The IMF came into existence in December 1945 and started functioning in March 1947. It is an autonomous organisation and is affiliated to the U.N.O. It has its main office in Washington.
Initially, the IMF had 30 countries as its members. As on April 30, 1986, the membership of the Fund was 149, covering nearly all the non-communist nations of the world.
The management of the Fund is under the control of two bodies: (a) Board of Governors and (b) Board of Executive Directors. The Board of Governors is the general body of management consisting of one Governor and an Alternate Governor for each member country.
The Board of Governors has the responsibility of formulating the general policies of the Fund. The Board of Executive Directors controls the day-to-day activities of the Fund.
Currently, it consists of 22 directors; six of these directors are appointed by the members having the largest quotas, namely, the United States, the United Kingdom, West Germany, France, Japan and Saudi Arabia, and the remaining sixteen directors are elected by other nations.
The Managing Director is the chairman of the Board of Executive Directors as well as the head of the staff of the Fund.
Construction Planning and Management Multiple Choice Questions Pdf
1. PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for
A. small projects
B. large and complex projects
C. research and development projects
D. deterministic activities Answer: C
2. Select the correct statement.
A. Activity arrows in a CPM network are drawn to scale
B. The tail of an arrow represents the finish of an activity
C. Arrow bead represents the start of an activity
D. none of the above Answer: D
3. Which of the following is a weakness of bar chart ?
A. interdependencies of activities
B. project progress
C. uncertainties
D. all of the above Answer: D
4. In the network shown in Fig. 7.1, activity 4-5 can be started only when
A. activity 3-4 is completed
B. activity 2-4 is completed
C. activity 2-3 is completed
D. activity 2-4 and 2>-A both are com-pleted Answer: D
5. Which of the following is not a PERT event ?
A. site investigation started
B. sessional work completed
C. bus starts from Jaipur
D. class is being attended Answer: D
6. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence follow
A. normal distribution curve
B. Poisson’s distribution curve
C. Beta – distribution curve
D. none of the above Answer: C
7. The area under the Beta – distribution curve is divided into two equal parts by
A. most likely time
B. optimistic time
C. pessimistic time
D. expected time Answer: D
8. According to Fulkerson’s rule, what are the correct event numbers corresponding to events A, B, C, D,E, F and G of the network shown in Fig. ?
Fig.7.2
A. 1, 2,3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 respectively
B. 1, 3,2,4, 5,6 and 7 respectively
C. 1,2, 3, 5, 6,4 and 7 respectively
D. 1, 3,2, 5, 6,4 and 7 respectively Answer: B
9. With reference to the network shown in Fig. , which statement is incorrect ?
A. Events 3 and 4 occur after event 2.
B. Event 7 can occur after event 4.
C. Event 7 precedes event 6.
D. Event 5 follows event 3. Answer: B
10. In the network shown in Fig.(above Figure), the concurrent and preceding activities corresponding to activity 2-4 are respectively
A. 1-2 and 4-7
B. 2-3 and 1-2
C. 2-3 and 4-7
D. 1-2 and 3-6 Answer: B
11. Which of the following does not represent an activity?
A. site located
B. foundation is being dug
C. the office area is being cleaned
D. the invitations are being sent Answer: A
12. Earliest finish of an activity is always
A. greater than earliest event time of the following node
B. less than earliest event time of the following node
C. less than or equal to earliest event time of the following node
D. greater than or equal to earliest event time of the following node Answer: C
13. Select the incorrect statement.
A. Earliest start of an activity is the early event time of the node it leaves.
B. Latest finish of an activity is the late event time of the node it enters.
C. Latest start of an activity is its latest finish minus its duration.
D. none of the above Answer: D
14. In the network shown in Fig. the earliest start time of activity 5-6 is (the number on the arrow shows duration of the activity)
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 5 Answer: C
15. Latest start of an activity is always
A. greater than or equal to latest event time of preceding node
B. less than or equal to latest event time of preceding node
C. equal to latest event time of preceding node
D. less than latest event time of preceding node Answer: A
16. In the network shown in Fig. (15 fig) the latest start time of an activity 4-5 is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 7 Answer: B
17. In the network shown in Fig. 7.5, the activity 6-8 can be started only when
A. activity 4—6 is completed
B. activity 3 – 5 is completed
C. activity 2—3 is completed
D. both activities 2—3 and 4—6 are completed Answer: D
18. If the optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic time for activity A are 4, 6 and 8 respectively and for activity B are 5, 5.5 and 9 respectively, then
A. expected time of activity A is greater than the expected time of activity B
B. expected time of activity B is greater than the expected time of activity A
C. expected time of both activities A and B are same
D. none of the above Answer: C
19. If an activity has its optimistic, most likely and pessimistic times as 2, 3 and 7 respectively, then its expected time and variance are respectively
A. 3.5 and 5/6
B. 5 and 25/36
C. 3.5 and 25/36
D. 4 and 5/6 Answer: C
20. Select the incorrect statement.
A. Start float and finish float are always equal.
B. Total float can be either start float or finish float.
C. Start float and finish float need not be equal.
D. Start float and finish float are the differences between activity times and not event times. Answer: C
21. Free float is mainly used to
A. identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of preceding activity
B. identify the activities, which can be delayed without affecting the total float of succeeding activity
C. establish priorities
D. identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of either the preceding or succeeding activities Answer: B
22. Whenever an activity has zero total float, then
A. free float of the activity must be zero but independent float need not be zero
B. independent float must be zero but free float need not be zero
C. free float and independent float both must be zero
D. free float and independent float both need not be zero Answer: C
23. Total float for any activity is defined as the difference between
A. its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
B. its latest start time and earliest start time
C. its latest start time and earliest finish time
D. its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity Answer: B
24. In the network shown in Fig. independent float for the activity 3-5 will be (the number on the arrow shows the duration of activity)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. none of the above Answer: B
25. In the network shown in Fig. (below fig), the critical path is
A. 1-2-3-4-5-6
B. 1-2-4-5-6
C. 1-2-3-5-6
D. 1-2-4-3-5-6 Answer: A
26. Select the incorrect statement.
A. A critical path always begins at the very first event.
B. A critical path always terminates at the last event.
C. Critical activities control the project duration.
D. Critical activity is the one for which free float is zero. Answer: D
27. Free float for any activity is defined as the difference between
A. its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
B. its latest start time and earliest start time
C. its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
D. its earliest finish time and latest start time for its successor activity Answer: A
28. Critical path
A. is always longest
B. is always shortest
C. may be longest
D. may be shortest Answer: A
29. The independent float affects only
A. preceding activities
B. succeeding activities
C. the particular activity involved
D. none of the above Answer: C
30. A father notes that when his teenage daughter uses the telephone, she takes not less than 6 minutes for a call and som? times as much as an hour. Fifteen minutes call are more frequent than calls of any other duration. If these phone calls were an activity in PERT project, then phone calls expected duration will be
A. 15 minutes
B. 20.143 minutes
C. 21 minutes
D. 27 minutes Answer: C
31. What estimate would you give for the variance in above problem ?
A. 81
B. 54
C. 36
D. 9 Answer: A
32. The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the preceding and succeeding activities is known as
A. total float
B. free float
C. interfering float
D. independent float Answer: D
33. The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as
A. crash time
B. normal time
C. optimistic time
D. standard time Answer: B
34. The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is
A. crash time
B. normal time
C. optimistic time
D. between normal time and crash time Answer: D
35. The direct cost of a project with respect to normal time is
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. zero
D. infinite Answer: A
36. The reduction in project time normally results in
A. decreasing the direct cost and increasing indirect cost
B. increasing the direct cost and decreasing the indirect cost
C. increasing the direct cost and indirect cost both
D. decreasing the direct cost and indirect cost both Answer: B
37. Economic saving of time results by crashing
A. cheapest critical activity
B. cheapest non-critical activity
C. costliest critical activity
D. costliest non-critical activity Answer: A
38. The process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or replanning is called
A. resource levelling
B. resource smoothening
C. updating
D. critical path scheduling Answer: C
39. Slack time refers to
A. an activity
B. an event
C. both event and activity
D. none of the above Answer: B
40. The normal time required for the completion of project in the above problem is
A. 9 days
B. 13 days
C. 14 days
D. 19 days Answer: C
41. The constraints in case of resource smoothening operation would be
A. resources
B. project duration time
C. both resources and project duration time
D. none of the above Answer: B
42. Updating may result in
A. change of critical path
B. decrease of project completion time
C. increase of project completion time
D. all of the above Answer: D
43. Crash project duration is obtained by summing the
A. normal durations for all the activities
B. crash durations for all activities
C. crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by taking into account the normal duration for all the activities
D. crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by taking into account the crash duration for all the activities. Answer: D
44. Interfering float is the difference between
A. total float and free float
B. total float and independent float
C. free float and independent float
D. none of the above Answer: A
45. Assertion (A.: Activity 5-7 is critical. Reason (R) : Earliest finish time and latest finish time for events 5-7 are same Select the correct answer.
A. A is correct but R is not correct
B. R is correct but A is not correct
C. both A and R are correct
D. both A and R are incorrect Answer: A
46. A tractor whose weight is 20 tonnes has a drawbar pull of 2500 kg, when operated on a level road having a rolling resistence of 30 kg per tonne. If this tractor is operated on a level road having a rolling resistance of 40 kg per tonne, then the drawbar pull of the tractor will
A. reduce by 200 kg
B. increase by 200 kg
C. increase by 250 kg
D. reduce by 250 kg Answer: A
47. Which of the following earth moving machines has the shortest cycle time?
A. Drag line
B. Hoe
C. Clam shell
D. Dipper shovel Answer: D
48. Which of the following excavators is most suitable for digging under water?
A. Drag line
B. Hoe
C. Clam shell
D. Dipper shovel Answer: A
49. The part of a derrick crane include
(i) Mast
(ii) Boom
(iii) Bull wheel
(iv) Jack
Of these statements
A. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
B. (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
C. (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
D. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct Answer: D
50. For which of the following materials, the output of power shovels for a fixed shovel size will be maximum
A. Moist loam
B. Good common earth
C. We|l blasted rock
D. Wet sticky clay Answer: A
Construction Planning and Management Interview Questions
51. For a given size of bucket, the ideal output of a dragline will be least in
A. Moist loam
B. Sand and gravel
C. Good common earth
D. Wet sticky clay Answer: D
52. Consider the following statements for a power shovel:
(i) Output can be increased by reducing the angle of swing for a given depth of cut.
(ii) For a given angle of swing, output will be maximum at optimum depth of cut.
(iii) Output can be increased by keeping the depth of cut less than optimum depth,
(iv) Output can be increased by increasing the size of shovel. Of these statements
A. (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
B. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
C. (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
D. (i) and (iv) are correct Answer: B
53. Assertion A: For a given depth of cut, the output of a power shovel can be increased by decreasing the angle of swing. Reason R: If the angle of swing is decreased, the cycle time will be decreased. Select the correct answer.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true. Answer: A
54. If the output of a dragline for 90° angle of swing at optimum depth of cut is X, then the output for 120° angle of swing at 120 % of optimum depth of cut will be
A. equal to X
B. more than X
C. less than X
D. any of the above Answer: C
55. Output of a bulldozer is
(i) increased if drawbar HP of the tractor is increased for a given hauling distance
(ii) decreased if drawbar HP of the tractor is increased for a given hauling distance
(iii) increased if the hauling distance is increased for a given drawbar HP of the tractor
(iv) decreased if the hauling distance is increased for a given drawbar HP of the tractor Of these statement
A. (i) and (iii) are correct
B. (i) and (iv) are correct
C. (ii) and (iii) are correct
D. (ii) and (iv) are correct Answer: B
56. A machine is purchased for Rs. 10,000,00/- and has an estimated life of 10 years. The salvage value at the end of 10 years is Rs. 1,50,000/-. The book value of the machine at the end of 5 years using general straight line method of evaluation of depreciation is
A. Rs. 4,75,000/-
B. Rs. 5,75,000/-
C. Rs. 6,50,000/-
D. Rs. 8,50,000/- Answer: B
57. An excavator costs Rs. 20,00,000/- and has an estimated life of 8 years. It has no salvage value at the end of 8 years. The book value of the excavator at the end of 3 years using general double declining balance method is
A. Rs. 8,43,750/-
B. Rs. 8,75,000/-
C. Rs. 10,50,000/-
D. Rs. 11,56,250/- Answer: A
58. If the excavation of earth is done manually then it costs Rs. 10 per cum. A machine can excavate at a fixed cost of Rs. 4000 plus a variable cost of Rs. 2 per cum. The quantity of earth for which the cost of excavation by machine will be equal to the cost of manual excavation is
A. 500 cum
B. 1000 cum
C. 1500 cum
D. 2000 cum Answer: A
59. Which one of the following surfaces will give highest coefficient of traction while using crawler track tractors?
A. Ice
B. Concrete
C. Loose sand
D. Earth Answer: D
60. Rolling resistance of a wheel depends upon (i) Vehicle load (ii) Grade (iii) Ground conditions Of these statements
A. only (i) is correct
B. (i) and (ii) are correct
C. (i) and (iii) are correct
D. (ii) and (iii) are correct Answer: C
61. Which of the following surfaces will give highest rolling resistance for a rubber tyred vehicle?
A. Concrete
B. Loose sand
C. Asphalt
D. Firm earth Answer: B
62. If the gross vehicle weight of a truck is 30 t and rolling resistance is 30 kg/tonne, then the tractive effort required to keep the truck moving at a uniform speed is
A. 30 kg
B. 300 kg
C. 900 kg
D. 1000 kg Answer: C
63. The grade resistance factor for an earth moving machine can be obtained by multiplying grade percentage by a factor approximately equal to
A. 2 kg/tonne
B. 6 kg/tonne
C. 9 kg/tonne
D. 20 kg/tonne Answer: C
64. A wheeled tractor hauling unit is working on firm earth. The total loaded weight distribution of this unit is: Drive wheels : 25000 kg Scraper wheels : 10000 kg If the coefficient of traction for wheeled tractor on firm earth is 0.5, the rimpull which this tractor can exert without slipping is
A. 10000 kg
B. 12500 kg
C. 22500 kg
D. 5000 kg Answer: B
65. A four wheel trac*or whose operating weight is 12000 kg is pulled along a road having a rising slope of 2% at a uniform speed. Assume grade resistance factor = 10 kg/tonne. The tension in the tow cable is 720 kg. The rolling resistance of the road will be
A. 20 kg/tonne
B. 30 kg/tonne
C. 40 kg/tonne
D. 50 kg/tonne Answer: C
66. An earth moving equipment costs Rs. 5,00,000/- and has an estimated life of 10 years and a salvage value of Rs. 50,000/-.What uniform annual amount must be set aside at the end of each of the 10 years for replacement if the interest rate is 8% per annum and if the sinking fund factor at 8% per annum interest rate for 10 years is 0.069 ?
A. Rs. 31050
B. Rs. 34500
C. Rs. 37950
D. Rs. 50000 Answer: A
67. A machine costs Rs. 20000 and its useful life is 8 years. The money is borrowed at 8% interest per annum. The capital recovery factor at 8% interest per annum for 8 years is 0.174. The annual equipment cost of the machine will be
A. Rs.1740
B. Rs.3480
C. Rs.5220
D. Rs.6960 Answer: B
68. The probability of completion of any activity within its expected time is
A. 50%
B. 84.1%
C. 99.9%
D. 100% Answer: A
69. If the scheduled completion time of a project is more than the earliest expected time for completion of the project, then the probability of completion of the project within the scheduled completion time will be
A. 50%
B. less than 50%
C. more than 50%
D. 100% Answer: C
70. If the expected time for completion of a project is 10 days with a standard deviation of 2 days, the expected time of completion of the project with 99.9% probability is
A. 4 days
B. 6 days
C. 10 days
D. 16 days Answer: D
71. If the expected time of completion of a project is 60 weeks with a standard deviation of 5 weeks, the probability of completing the project in 50 weeks and 65 weeks respectively will be
A. 2.3% and 84.1%
B. 97.7% and 84.1%
C. 97.7 % and 15.9%
D. 15.9% and 97.7% Answer: A
72. A tractor shovel has a purchase price of Rs. 4.7 lacs and could save the organization an amount of rupees one lac per year on operating costs. The salvage value after the amortization period is 10% of the purchase price. The capital recovery period will be
A. 3.7 years
B. 4.23 years
C. 5 years
D. 7.87 years Answer: B
73. Consider the following statements: In the bar chart planning 1. interdependence of the operations cannot be portrayed. 2. progress of work can be measured. 3. spare time of the activities can be determined. 4. schedule cannot be updated. Of these statements
A. 1,2 and 3 are correct
B. 1 and 4 are correct
C. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2 and 4 are correct Answer: B
74. Consider the following statements : In the critical path method of construction planning, Free Float can be. 1. greater than Total Float. 2. greater than Independent Float 3. equal to Total Float. 4. less than Independent Float. Of these statements
A. 1 and 4 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 4 are correct
D. 1 and 2 are correct Answer: B
75. In time-cost optimization of a project, crashing is done.
A. on all the activities
B. on all the activities lying on the critical path
C. only on activities lying on the orginal critical path and having flatter cost slopes
D. on original critical activities and those that become critical at any stage of crashing in the order of ascending cost slope Answer: D
76. During the construction period, price variation clause in contracts caters to
A. increase in rates of only important materials
B. variation in cost in materials element, labour element and petrol-oil-lubricant element
C. variation in total cost of the project on an ad hoc basis
D. rate of inflation Answer: B
77. At a work site, statistical quality control of concrete means
A. measurement of risks to eliminate failures
B. applying the theory’ of probability to sample testing or inspection
C. reduction in wastage of inspection costs
D. reduction in costs for the removal of defects Answer: B
78. In India, are prefabricated components costlier than those of traditional cast-in-situ items that the prefabricated components replace?
A. Yes, because of heavier overheads and handling cost
B. Yes, because of the very high order of quality control for the factory made components
C. No, because of repetitive manufacture of a number of elements
D. No, because of savings in site labour Answer: C
79. Mobilization advance up to 10% of the cost of work is given to a contractor
A. on commencement of work at site for payment of loan taken by him
B. for the purchase of construction materials
C. for the payment of advances to labour and other staff
D. for all activities required to start the work at site on finalization of the contract document Answer: D
80. Sinking fund is
A. the fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
B. raised to meet maintenance costs
C. the total sum to be paid to the municipal authorities by the tenants
D. a part of the money kept in reserve for providing additional structures and structural modifications Answer: A
82. In resources levelling
A. total duration of project is reduced
B. total duration of project is increased
C. uniform demand of resources is achieved
D. cost of project is controlled Answer: C
83. The original cost of an equipment is Rs.10,000/-. Its salvage value at the end of its total useful life of five years is Rs. 1,000/-. Its book value at the end of two years of its useful life (as per straight line method of evaluation of depreciation) will be
A. Rs. 8,800/-
B. Rs. 7,600/-
C. Rs. 6,400/-
D. Rs. 5,000/- Answer: C
84. Consider the following features/factors : 1. Projects are of the non-repetitive type. 2. Time required need not be known. 3. Time required is known precisely. 4. Events have been established for planning. 5. Emphasis is given to activities of project. PERT is preferred for planning because of
A. 1,2 and 4
B. 3,4 and 5
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 5 Answer: A
85. Consider the following activities in a building construction: 1. Concreting of roof slabs 2. Brick-jelly lime concrete terracing 3. Erection of form work for slab 4. Construction of parapet wall in terrace The correct sequence of these activities is
A. 1,3,2,4
B. 3,1,4,2
C. 3,1,2,4
D. 1,3,4, 2 Answer: C
86. Consider the following operations : 1. Drilling 2. Blasting 3. Mucking 4. Placing steel 5. Placing concrete The correct sequence of these operations in tunnel construction is
A. 1,2,4,3,5
B. 1,3,2,4,5
C. 1,2,3,4,5
D. 1,3,4,2,5 Answer: C
87. For a given activity, the optimistic time, pessimistic time and the most probable estimates are 5, 17 and 8 days respectively, The expected time is
A. 8 days
B. 9 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days Answer: B
88. The maximum rimpull in the first gear of a tractor while towing a load is 6300 kg. The tractor weighs 12.5 tonnes and is operating along a 2 percent upgrade and the rolling resistance is 45 kg/tonne. Pull available for towing the load is
A. 3425 kg
B. 5515 kg
C. 4350 kg
D. 2975 kg Answer: B
89. Grader is used mainly for
A. trimming and finishing
B. shaping and trimming
C. finishing and shaping
D. finishing, shaping and trimming Answer: D
90. Which one of the following is not an excavating and moving type of equipment ?
A. Bulldozer
B. Clam shell
C. Scraper
D. Dump truck Answer: D
91. The most suitable type of equipment for compaction of cohesive soils is
A. Smooth-wheeled rollers
B. Vibratory rollers
C. Sheep foot rollers
D. Tampers Answer: C
92. For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the excavation equipment used is
A. Hoe
B. Shovel
C. Dragline
D. None of the above Answer: A
93. The basic action involved in sheep foot rolling is
A. Kneading
B. Pressing
C. Tamping
D. Vibration Answer: A
94. Batching refers to
A. controlling the total quantity at each batch
B. weighing accurately, the quantity of each material for a job before mixing
C. controlling the quantity of each material into each batch
D. adjusting the water to be added in each batch according to the moisture content of the materials being mixed in the batch Answer: C
95. Consider the following statements: Wheeled tractors are replacing crawler tractors because 1. wheeled tractors travel faster. 2. crawler tractors are more expensive. 3. track parts of a crawler wear out quickly. 4. crawler tractors have stick control. Of these statements
A. 1,3 and 4 are correct
B. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C. 1,2 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 4 are correct Answer: C
96. The rated loads of lifting cranes, as percentage of tipping load at specified radius, for crawler-mounted, and pneumatic tyremounted machines would be respectively
A. 80 and 90
B. 90 and 80
C. 85 and 75
D. 75 and 83 Answer: D
97. Sensitivity analysis is a study of
A. comparison of profit and loss
B. comparison of assets and liabilities
C. change in output due to change in input
D. economics of cost and benefits of the project Answer: C
98. In the time-cost optimisation, using CPM method for network analysis, the crashing of the activities along the critical path is done starting with the activity having
A. longest duration
B. highest cost slope
C. least cost slope
D. shortest duration Answer: C
99. Preliminary project report for a road project must contain
A. the detailed estimated cost based on detailed design
B. the several alternatives of the project that have been considered
C. the soil survey, traffic survey, concept design and approximate cost
D. the contract documents for inviting tenders Answer: C
Construction Planning and Management Objective Type Questions and Answers pdf free download ::
Basically, the purpose of the IMF was to (a) achieve the international advantages of the gold standard without subjecting nations to its internal disadvantages; and (b) achieve internal advantages of paper standard while avoiding its international disadvantages.
The main objectives of the Fund, as summarised in the Articles of Agreement, are as follows:
(i) To promote international monetary cooperation through a permanent institution that provides the machinery for consultation and collaboration on international monetary problems.
(ii) To facilitate the expansion and balanced growth of international trade, and to contribute thereby to the promotion and maintenance of high levels of employment and real income and to the development of the productive resources of all members as primary objectives of economic policy.
(iii) To promote exchange stability, to maintain orderly exchange arrangements among members, and to avoid competitive exchange depreciations.
(iv) To assist in the establishment of a multilateral system of payments in respect to current transactions between members and in the elimination of foreign exchange restrictions which hamper the growth of world trade?
(v) To give confidence to members by the Fund’s resources available to them under adequate safeguards, thus providing them with opportunity to correct maladjustments in their balance of payments without resorting to measures destructive of national or international prosperity.
(vi) In accordance with the above, to shorten the duration and lesson the degree of disequilibrium in the international balance of payments of members.
One of the basic objectives of the IMF was to establish reasonable exchange stability and to discourage fluctuations in the exchange rates. The main arrangements made by the Fund to ensure stability in the exchange rate are as given below:
(i) Each member country declares a par value of its currency in terms of gold as a common denominator or in terms of U.S. dollars.
(ii) Members agree to keep up the free convertibility of their currencies at not more than 1% above or below its par value.
(iii) When devaluation becomes necessary a member may devalue up to 10% by merely informing the Fund, but greater or subsequent change requires the approval of the governing body.
(iv) The fund may declare a currency scarce in which case it may be rationed out and the concerned country may even be asked to revalue and maintain imports.
(v) Members are forbidden to go in for multiple exchange rates.
(vi) Members are forbidden to buy or sell gold at prices other than the declared par value.
(vii) The fund acts as the international lender of the last resort and provides financial assistance to member countries to meet temporary deficits in their balance of payments.
1. Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure. Reason R : Higher distribution pressure causes more loss and waste of water. Select your answer according to the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true. Answer: a
2. The per capital consumption of a locality is affected by i) climatic conditions ii) quality of water iii) distribution pressure The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii) Answer: d
3. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?
a) use of metering system
b) good quality of water
c) better standard of living of the people
d) hotter climate Answer: a
4. The hourly variation factor is usually taken as
a) 1.5
b) 1.8
c) 2.0
d) 2.7 Answer: a
5. If the average daily consumption of a city is 100,000 m3, the maximum daily con¬sumption on peak hourly demand will be
a) 100000m3
b) 150000m3
c) 180000m3
d) 270000 m3 Answer: d
ENVIRONMENTAL Engineering Mcqs
6. The distribution mains are designed for
a) maximum daily demand
b) maximum hourly demand
c) average daily demand
d) maximum hourly demand on maxi¬mum day Answer: d
7. As compared to geometrical increase method of forecasting population, arithmetical increase method gives
a) lesser value
b) higher value
c) same value
d) accurate value Answer: a
8. The population of a town in three consecutive years are 5000, 7000 and 8400 respectively. The population of the town in the fourth consecutive year according to geometrical increase method is
a) 9500
b) 9800
c) 10100
d) 10920 Answer: d
9. The suitable method of forecasting popu¬lation for a young and rapidly increasing city is
a) arithmetical increase method
b) geometrical increase method
c) incremental increase method
d) graphical method Answer: b
10. The depression of water table in a well due to pumping will be maximum
a) at a distance R from the well
b) close to the well
c) at a distance R/2 from the well
d) none of the above
where R is the radius of influence Answer: b
11. The devices which are installed for drawing water from the sources are called
a) aquifers
b) aquiclude
c) filters
d) intakes Answer: d
12. Select the correct relationship between porosity (N), specific yield (y) and specific retention (R)
a) N = y + R
b) y = N + R
c) R = N + y
d) R > (N + y) Answer: a
13. The type of valve, which is provided on the suction pipe in a tube-well, is
a) air relief valve
b) reflux valve
c) pressure relief valve
d) sluice valve Answer: b
14. The maximum discharge of a tube-well is about
a) 5 litres/sec
b) 50 litres/sec
c) 500 litres/sec
d) 1000 litres/see Answer: b
15. As compared to shallow-wells, deep wells have
a) more depth
b) less depth
c) more discharge
d) less discharge Answer: c
16. Ground water is usually free from
a) suspended impurities
b) dissolved impurities
c) both suspended and dissolved impuri¬ties
d) none of the above Answer: a
17. The polluted water is one which
a) contains pathogenic bacteria
b) consists of undesirable substances rendering it unfit for drinking and domestic use
c) is safe and suitable for drinking and domestic use
d) is contaminated Answer: b
18. Which of the following is not a water borne disease ?
a) dysentery
b) cholera
c) typhoid
d) maleria Answer: d
19. The most common cause of acidity in water is
a) carbon dioxide
b) oxygen
c) hydrogen
d) nitrogen Answer: a
20. The phenolic compounds in public water supply should not be more than
a) 0.1 ppm
b) 0.01 ppm
c) 0.001 ppm
d) 0.0001 ppm Answer: c
21. The maximum permissible limit for flouride in drinking water is
a) 0.1 mg/litre
b) 1.5 mg/litre
c) 5 mg/litre
d) 10 mg/litre Answer: b
22. Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid) solution is used to determine the
a) hardness in water
b) turbidity in water
c) dissolved oxygen in water
d) residual chlorine in water Answer: a
23. If the coliform bacteria is present in a sample of water, then the coliform test to be conducted is
i) presumptive coliform test
ii) confirmed coliform test
iii) completed coliform test The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii) Answer: d
24. Alkalinity in water is expressed as milli-grams per litre in terms of equivalent
a) calcium carbonate
b) magnesium carbonate
c) sodium carbonate
d) calcium hydroxide Answer: a
25. Which of the following values of pH represents a stronger acid?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 7
d) 10 Answer: a
26. Turbidity is measured on
a) standard silica scale
b) standard cobalt scale
c) standard platinum scale
d) platinum cobalt scale Answer: a
28. On standard silica scale, the turbidity in drinking water should be limited to
a) 10 ppm
b) 20 ppm
c) 30 ppm
d) 50 ppm Answer: a
29. Residual chlorine in water is determined by
a) starch iodide method
b) orthotolidine method
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above Answer: c
30. Orthotolidine test is used for determination of
a) dissolved oxygen
b) residual chlorine
c) biochemical oxygen demand
d) dose of coagulant Answer: b
31. If the total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be equal to
a) total alkalinity
b) total hardness
c) total hardness – total alkalinity
d) non carbonate hardness Answer: a
32. The amount of residual chlorine left in public water supply for safety against pathogenic bacteria is about
a) 0.01 to 0.05 ppm
b) 0.05 to 0.5 ppm
c) 0.5 to 1.0 ppm
d) 1.0 to 5.0 ppm Answer: b
33. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is found to be of the order of
a) 1 mg/litre
b) 10 mg/litre
c) 100 mg/litre
d) 1000 mg/litre Answer: b
34. The velocity of flow of water in a sedimentation tank is about
a) 5 to 10 cm/sec.
b) 15 to 30 cm/sec.
c) 15 to 30 cm/minute
d) 15 to 30 cm/hour Answer: c
35. The length of rectangular sedimentation tank should not be more than
a) B
b) 2B
c) 4B
d) 8B
where B is the width of the tank Answer: c
36. The overflow rate for plain sedimentation tanks is about
a) 500 to 750 litres/hour/ m2
b) 1000 to 1250 litres/hour/ m2
c) 1250 to 1500 litres/hour/m2
d) 1500 to 2000 litres/hour/m2 Answer: a
37. Percentage of bacterial load that can be removed from water by the process of plain sedimentation is about
a) 10 to 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100 Answer: c
38. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank depends on
a) depth of tank
b) surface area of tank
c) both depth and surface area of tank
d) none of the above Answer: b
39. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank increases if
a) particle size is decreased
b) the surface area of tank is increased
c) the depth of tank is decreased
d) none of the above Answer: d
40. For a given discharge, the efficiency of sedimentation tank can be increased by
a) increasing the depth of tank
b) decreasing the depth of tank
c) increasing the surface area of tank
d) decreasing the surface area of tank Answer: c
41. The detention period and overflow rate respectively for plain sedimentation as compared to sedimentation with coagulation are generally
a) less and more
b) less and less
c) more and less
d) more and more Answer: c
42. The amount of coagulant needed for coagulation of water increases with
i) increase in turbidity of water
ii) decrease in turbidity of water
iii) increase in temperature of water
iv) decrease in temperature of water
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv) Answer: b
43. Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when pH range of water is
a) 2 to 4
b) 4 to 6
c) 6 to 8
d) 8 to 10 Answer: c
44. The detention period in coagulation tanks is usually kept as
a) 1 to 2 minutes
b) 30 to 45 minutes
c) 2 to 6 hours
d) 2 to 6 days Answer: c
45. The alum, when added as a coagulant in water
a) does not require alkalinity in water for flocculation
b) does not affect pH value of water
c) increases pH value of water
d) decreases pH value of water Answer: d
46. The chemical most commonly used to increase speed of sedimentation of sewage is
a) sulphuric acid
b) copper sulphate
c) lime
d) sodium permanganate Answer: c
47. In water treatment, rapid gravity filters are adopted to remove
a) dissolved organic substances
b) dissolved solids and dissolved gases
c) floating solids and dissolved inorganic solids
d) bacteria and colloidal solids Answer: d
48. The rate of filtration in slow sand filters in million litres per day per hectare is about
a) 50 to 60
b) 100 to 150
c) 500 to 600
d) 1400 to 1500 Answer: a
49. The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is
a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm
b) 0.35 to 0.60 mm
c) 0.60 to 1.00 mm
d) 1.00 to 1.80 mm Answer: a
50. As compared to rapid sand filters, slow sand filters give
i) slower filtration rate
ii) higher filtration rate
iii) lesser efficiency in removal of bacteria
iv) higher efficiency in removal of bacteria The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv) Answer: c
51. Assertion A: Slow sand filters are more efficient in removal of bacteria than rapid sand filters. Reason R : The sand used in slow sand filters is finer than that in rapid sand filters. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true. Answer: a
52. Air binding phenomena in rapid sand filters occur due to
a) excessive negative head
b) mud ball formation
c) higher turbidity in the effluent
d) low temperature Answer: a
53. The percentage of filtered water, which is used for backwashing in rapid sand filters, is about
a) 0.2 to 0.4
b) 0.4 to 1.0
c) 2 to 4
d) 5 to 7 Answer: c
54. Period of cleaning of slow sand filters is about
a) 24 – 48 hours
b) 10-12 days
c) 2-3 months
d) 1-2 year Answer: c
55. The rate of Alteration of pressure filters is
a) less than that of slow sand filters
b) in between the filtration rate of slow sand filters and rapid sand filters
c) greater than that of rapid sand filters
d) equal to that of slow sand filters Answer: c
56. Double filtration is used
a) to increase the filtration slow sand filters capacity of
b) to increase the filtration rapid sand filters capacity of
c) for isolated buildings like pools, hotels etc swimming
d) all of the above Answer: a
57. Cleaning is done by
i) scraping and removal in filters slow sand
ii) back washing in slow sand filters
iii) scraping and removal in filters rapid sand
iv) back washing in rapid sand filters
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv) Answer: c
58. Disinfection of water results in
a) removal of turbidity
b) removal of hardness
c) killing of disease bacteria
d) complete sterilisation Answer: c
59. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by i) decreasing the time of contact ii) decreasing the temperature of water iii) increasing the temperature of water The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) only (iii) Answer: d
60. Chlorine demand of water is equal to
a) applied chlorine
b) residual chlorine
c) sum of applied and residual chlorine
d) difference of applied and residual chlorine Answer: d
61. The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is known as
a) prechlorination
b) post chlorination
c) super chlorination
d) break point chlorination Answer: c
62. The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about
a) 10 to 15
b) 20 to 25
c) 30 to 35
d) 40 to 50 Answer: c
63. The treatment of water with bleaching powder is known as
a) prechlorination
b) super chlorination
c) dechlorination
d) hypochlorination Answer: d
64. The suitable method for disinfection of swimming pool water is
a) ultra violet rays treatment
b) lime treatment
c) by using potassium permanganate
d) chlorination Answer: a
65. Which of the following chemical compounds can be used for dechlorination of water ?
a) carbon dioxide
b) bleaching powder
c) sulphur dioxide
d) chloramines Answer: c
66. In chlorination, with the rise in temperature of water, death rate of bacteria
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
d) none of the above Answer: a
67. As compared to higher pH values, the contact period required for efficient chlorination at lower pH values is
a) smaller
b) larger
c) same
d) none of the above Answer: a
68. Disinfection efficiency is
a) reduced at higher pH value of water
b) unaffected by pH value of water
c) increased at higher pH value of water
d) highest at pH value equal to 7 Answer: a
69. In lime-soda process
a) only carbonate hardness is removed
b) only non-carbonate hardness is re-moved
c) lime reduces the carbonate hardness and soda-ash removes the non-carbo¬nate hardness
d) lime reduces the non-carbonate hard-ness and soda-ash removes the carbo¬nate hardness Answer: c
70. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that
a) it is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water
b) huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem
c) the effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness
d) it is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness Answer: b
71. Which of the following compounds is widely used for algae control ?
a) sodium sulphate
b) copper sulphate
c) sodium chloride
d) calcium chloride Answer: b
72. Activated carbon is used for
a) disinfection
b) removing hardness
c) removing odours
d) removing corrosiveness Answer: c
73. As compared to cast iron pipes, steel pipes are
a) heavier
b) stronger
c) costlier
d) less susceptible to corrosion Answer: b
74. The suitable layout of a distribution system for irregularly growing town is
a) dead end system
b) grid iron system
c) radial system
d) ring system Answer: a
75. The layout of distribution system in which water flows towards the outer periphery is
a) ring system
b) dead end system
c) radial system
d) grid iron system Answer: c
76. The suitable layout of distribution system for a city with roads of rectangular pattern is
a) grid iron system
b) dead end system
c) ring system
d) radial system Answer: a
77. The commonly used material for water supply pipes, which has the properties of being strong, not easily corroded and long life but is heavy and brittle is
a) steel
b) cast iron
c) copper
d) reinforced cement concrete Answer: b
78. Hardy cross method of analysis of distribution system
i) involves successive trials
ii) takes economic aspects into account
iii) is time consuming
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) all are correct Answer: c
79. The method of analysis of distribution system in which the domestic supply is neglected and fire demand is considered is
a) circle method
b) equivalent pipe method
c) electrical analysis method
d) Hardy cross method Answer: a
80. Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is most suitable for long and narrow pipe system ?
a) circle method
b) equivalent pipe method
c) Hardy cross method
d) electrical analysis method Answer: b
81. The type of valve which is provided to control the flow of water in the distribution system at street corners and where the pipe lines intersect is
a) check valve
b) sluice valve
c) safety valve
d) scour valve Answer: b
82. The type of valve which allows water to flow in one direction but prevents its flow in the reverse direction is
a) reflux valve
b) sluice valve
c) air relief valve
d) pressure relief valve Answer: a
83. Scour valves are provided
a) at street corners to control the flow of water
b) at every depression and dead ends to drain out the waste water that may collect there
c) at the foot of rising main along the slope to prevent back running of water
d) at every summit of rising mains Answer: b
84. A sewer that receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called
a) house sewer
b) lateral sewer
c) intercepting sewer
d) submain sewer Answer: b
85. A pipe conveying sewage from plumbing system of a single building to common sewer or point of immediate disposal is called
a) house sewer
b) lateral sewer
c) main sewer
d) submain sewer Answer: a
86. For a country like India, where rainfall is mainly confined to one season, the suitable sewerage system will be
a) separate system
b) combined system
c) partially combined system
d) partially separate system Answer: a
87. Average rate of water consumption per head per day as per Indian Standard is
a) 100 litres
b) 135 litres
c) 165 litres
d) 200 litres Answer: b
88. Sewerage system is usually designed for
a) 10 years
b) 25 years
c) 50 years
d) 75 years Answer: b
89. Which of the following sewers is preferred for combined system of sewage ?
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) rectangular sewer
d) none of the above Answer: b
90. The suitable system of sanitation for area of distributed rainfall throughout the year with less intensity is
a) separate system
b) combined system
c) partially separate system
d) partially combined system Answer: b
91. The water carriage system of collection of waste product
a) is cheaper in initial cost than dry conservancy system
b) requires treatment before disposal
c) creates hygenic problem
d) all of the above Answer: b
92. If the time of concentration is 9 minutes, then the intensity of rainfall according to British Ministry of Health formula will be
a) 4 mm/hr
b) lOmm/hr
c) 20 mm/hr
d) 40 mm/hr Answer: d
93. The time of concentration is defined as
a) the time taken by rainfall water to run from most distant point of water shed to the inlet of sewer
b) the time required for flow of water in sewer to the point under consideration
c) sum of (a) and (b)
d) difference of (a) and (b) Answer: c
94. The specific gravity of sewage is
a) much greater than 1
b) slightly less than 1
c) equal to 1
d) slightly greater than 1 Answer: d
95. The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually
a) less than 1.0 m/sec
b) 1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec
c) 1.5 m/sec to 2.0 m/sec
d) 3.0 m/sec to 3.5 m/sec Answer: b
96. The slope of sewer shall be
a) given in the direction of natural slope of ground
b) given in the direction opposite to natural slope of ground
c) zero
d) steeper than 1 in 20 Answer: a
97. The design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to dry weather flow (DWF)
b) 2xDWF
c) 3 x DWF
d) 6xDWF Answer: d
98. The design discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to rainfall
b) rainfall + DWF
c) rainfall + 2 DWF
d) rainfall + 6 DWF Answer: c
99. The minimum and maximum diameters of sewers shall preferably be
a) 15 cm and 100 cm
b) 15 cm and 300 cm
c) 30 cm and 450 cm
d) 60 cm and 300cm Answer: b
100. The main disadvantage of cement concrete sewers is
a) less strength
b) difficulty in construction
c) difficulty in transportation due to heavy weight
d) less life Answer: c
101. Most suitable section of sewer in separate sewage system is
a) rectangular section
b) circular section
c) standard form of egg shaped sewer
d) modified egg shaped section Answer: b
102. An egg shaped section of sewer
a) is economical than circular section
b) provides self cleansing velocity at low discharges
c) is more stable than circular section
d) is easy to construct Answer: b
103. The velocity of flow does not depend on
a) grade of sewer
b) length of sewer
c) hydraulic mean depth of sewer
d) roughness of sewer Answer: b
104. The hydraulic mean depth (HMD) for an egg-shaped sewer flowing two-third full is
a) equal to HMD when flowing full
b) less than HMD when flowing full
c) greater than HMD when flowing full
d) none of the above Answer: c
105. The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is
a) to decrease it
b) to increase it
c) fluctuating
d) nil Answer: b
106. The most commonly used sewer under culverts is
a) circular brick sewer
b) circular cast iron sewer
c) semi-elliptical sewer
d) horse-shoe type sewer Answer: a
107. The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) horse-shoe type sewer
d) semi-elliptical sewer Answer: b
108. The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage respectively are
a) acidic and alkaline
b) alkaline and acidic
c) both acidic
d) both alkaline Answer: b
109. The pathogens can be killed by
a) nitrification
b) chlorination
c) oxidation
d) none of the above Answer: b
110. Which of the following retards the self purification of stream ?
a) higher temperature
b) sunlight
c) satisfying oxygen demand
d) none of the above Answer: d
111. Sewage treatment units are normally designed for
a) 5-10 years
b) 15-20 years
c) 30-40 years
d) 40-50 years Answer: b
112. Settling velocity increases with
a) specific gravity of solid particles
b) size of particles
c) depth of tank
d) temperature of liquid Answer: c
113. Standard BOD is measured at
a) 20°C – 1day
b) 25°C- 3day
c) 20°C – 5day
d) 30°C- 5day Answer: c
114. The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by
a) TOD>BOD>COD
b) TOD>COD>BOD
c) BOD>COD>TOD
d) COD>BOD>TOD Answer: b
115. Select the correct statement.
a) 5 day BOD is the ultimate BOD.
b) 5 day BOD is greater than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
c) 5 day BOD is less than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
d) BOD does nof depend on time. Answer: c
116. If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per capita per day is 0.05 kg, then population equivalent of town is
a) 1000
b) 4000
c) 100000
d) 400000 Answer: d
117. The rate of BOD exerted at any time is
a) directly proportional to BOD satisfied
b) directly proportional to BOD remain-ing ,
c) inversely proportional to BOD satisfied
d) inversely proportional to BOD re-maining Answer: b
118. The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate BOD is about
a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 3/4
d) 1.0 Answer: b
119. In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen concentration of diluted sample at the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end of 5 day incubation at 20°C. The BOD of raw sewage will be
a) 100 ppm
b) 200 ppm
c) 300 ppm
d) 400 ppm Answer: b
120. The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to save the aquatic life is
a) 1 ppm
b) 4 ppm
c) 10 ppm
d) 40 ppm Answer: b
121. The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the total oxygen required to satisfy BOD, is
a) 1
b) 100
c) infinite
d) zero Answer: b
122. Dissolved oxygen in streams is
a) maximum at noon
b) minimum at noon
c) maximum at midnight
d) same throughout the day Answer: a
123. Facultative bacteria are able to work in
a) presence of oxygen only
b) absence of oxygen only
c) presence as well as in absence of oxygen
d) presence of water Answer: c
124. The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as
a) inlet
b) manhole
c) drop manhole
d) catch basin Answer: b
125. Sewerage system is designed for
a) maximum flow only
b) minimum flow only
c) average flow only
d) maximum and minimum flow Answer: d
126. Sewage treatment units are designed for
a) maximum flow only
b) minimum flow only
c) average flow only
d) maximum and minimum flow Answer: c
127. Laying of sewers is usually done with the help of
a) a theodolite
b) a compass
c) sight rails and boning rods
d) a plane table Answer: c
128. Corrosion in concrete sewers is caused by
a) septic conditions
b) dissolved oxygen
c) chlorine
d) nitrogen Answer: a
129. If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in
a) grit chambers
b) detritus tanks
c) skimming tanks
d) sedimentation tanks Answer: c
130. Generally the detention period for grit chambers is kept as
a) 1 minute
b) 5 minutes
c) 2-4 hours
d) 12 hours Answer: a
131. Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?
a) sludge digestion tank
b) sedimentation tank
c) activated sludge treatment
d) trickling filters Answer: a
132. Septic tank is a i) settling tank ii) digestion tank iii) aeration tank The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i) and (ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) only (iii) Answer: b
133. The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is achieved in
a) oxidation pond
b) oxidation ditch
c) aerated lagoons
d) trickling filters Answer: b
134. The working conditions in imhoff tanks are
a) aerobic only
b) anaerobic only
c) aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment
d) anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment Answer: d
135. In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by
a) aerobic bacteria only
b) algae only
c) dual action of aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria
d) sedimentation Answer: c
136. The detention period for oxidation ponds is usually kept as
a) 4-8 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 10 to 15 days
d) 3 months Answer: c
137. Composting and lagooning are the methods of
a) sludge digestion
b) sludge disposal
c) sedimentation
d) filtration Answer: b
138. The main disadvantage of oxidation pond is that
a) large area is required for construction
b) maintenance and operation cost are high
c) BOD removal is very low
d) none of the above Answer: a
139. For satisfactory working of a sludge digestion unit, the pH range of digested sludge should be maintained as
a) 4.5 to 6.0
b) 6.5 to 8.0
c) 8.5 to 10.0
d) 10.5 to 12.0 Answer: b
140. Sludge volume index is defined as the ratio of
a) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of suspended solids by weight
b) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of total solids by weight
c) percentage of suspended solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
d) percentage of total solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume Answer: a
141. For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is
a) 0 to 50
b) 50 to 150
c) 150 to 350
d) 350 to 500 Answer: c
142. When there is no recirculation of sewage, then recirculation factor is
a) 0
b) 1
c) infinity
d) none of the above Answer: b
143. For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 96% will be
a) X/4
b) X/2
c) X
d) 2X Answer: b
144. A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is called
a) vent pipe
b) antisiphonage pipe
c) waste pipe
d) soil pipe Answer: b
145. In the two-pipe system of house plumbing, the pipes required are
a) one soil pipe, one waste pipe and one vent pipe
b) one soil pipe, two waste pipes and one vent pipe Answer: c
146. The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms, kitchens etc. is called
a) waste pipe
b) soil pipe
c) vent pipe
d) antisiphonage pipe Answer: a
147. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of
a) nitrogen
b) carbon dioxide
c) hydrogen sulphide
d) methane Answer: d
148. Most of the bacteria in sewage are
a) parasitic
b) saprophytic
c) pathogenic
d) anaerobic Answer: b
149. The process of lagooning is primarily a means of
a) reducing the excessive flow in sewers
b) disposing of sludge
c) increasing the capacity of storage re-servoirs
d) increasing flow of sewage through imhoff tanks Answer: b
150. The biochemical treatment of sewage effluents is essentially a process of
a) oxidation
b) dehydration
c) reduction
d) alkalinization Answer: a
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The resources of the IMF are subscribed by the members. The subscription quota of each member is based on its national income and its position in the international trade.
Every member nation must contribute 25% of its quota in international reserve assets and the remaining 75% in its own currency. The payment of 25% part of the quota was originally in gold, but now it is in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs).
SDRs are an international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969. The Fund may also enlarge its resources by borrowing, by selling gold to the public and by receiving fee from the borrowing members.
Quota of a member nation is significant because of its implications as given below:
(i) It determines a member’s subscription to the IMF, which, m turn, determines the magnitude of the IMF resources and their composition in terms of gold and national currencies.
(ii) It determines a country’s access to IMF resources through drawings or borrowing from the Fund.
(iii) It determines a country’s voting power in the IMF management.
(iv) It determines the share of a member country in the allocation of S.D.Rs.
