total load W, is

A. (D2/250) × (R/W)

B. (D3T/250) × (R/W)

C. (DT/250) × (R/W)

D. (DT/250) × (W/R)

Answer: B

185. As per IS: 800, in the plastic design, which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Working Loads Load factor
(i) Dead load 1.7
(ii) Dead Load + imposed load 1.7
(iii) Dead load + load due to wind or 1.3 seismic forces
(iv) Dead load + imposed load + load 1.7 due to wind or seismic forces
Of these statements

A. (i) and (ii) are correct

B. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

C. (ii) and (iii) are correct

D. Only (i) is correct

Answer: A

186. Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at both ends, is

A. L

B. 0.67 L

C. 0.85 L

D. 1.5 L

Answer: B

187. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The ends of a strut, are connected together with two rivets

B. The members of strut will have at least two connections spaced equidistant in their length

C. The members when separated back-to-back, the connecting rivets should pass through solid washer or packing

D. All the above

Answer: D

188. For rivets in tension with countersunk heads, the tensile value shall be

A. Reduced by 25 %

B. Reduced by 33.3%

C. Increased by 25 %

D. Increased by 33.3 %

Answer: B

189. Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at one end but neither held in position nor restrained in direction at the other end, is

A. 1.5 L

B. 0.67 L

C. 0.85 L

D. 2 L

Answer: D

190. The equivalent axial load may be defined as the load which produces a stress equal to

A. Maximum stress produced by the eccentric load

B. Maximum stressed fibre

C. Bending stress

D. None of these

Answer: A

191. If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10 mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets in tension will be taken as

A. 120 mm

B. 160 mm

C. 200 mm

D. 300 mm

Answer: B

192. The connection of one beam to another beam by means of an angle at the bottom and an angle at the top, is known as

A. Unstiffened seated connection

B. Stiffened seated connection

C. Seated connection

D. None of these

Answer: C

193. The channels get twisted symmetrically with regard to its axis

A. Parallel to flanges

B. Parallel to web

C. Perpendicular to flanges

D. Perpendicular to web

Answer: B

194. Bolts are most suitable to carry

A. Shear

B. Bending

C. Axial tension

D. Shear and bending

Answer: C

195. Rolled steel angle sections are classified as

A. Equal angles

B. Unequal angles

C. Bulb angles

D. All the above

Answer: D

196. For simply supported beams, the maximum permitted deflection, is

A. 1/325 of the span

B. 1/350 of the span

C. 1/375 of the span

D. 1/400 of the span

Answer: A

197. Minimum spacing of vertical stiffeners is limited to

A. d/4

B. d/3

C. d/2

D. 2d/3

Where d is the distance between flange angles

Answer: B

198. The rolled steel I-sections are most commonly used as beams because these provide

A. Large moment of inertia with less cross-sectional area

B. Large moment of resistance as compared to other section

C. Greater lateral stability

D. All the above

Answer: D

199. If P is the wind pressure in kg/cm2, v is the velocity in km/hour and K is a constant of proportionality, then

A. P = K/v2

B. v = K/P2

C. P = Kv2

D. P = Kv

Answer: C

200. As per IS : 875, for the purposes of specifying basic wind velocity, the country has been divided into

A. 4 zones

B. 5 zones

C. 6 zones

D. 7 zones

Answer: C

201. Net sectional area of a tension member, is equal to its gross section area

A. Plus the area of the rivet holes

B. Divided by the area of rivet holes

C. Multiplied by the area of the rivet holes

D. None of these

Answer: D

202. For a single section used as a tension member, the given area is assumed

A. 20% to 30% in excess of the net area

B. 30% to 40% in excess of the net area

C. 40% to 50% in excess of the net area

D. 50% to 60% in excess of the net area

Answer: C

203. Study the following statements.
(i) Top lateral bracing prevents the sides-way buckling of the chord.
(ii) Sway bracing keeps the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section.
(iii) Sway bracing transfers the load from top of end posts to bearings.
The correct answer is

A. Only (i)

B. Both (i) and (ii)

C. Both (i) and (iii)

D. All (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: B

204. The effective length of a weld, is taken as the actual length

A. Minus the size of weld

B. Minus twice the size of weld

C. Plus the size of weld

D. Plus twice the size of weld

Answer: B

205. The greatest gauge of long rivets should not exceed (where d is the diameter of the holes).

A. 2 d

B. 4 d

C. 6 d

D. 8 d

Answer: D

206. The shape factor of an isosceles triangle for bending about the axis parallel to the base is:

A. 1.5

B. 1.7

C. 2.0

D. 2.34

Answer: D

207. Rolled steel Tee-sections are used

A. As columns

B. With flat strips to connect plates in steel rectangular tanks

C. As built up sections to resist axial tension

D. None of these

Answer: B

208. Water pressure in a 80 cm water main is 10 kg/cm2. The minimum thickness of the metal required for the water main, not to be stressed more than 200 kg/cm2, is

A. 1 cm

B. 1.5 cm

C. 2 cm

D. 2.5 cm

Answer: C

209. Which of the following types of riveted joint is free from bending stresses?

A. Lap joint

B. Butt joint with single cover plate

C. Butt joint with double cover plates

D. None of the above

Answer: C

210. The beams supporting the steps of a stair are generally known as

A. Headers

B. Trimmers

C. Stringers

D. Spandrel beams

Answer: C

211. With usual notations of the letters, the shear stress fs at any point of the cross-section is given by

A. fs =FQ/It

B. fs =Ft/IQ

C. fs =It/FQ

D. fs =IF/Qt

Answer: A

212. According to IS Specifications, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression is

A. Lesser of 200 mm and 12 t

B. Lesser of 200 mm and 16 t

C. Lesser of 300 mm and 32 t

D. Lesser of 3 00 mm and 24 t

Where ‘t’ is thickness of thinnest outside plate or angle

Answer: A

213. Poisson’s ratio for steel within elastic limit, ranges from

A. 0.15 to 0.20

B. 0.25 to 0.24

C. 0.25 to 0.33

D. 0.33 to 0.35

Answer: C

214. The minimum width B of a solid casing for a cased beam, is equal to

A. B = b + 25 mm

B. B = b + 50 mm

C. B = b + 75 mm

D. B = b + 100 mm

Answer: D

215. Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against

A. Shear buckling of web plate

B. Compression buckling of web plate

C. Yielding

D. All of the above

Answer: D

216. If W and L are the total superimposed load and the span of a plate girder in meters, the approximate self weight (W) of the girder, is taken as

A. M = WL/100

B. M = WL/200

C. M = WL/300

D. M = WL/400

Answer: C

217. Maximum permissible slenderness ratio of a member normally acting as a tie in a roof truss, is

A. 180

B. 200

C. 250

D. 350

Answer: D

218. Normally, the angle of roof truss with asbestos sheets should not be less than

A. 26½°

B. 30°

C. 35°

D. 40°

Answer: B

219. An imaginary line along which rivets are placed, is known as

A. Rivet line

B. Back line

C. Gauge line

D. All the above

Answer: D

220. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Loaded columns are supported on column bases

B. Column bases transmit the column load to the concrete foundation

C. Column load is spread over a large area on concrete

D. All the above

Answer: D

221. The capacity of the smallest pressed steel tank is

A. 1000 liter

B. 1650 liter

C. 1950 liter

D. 2450 liter

Answer: C

222. The permissible stress to which a structural member can be subjected to, is known as

A. Bearing stress

B. Working stress

C. Tensile stress

D. Compressive stress

Answer: B

223. Tacking rivets in tension members, are provided at a pitch in line not exceeding

A. 25 cm

B. 50 cm

C. 75 cm

D. 100 cm

Answer: D

224. In case of timber structures, the form factor for solid circular cross-section is taken as

A. 1.18

B. 1.414

C. 1.67

D. 1.81

Answer: A

225. The distance between the outer faces of flanges of a plate girder, is known as

A. Overall depth

B. Clear depth

C. Effective depth

D. None of these

Answer: A

226. When the depth of a plate girder is at least ‘n’ times the depth of vertical leg of the flange angles, the girder is known as deep plate girder, if ‘n’ is

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Answer: D

227. Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied both in elastic and plastic analysis?

A. Equilibrium condition

B. Yield condition

C. Plastic moment condition

D. Mechanism condition

Answer: A

228. If the pitch is 6 cm and rivet value is 4 tonnes, the number of rivets required for a riveted connection carrying an eccentric load of 15 tonnes at a distance of 30 cm from the centre line, is

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 15

Answer: B

229. In a grillage footing, the maximum shear force occurs at the

A. Edge of grillage beam

B. Centre of base plate

C. Centre of grillage beam

D. Centre of base plate

Answer: B

230. The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25 mm diameter is

A. 1.0 mm

B. 1.5 mm

C. 2.0 mm

D. 2.5 mm

Answer: B

231. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Vertical stiffeners may be placed in pairs one on each side of the web

B. Single vertical stiffeners may be placed alternately on opposite sides of the web

C. Horizontal stiffeners may be placed alternately on opposite sides of the web

D. All the above

Answer: D

232. The greatest permissible clear dimension of the web of thickness t in the panel of a plate girder, is restricted to

A. 180 t

B. 220 t

C. 230 t

D. 270 t

Answer: D

233. The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and superimposed load is

A. 180

B. 200

C. 250

D. 350

Answer: A

234. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. The nominal diameter of a rivet is its diameter before driving

B. The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of rivet hole

C. The gross area of a rivet is the cross-sectional area of the rivet hole

D. The diameter of a rivet hole is equal to the nominal diameter of the rivet plus 1.5 mm

Answer: D

235. Effective length of a column effectively held in position at both ends and restrained in direction at one end, is

A. L

B. 0.67 L

C. 0.85 L

D. 1.5 L

Answer: C

236. As per IS : 800, for compression flange, the outstand of flange plates should not exceed

A. 12 t

B. 16 t

C. 20 t

D. 25 t

Where ‘t’ = thickness of thinnest flange plate

Answer: B

237. If the unsupported length of a stanchion is 4 meters and least radius of gyration of its cross-section is 5, the slenderness ratio of the stanchion, is

A. 60

B. 70

C. 80

D. 100

Answer: C

238. For a cantilever beam of length ‘L’ continuous at the support and unrestrained against torsion at the support and free at the end, the effective length ‘l’ is equal to

A. l = L

B. l = 2L

C. l = 0.5L

D. l = 3L

Answer: D

239. Hudson’s formula gives the dead weight of a truss bridge as a function of

A. Bottom chord area

B. Top chord area

C. Effective span of bridge

D. Heaviest axle load of engine

Answer: A

240. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. When the gauge distance is larger than the pitch, the failure of the section may occur in a zig-zag line

B. When the gauge distance is smaller than the pitch, the failure of the section may occur in a straight right angle section through the centre of rivet holes

C. When the gauge distance and pitch are both equal, the failure to the section becomes more likely as the diameter of the holes increases

D. All the above

Answer: D

241. The deflection of beams may be decreased by

A. Increasing the depth of beam

B. Increasing the span

C. Decreasing the depth of beam

D. Increasing the width of beam

Answer: A

242. The moment-curvature relation at a plastic hinge is

A. Linear

B. Parabolic

C. Constant moment for all curvatures

D. Constant curvature for all moments

Answer: C

243. If the depth of the section of an upper column is smaller than the lower column

A. Filler plates are provided with column splice

B. Bearing plates are provided with column splice

C. Filler plates and bearing plates are provided with column splice

D. None of these

Answer: D

244. If the thickness of plate to be connected by a rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size of rivet as per Unwin’s formula will be

A. 16 mm

B. 20 mm

C. 24 mm

D. 27 mm

Answer: C

245. A major beam in a building structure, is known as

A. A girder

B. A floor beam

C. A main beam

D. All the above

Answer: D

246. Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should preferably be between

A. 10° to 30°

B. 30° to 40°

C. 40° to 70°

D. 90°

Answer: C

247. In case of cantilever fillers, the ratio of the span L to depth d, should not exceed

A. 4

B. 8

C. 12

D. 16

Answer: C

248. The internal pressure coefficient on walls for buildings with large permeability is taken as

A. ± 0.2

B. ± 0.5

C. ± 0.7

D. 0

Answer: C

249. The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of

A. Cold rivet before driving

B. Rivet after driving

C. Rivet hole

D. None of these

Answer: B

250. The centrifugal force due to curvature of track is assumed to act on the bridge at a height of

A. 1.23 m above the rail level

B. 1.50 m above the rail level

C. 1.83 m above the rail level

D. 2.13 m above the rail level

Answer: C

251. The tensile strength of mild steel for bolts and nuts should not be less than

A. 32 kg/mm2

B. 36 kg/mm2

C. 40 kg/mm2

D. 44 kg/mm2

Answer: D

252. Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS : 800, is

A. 40 %

B. 50 %

C. 60 %

D. 70 %

Answer: C

253. In double lacing, the thickness t of flat lacing is

A. t < 1/40 th length between inner end rivets

B. t < 1/50 th length between inner end rivets

C. t < 1/60 th length between inner end rivets

D. t < 1/70 th length between inner end rivets

Answer: C

254. According to IS Specifications, the effective length of a column effectively held in position at both ends and restrained in direction at one end is taken as

A. 0.67 L

B. 0.8 L

C. L

D. 1.5 L

Answer: B

255. If M is the moment due to a couple in a bearing plate whose width is b and allowable bending stress is P, the thickness (t) of the bending plate of the column splice, is

A. t = √[(b × p)/6M]

B. t = √[6M/(b × p)]

C. t = 6M/bp

D. t = √6M/(b × p)

Answer: B

256. The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be avoided by

A. Increasing the web thickness

B. Providing suitable stiffeners

C. Increasing the length of the bearing plates

D. None of the above

Answer: C

257. Allowable working stress corresponding to the slenderness ratio of double angles placed back to back and connected to one side of a gusset plate, is reduced to

A. 50 %

B. 60 %

C. 70 %

D. 80 %

Answer: D

258. The number of seismic zones in which the country has been divided is

A. 3

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

Answer: B

259. The critical stress on a column for elastic buckling given by Euler’s formula, is

A. fc = π2E/(I/r)2

B. fc = (I/r) 2/ πE

C. fc = (I/r)/ πE

D. fc = π2E/(I/r)

Answer: A

260. Load factor is

A. Always equal to factor of safety

B. Always less than factor of safety

C. Always greater than factor of safety

D. Sometimes greater than factor of safety

Answer: C

261. When a tension member is made of four angles with a plate as a web, the allowance for holes is made as

A. Two holes for each angle and one hole for the web

B. One hole for each angle and one hole for the web

C. One hole for each angle and two holes for the web

D. Two holes for each angle and two holes for the web

Answer: C

262. The effective length of a battened column is increased by

A. 5 %

B. 10 %

C. 15 %

D. 20 %

Answer: B

263. To keep the intensity of bearing pressure between the column base and concrete compressive and to vary from zero to 2P/BL, the ratio of the moment M to the axial load P should be

A. L/2

B. L/3

C. L/4

D. L/6

Answer: D

264. Minimum pitch provided in riveted steel tanks is

A. 1.5 d

B. 2.0 d

C. 2.5 d

D. 3.0 d

Where d is diameter of rivets

Answer: D

265. The spans are considered approximately equal if the longest span does not exceed the shortest span by more than

A. 5 %

B. 10 %

C. 15 %

D. 20 %

Answer: C

266. The mechanism method and the statical method give

A. Lower and upper bounds respectively on the strength of structure

B. Upper and lower bounds respectively on the strength of structure

C. Lower bound on the strength of structure

D. Upper bound on the strength of structure

Answer: B

267. When two plates are placed end to end and are joined by two cover plates, the joint is known as

A. Lap joint

B. Butt joint

C. Chain riveted lap joint

D. Double cover butt joint

Answer: D

268. For a standard 45° fillet, the ratio of size of fillet to throat thickness is

A. 1 : 1

B. 1 : √2

C. √2 : 1

D. 2 : 1

Answer: C

269. The strength of a riveted lap joint is equal to its

A. Shearing strength

B. Bearing strength

C. Tearing strength

D. Least of (a), B. and (c)

Answer: D

270. The maximum spacing of vertical stiffeners is

A. 1.33 d

B. 1.25 d

C. 1.5 d

D. 1.75 d

Where ‘d’ is the distance between flange angles

Answer: C

271. Number of rivets required in a joint, is

A. Load/Shear strength of a rivet

B. Load/Bearing strength of a rivet

C. Load/Tearing strength of a rivet

D. Load/Rivet value

Answer: D

272. If the loaded length of span in meters of a railway steel bridge carrying a single track is 6 m, then impact factor is taken as

A. 0

B. 0.5

C. Between 0.5 and 1.0

D. 1.0

Answer: C

273. A riveted joint many experience

A. Tearing failure of plates

B. Splitting failure of plates at the edges

C. Bearing failure of rivets

D. All the above

Answer: D

274. Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as

A. Gross diameter of bolt

B. Nominal diameter + 1.5 mm

C. Nominal diameter + 2.0 mm

D. Nominal diameter of bolt

Answer: B

275. The effective length of a double angle strut with angles placed back to back and connected to both the sides of a gusset plate, by not less than two rivets, is

A. 0.5 L

B. 0.67 L

C. 0.85 L

D. 2 L

Answer: C

276. The range of economical spacing of trusses varies from

A. L/3 to L/5

B. L/4 to 2L/5

C. L/3 to L/2

D. 2L/5 to 3L/5, where L is span

Answer: A

277. Effective sectional area of a compression member is:

A. Gross sectional area – area of rivet hole

B. Gross sectional area + area of rivet hole

C. Gross sectional area × area of rivet hole

D. Gross sectional area + area of rivet hole

Answer: A

278. The maximum slenderness ratio of a steel column, the design of which is governed by wind or seismic forces is

A. 150

B. 180

C. 250

D. 350

Answer: C

279. In plastic analysis, the shape factor for circular sections, is

A. 1.5

B. 1.6

C. 1.697

D. None of these

Answer: C

280. The external wind pressure acting on a roof depends on

A. Degree of permeability of roof

B. Slope of roof

C. Both A. and (B)

D. None of the above

Answer: B

281. The failure of a web plate takes place by yielding if the ratio of the clear depth to thickness of the web, is less than

A. 45

B. 55

C. 62

D. 82

Answer: D

282. The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of plate is usually

A. More

B. Less

C. Equal

D. None of the above

Answer: A

283. The ratio of longitudinal stress to strain within elastic limit, is known as

A. Modulus of elasticity

B. Shear modulus of elasticity

C. Bulk modulus of elasticity

D. All the above

Answer: A

284. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed

A. 100

B. 120

C. 145

D. 180

Answer: C

285. In a fillet weld placed on the sides of the base, the metal experiences

A. Shear

B. Tension

C. Compression

D. All the above

Answer: D

286. For steel members not exposed to weather, the thickness of steel should not be less than

A. 4.5 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 8 mm

D. 10 mm

Answer: B

287. When a tension member consists of two channel sections, the allowance for rivet hole is made for two holes from

A. Each web

B. Each flange

C. Each web or one hole from each flange whichever is more

D. Each web or one hole from each flange whichever is less

Answer: D

288. If a pair of angles placed back to back in tension are connected by one leg of each angle, the net effective area of the section, is

A. a – [b/{1 + 0.35 (b/a)}]

B. a + [b/{1 + 0.35 (b/a)}]

C. a – [b/{1 + 0.2 (b/a)}]

D. a + [b/{1 + 0.2 (b/a)}]

Answer: D

289. Assuming the values of maximum deviation ΔP and ΔE to be 25% of the computed value of P and E respectively, the minimum value of the factor of safety is

A. 1.00

B. 0.67

C. 1.67

D. 2.67

Answer: C

290. A beam is defined as a structural member subjected to

A. Axial loading

B. Transverse loading

C. Axial and transverse loading

D. None of these

Answer: B

291. The allowable stress in axial tension for rolled I-sections and channels, is taken as

A. 1420 kg/cm2

B. 1500 kg/cm2

C. 2125 kg/cm2

D. 1810 kg/cm2

Answer: B

292. Secant formula for direct stress in compression, is applicable only for slenderness ratio upto

A. 120

B. 130

C. 140

D. 150

Answer: C

293. An axial loaded column is supported on a slab base whose projection is 8 cm. If the intensity of pressure from concrete is 40 kg/cm2 and allowable bending stress in slab base is 1890 kg/cm2, the thickness (t) of the slab base, is

A. t = √(21/64)

B. t = √(64/21)

C. t = 21/64

D. t = 64/21

Answer: B

294. A compression member consisting of angle sections may be a

A. Continuous member

B. Discontinuous single angle strut

C. Discontinuous double angle strut

D. All the above

Answer: D

295. The main advantage of a steel member, is:

A. Its high strength

B. Its gas and water tightness

C. Its long service life

D. All the above

Answer: D

296. A riveted joint may experience

A. Shear failure

B. Shear failure of plates

C. Bearing failure

D. All the above

Answer: D

297. IS : 800 – 1971 recommends that in a splice plate the number of rivets carrying calculated shear stress through a packing greater than 6 mm thick, is to be increased by 2.5% for every

A. 1.00 mm thickness of packing

B. 1.50 mm thickness of packing

C. 2.0 mm thickness of packing

D. 2.50 mm thickness of packing

Answer: C

298. To the calculated area of cover plates of a built-up beam, an allowance for rivet holes to be added, is

A. 10 %

B. 13 %

C. 15 %

D. 18 %

Answer: B

299. If the moment of inertia of a section about its axis is ‘I’ and its effective sectional area is ‘A’, its radius of gyration r about the axis, is

A. r = I/A

B. r = √(I/A)

C. r = ∛(I/A)

D. r = √(A/I)

Answer: B

300. A structural member subjected to compressive stress in a direction parallel to its longitudinal axis, is generally known as

A. Column

B. Stanchion

C. Post

D. All the above

Answer: D

301. The equivalent axial tensile load Pe, which produces an average axial tensile stress in the section equivalent to the combined stress due to axial tension P and bending M, at the extreme fibre of the section, is given by (where Z is the section modulus of the section).

A. Pe = P + MA/Z

B. Pe = P – MA/Z

C. Pe = P – Z/MA

D. Pe = P + Z/MA

Answer: A

302. A 20 mm dia steel bar which is subjected to an axial tension of 2300 kg/cm2 produces a strain of 0.004 cm. If Young’s modulus of steel is 2.1 × 106 kg/cm2, the bar is

A. In the elastic range

B. In the plastic range

C. At yield point

D. None of these

Answer: A

303. The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of a member carrying loads resulting from wind, is

A. 180

B. 200

C. 250

D. 300

Answer: C

304. The average shear stress for rolled steel beam section, is

A. 845 kg/cm2

B. 945 kg/cm2

C. 1025 kg/cm2

D. 1500 kg/cm2

Answer: B

305. For a rectangular section, the ratio of the maximum and average shear stresses, is

A. 1.5

B. 2.0

C. 2.5

D. 3.5

Answer: A

306. For the steel member exposed to weather and accessible for repainting, the thickness of steel should not be less than (accepting the webs of Indian Standard rolled steel joists and channels).

A. 4 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 8 mm

D. 10 mm

Answer: B

307. The permissible stress in bending for rolled steel I-beams and channels, is

A. 1500 kg/cm2

B. 1575 kg/cm2

C. 945 kg/cm2

D. 1650 kg/cm2

Answer: D

308. The distance measured along one rivet line from the centre of a rivet to the centre of adjoining rivet on an adjacent parallel rivet line, is called

A. Pitch of rivet

B. Gauge distance of rivet

C. Staggered pitch

D. All the above

Answer: C

309. The effective length ‘L’ of a simply supported beam with ends restrained against torsion, and also the ends of compression flange partially restrained against lateral bending, is given by

A. L = span

B. L = 0.85 span

C. L = 0.75 span

D. L = 0.7 span

Answer: B

310. The permissible bearing stress in steel, is

A. 1500 kg/cm2

B. 1890 kg/cm2

C. 2025 kg/cm2

D. 2340 kg/cm2

Answer: B

311. Strengths of a rivet in single shearing, in bearing and in tearing are 3425 kg, 4575 kg and 5025 kg respectively. If the load in the member is 35 tonnes, the number of rivets required, is

A. 10

B. 11

C. 12

D. 13

Answer: D

312. The bending moment for filler joists at the middle of an intermediate span, is

A. WL2/10

B. – WL2/10

C. – WL2/12

D. WL2/12

Answer: D

313. A simply supported beam carrying a central load, will be safe in deflection if the ratio of its span to depth, is

A. < 19

B. < 24 C. > 19

D. > 24

Answer: B

314. If L is the overall length of a combined footing having A as its area, d being the distance between the centre of gravity of the base and centre of the base, the larger width b is

A. (A/L) + (3Ad/L2)

B. (A/L) + (6Ad/L2)

C. (A/L) – (6Ad/L2)

D. (A/L) – (3Ad/L2)

Answer: B

315. If p and d are pitch and gross diameter of rivets, the efficiency (η) of the riveted joint, is given by

A. η = p/(p – d)

B. η = p/(p + d)

C. η = (p – d)/p

D. η = (p + d)/p

Answer: C

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