[12 Class Notes] MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE – Biology CBSE

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE – Biology CBSE :-

Structure of DNA:
Watson and Crick proposed a double helical model for DNA, based on X-ray crystallography of the molecule.  Each strand (helix) is a polymer of nucleotides, each nucleotide consisting of a deoxyribose sugar, a nitrogen base and a phosphate.  The sugar – phosphate chain is on the outside and act as back bone and the bases are on the inside (like in ladder).  The two strands are held together by weak hydrogen bonds between the nitrogen bases.  A purine base, always pairs with a pyrimidine base, i.e., adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T) and guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C).  So the two strands are complementary to each other and run in antiparallel direction with one chain having 5’ – 3’ orientation and the other having a 3’ – 5’ orientation.  The purine and pyrimidine bases are stacked 0.34 nm apart in the chain and the helix makes a turn after ten base pairs, i.e., 3.4 nm.

Central dogma of molecular biology:
Crick proposed the Central dogma in molecular biology, which states that the genetic information flows from DNA à RNA à Protein.  In some viruses like retroviruses, the flow of information is in reverse direction, that is from RNA à DNA à mRNA à Protein.

Packaging of DNA helix:
In prokaryotes, negatively charged DNA is held with some positively charged proteins and form as nucleoid.

In eukaryotes, negatively charged DNA is held with positively charged proteins called Histones (octomer) and form a structure called Nucleosome.

The search for Genetic Material:

1. Bacterial Transformation (Transforming Principle) :
Fredrick Griffith conducted his experiment on Streptococcus pneumoniae, the pneumonia causing bacterium.  He observed that there are two strains of this bacterium, one forming smooth colonies (S-type) with capsule (virulent) and the other forming rough colonies (R – type)  without capsule (avirulent).

Experiment:
a)         Smooth type bacteria were injected into mice. These mice died as a result of pneumonia caused by bacteria.

b)         Rough type bacteria were injected into mice.  These mice lived and pneumonia was not produced.

c)          Smooth type bacteria which normally cause disease were heat killed and then injected into the mice.  The mice lived and pneumonia was not caused.

d)         Rough type bacteria (living) and heat killed S-type were injected together into mice.  The mice died due to pneumonia and virulent smooth type living bacteria could also be recovered from their bodies.

This indicates that some factor from the dead S-cells converted the live R-cells into S-cells (transformation).

Later Avery, MacLeod and McCarty (1944) found out that when DNA isolated from the heat killed S-cells was added to R-cells in a culture, the R-cells changed into S-cells and pathogenic.

Evidence from experiments with bacteriophage:
This experiment was devised by Hershey and Chase with two different preparations of T2 phage.  In one preparation, the protein part was made radioactive and in the other, nucleic acid (DNA) was made radioactive.  These two phage preparations were allowed to infect the culture of E.coli. Soon after infection, before lysis of cells, the E.coli cells were gently agitated in a blender, to loosen the adhering phage particles and the culture was centrifuged.  The heavier infected bacterial cells pelleted to the bottom and the lighter viral particles were present in the supernatant.  It was found that when T2 phage containing radioactive DNA was used to infect E.coli, the pellet contained radioactivity.  If T2phage containing radioactive protein coat was used to infect E.coli, the supernatant contained most of the radioactivity.  This suggests that during infection by the virus, the viral DNA enters the bacterial cell and that has the information for the production of more viral particles.  It proves that DNA and not proteins, is the genetic material in bacteriophage.

Properties of Genetic Material:
a)      It should be able to generate its replica (replication)

b)      It should chemically and structurally be stable.

c)       It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution.

d)      It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian Characters’.

Replication:
The Watson – Crick model of DNA immediately suggested that the two strands of DNA should separate.  Each separated or parent strand now serves as a template (model) for the formation of a new but complementary strand.  Thus, the new or daughter DNA molecules formed would be made of one old or parental strand and another newly formed complementary strand.  This method of formation of new daughter DNA molecules is called semi-conservative method of replication.

The Experimental Proof:
Meselson and Stahl conducted an experiment to prove that DNA replication is semi conservative.  They grew bacterium E. coli in a medium containing nitrogen salts (15NH4Cl)  labeled with radioactive  15N.  15N was incorporated into both the strands of DNA and such a DNA was heavier than the DNA obtained from E.coli grown on a medium containing 14N. Then they transferred the E.coli cells on to a medium containing 14N.  After one generation, when one bacterial cell has multiplied into two, they isolated the DNA and evaluated its density.  Its density was intermediate between that of the heavier 15N-DNA and the lighter 14N-DNA.  This is because during replication, new DNA molecule with one 15N-old strand and a complementary 14N-new strand was formed (semi-conservative replication) and so its density is intermediate between the two.

Mechanism of DNA replication:
The intertwined DNA strands start separating from a particular point called origin of replication (single in prokaryotes and many in eukaryotes).  This unwinding is catalysed by enzymes called Helicases.  Enzymes called Topoisomerases break and reseal one of the strands of DNA, so that the unwound strands will not wind back.  When the double stranded DNA is unwound upto a point, it shows a Y-shaped structure called Replication Fork.  Enzyme DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses the joining of Deoxyribonucleotides (A, G, C and T) in the 5’ – 3’ direction.  The enzyme forms one new strand in a continuous stretch (leading strand) in the 5’ – 3’ direction, on one of the template strands.  On the other template strand, the enzyme forms short stretches (discontinuous) strand of DNA also in the 5’ – 3’. The discontinuous fragments are later joined by DNA-ligase to form a leading strand.  The two strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between nucleotides.

Transcription:
Transcription is the process by which DNA gives rise to RNA. It can also be defined as, the process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as Transcription.

Transcription Unit:
A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in the DNA;

  • A Promoter
  • The Structural gene
  • A Terminator

 
Mechanism of Transcription:
Transcription involves the binding of RNA-polymerase at the promoter site on DNA.  As it moves along (through structural gene), the DNA unwinds and one of the two strands acts as template to synthesize a meaningful RNA and other strand act as non-coding.  A complementary RNA strand is synthesized with A, U, C and G as bases.  RNA synthesis is terminated when the RNA-polymerase falls off a Terminator sequence on the DNA.


Transcription Unit and the Gene:
A gene is defined as the functional unit of inheritance.  In eukaryotes, DNA consists of both coding and non-coding sequences of nucleotides.  The coding sequences / expressed sequences are defined as Exons.  Exons are said to be those sequence that appear in mature / processed RNA.  These exons are interrupted by non-coding sequences called Introns.  These introns do not appear in mature RNA.

Types of RNA:
In prokaryotes, a single RNA polymerase enzyme (composed of different subunits) catalyses the synthesis of all types of RNA(mRNA, tRNA and rRNA) in bacteria.

Where as in eukaryotes, there are three different RNA polymerase enzymes I, II and III, they catalyse the synthesis of all types of RNA.

RNA polymerase I –    rRNAs

RNA polymerase II –   mRNA

RNA polymerase III – tRNA

Process of transcription in Prokaryotes:
RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription.  RNA polymerase associates with initiation factor and termination factor to initiate and terminate the transcription respectively.  In prokaryotes, since the mRNA does not require any processing, the transcription and translation take place in the same compartment and can be coupled.

Process of transcription in Eukaryotes:
In eukaryotes, the primary RNA contains both the exons and introns and is non-functional.  Hence, these non-coding introns will be removed by the process called Splicing. Then this mature RNA undergoes Capping (addition of unusual nucleotide methyl guanosine triphosphate at 5’ –end) and Tailing (addition of adenylate residues at 3’ –end).  Now, this fully matured RNA will be transported out of the nucleus for translation.

Genetic Code:
Genetic code refers to the relationship between the sequence of nucleotides (nitrogen bases) on mRNA and the sequence of amino acids in proteins.  Each code is known as Codon with three nucleotides (triplet). It has been deciphered by Nirenberg, Khorana, Severo Ochoa and Crick.

Salient features of Genetic code:

 

  • The codon is triplet.  61 codons code for 20 different amino acids and 3 codons do not code for any amino acids, hence they function as Stop codons (UAG, UGA and UAA).
  • One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence, it is unambiguous and specific.
  • Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate.
  • The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion.  There are no punctuations.
  • The code is nearly universal.  For example, from bacteria to human, UUU would code for Phenylalanine (phe) amino acid.
  • AUG has dual function. It codes for Methionine (met), and it also act as Initiator codon.


Mutations and Genetic Code:

Mutation caused due to insertion / deletion of single base pair is known as Point mutation.  Effect of point mutations that inserts or deletes a base in structural gene can be better understood by following simple example;

Consider a statement that is made up of the following words each having three letters like genetic code;

RAM      HAS       RED        CAP

If we insert a letter B in between HAS and RED and rearrange the statement, it would read as follows;

RAM      HAS       BRE        DCA       P

Similarly, if we now insert two letters at the same place, say BI’.  Now it would read,

RAM      HAS       BIR         EDC        AP

Now we insert three letters together, say BIG, the statement would read,

RAM      HAS       BIG         RED        CAP

The conclusion is, insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of insertion or deletion.  Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases insert or delete one or multiple codon hence one or multiple amino acids, and reading frame remains unaltered from that point onwards.  Such mutations are referred to as Frame-shift insertion or deletion mutations.

Structure of t-RNA : The Adapter Molecule:

tRNA molecule appears like a clover leaf , but in actual structure, the tRNA is a compact molecule which looks like inverted L.

tRNA has three loops,

a)      an anticodon loop that has bases complementary to the codon.

b)      An amino acid accepter end to which it binds to amino acids.

c)       Ribosomal binding loop.

tRNAs are specific for each amino acid.  There are no tRNAs for stop codons.

Translation: It refers to the process of polymerization of amino acids to form a polypeptide.  The order and sequence of amino acids are defined by the sequence of bases in the mRNA.  The amino acids are joined by a bond which is known as a peptide bond.

It involves four steps namely

  • Activation of amino acids (charging of tRNA / aminoacylation of tRNA)
  • Initiation of polypeptide synthesis
  • Elongation of polypeptide synthesis
  • Termination of polypeptide synthesis


a)       Activation of amino acids:  In this process, a particular amino acid binds to a specific tRNA molecule.

b)       Initiation of polypeptide chain:  The initiator methionyl-tRNA charged with amino acid methionine and anticodon UAC interacts with the initiation codon by codon-anticodon interaction.  With the initiator methionyl-tRNA at P site, the larger subunit binds to the smaller subunit, thus forming an initiation complex.

c)        Elongation of polypeptide chain:  A second tRNA charged with an appropriate amino acid enters the ribosome at the A site, close to the P site.  A peptide bond is formed between the first amino acid and the second amino acid.  Then the first tRNA is removed from the P-site and the second tRNA at the A site, now carrying a dipeptide, is pulled along with mRNA to the P-site (translocation).  Now the A-site is occupied by a third codon and an appropriate aminoacyl tRNA will bind to it.  This process of peptide bond formation and translocation will be repeated and the polypeptide chain grows in length.

d)       Termination of polypeptide chain:  When untranslated regions / termination codons come at the A-site, no amino acid would be added, as it is not recognized by any tRNA.  So protein synthesis will stop.  At the end, a release factor binds to the stop codon, terminating translation and releasing the complete polypeptide from the ribosome.

Regulation of Gene Expression:
All the genes are not needed constantly.  The genes needed only sometimes are called regulatory genes and are made to function only when required and remain non-functional at other times.  Such regulated genes, therefore required to be switched ‘on’ or ‘off’ when a particular function is to begin or stop.

The Lac operon:

Jacob and Monod (1961) proposed a model of gene regulation, known as operon model.  Operon is a co-ordinated group of genes such as structural genes, operator genes, promoter genes, regulater genes and repressor which function or transcribed together and regulate a metabolic pathway as a unit.

There are three structural genes, lac Z, lac Y and lac A, coding for galactosidase, permease and transacetylase respectively.  These three genes are controlled by a single switch called operator.  The operator switch is controlled by the repressor protein which coded by the regulator gene.

When the repressor binds to the operator, the genes are not expressed (switched off).  When the operator switch is on, the three structural genes transcribe a long polycistronic mRNA catalysed by RNA – polymerase.

A few molecules of lactose (inducer) enter the cell by the action o enzyme permease.  They are converted into an active form of lactose which binds to the repressor and changes its configuration and prevents it from binding to the operator.  Beta-galactosidase breaks lactose into glucose and galactose.  (Fig. Text book p.117).

Human Genome Project:

Goals of HGP:

  • Identify all the approximately 20,000-25,000 genes in human DNA;
  • Determine the sequences of the 3 billion chemical base pairs that make up human DNA
  • Store this information in databases;
  • Improve tools for data analysis;
  • Transfer related technologies to other sectors, such as industries.


Methodologies:
The methods involved two major approaches.  One approach focused on identifying all the genes that expressed as RNA referred as Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs). The other approach is blind approach of simply sequencing the whole set of genome that contained all the coding and non-coding sequence, and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions, referred as Sequence Annotation.

Steps involved in sequencing:
a)      Isolation of total DNA from a cell and converted into random fragments.

b)      Cloning of DNA fragments can be performed by using cloning vectors like BAC (Bacterial Artificial chromosomes) and YAC (yeast artificial chromosomes).

c)       The fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequencers that worked on the principle of a method developed by Frederick Sanger.

d)      These sequences were then arranged based on some overlapping regions present in them.

Salient features of Human Genome:
a)      The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.

b)      The average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes vary greatly, with the largest known human gene being dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.

c)       Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins.

d)      Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.

e)      Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA sequences that are repeated many times, sometimes hundred to thousand times.

f)       Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the Y has the fewest (231).

g)      Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single base DNA differences (SNPs – single nucleotide polymorphism) occur in humans.

  DNA Fingerprinting:
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA, because in these sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times.  These repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during density gradient centrifugation.  The bulk DNA forms a major peak and the other small peaks are referred to as satellite DNA.  These sequence show high degree of polymorphism (variation at genetic level) and form the basis of DNA fingerprinting.

                Polymorphism can be defined as, an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high frequency, it is referred to as DNA polymorphism.

The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys.  He used a satellite DNA as probe that shows very high degree of polymorphism.  It was called Variable Number of Tandem Repeats (VNTRs).
Mechanism of DNA fingerprinting :
Extraction:  DNA is extracted from the small amounts of blood, semen or hair bulbs available.

Amplification:  Many copies of this DNA are made by a technique called Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).

Restriction Digestion:  DNA is cut into desired reproducible segments using restriction enzymes.

Separation:  These DNA sequences (restriction fragments) are separated by Gel Electrophoresis.

Southern Blotting:  The separated DNA sequences are transferred from Gel onto a nitrocellulose membrane.

Hybridisation with probe, the DNA sequence complementary to VNTR sequences.

Exposure of the membrane to X-ray film, whose specific bands are developed.

Applications:

It is used effectively in forensic science for identifying;

a)      the biological father (in case of paternity disparity)

b)      the criminals such as murderers and rapists.

300+ TOP Control Systems Objective Questions and Answers MCQs

CONTROL SYSTEMS Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. In an open loop control system
A. Output is independent of control input
B. Output is dependent on control input
C. Only system parameters have effect on the control output
D. None of the above
Answer: A

2. For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect ?
A. Less expensive
B. Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
C. Construction is simple and maintenance easy
D. Errors are caused by disturbances
Answer: B

3. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as
A. Closed loop system
B. Semiclosed loop system
C. Open system
D. None of the above
Answer: A

4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the system will
A. decrease
B. increase
C. be unaffected
D. any of the above
Answer: A

5. Which of the following is an open loop control system ?
A. Field controlled D.C. motor
B. Ward leonard control
C. Metadyne
D. Stroboscope
Answer: A

6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system ?
A. Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
B. Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
C. Less expensive
D. Generally free from problems of non-linearities
Answer: B

7. In open loop system
A. the control action depends on the size of the system
B. the control action depends on system variables
C. the control action depends on the input signal
D. the control action is independent of the output
Answer: D

8. has tendency to oscillate.
A. Open loop system
B. Closed loop system
C. Both A. and B.
D. Neither A. nor B.
Answer: B

9. A good control system has all the following features except
A. good stability
B. slow response
C. good accuracy
D. sufficient power handling capacity
Answer: B

10. A car is raining at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the feedback element for the driver ?
A. Clutch
B. Eyes
C. Needle of the speedometer
D. Steering wheel
E. None of the above
Answer: C

CONTROL SYSTEMS Objective Questions
CONTROL SYSTEMS Objective Questions

11. The initial response when tne output is not equal to input is called
A. Transient response
B. Error response
C. Dynamic response
D. Either of the above
Answer: A

12. A control system working under unknown random actions is called
A. computer control system
B. digital data system
C. stochastic control system
D. adaptive control system
Answer: C

13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.
A. open
B. closed
C. partially closed
D. any of the above
Answer: A

14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
A. feedback
B. stimulus
C. signal
D. gain control
Answer: B

15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the following ?
A. Servomechanism
B. Feedback
C. Output pattern
D. Input pattern
Answer: B

16 is a part of the human temperature control system.
A. Digestive system
B. Perspiration system
C. Ear
D. Leg movement
Answer: B

17. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a path ?
A. Brain
B. Hands
C. Legs
D. Eyes
Answer: D

18. is a closed loop system.
A. Auto-pilot for an aircraft
(6) Direct current generator
C. Car starter
D. Electric switch
Answer: A

19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors in instruments ?
A. Vernistats
B. Microsyns
C. Resolvers
D. Any of the above
Answer: D

20. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable ?
A. The gain of the system should be decreased
B. The gain of the system should be increased
C. The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
D. The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
Answer: B

21. increases the steady state accuracy.
A. Integrator
B. Differentiator
C. Phase lead compensator
D. Phase lag compensator
Answer: A

22. A.C. servomotor resembles
A. two phase induction motor
B. Three phase induction motor
C. direct current series motor
D. universal motor
Answer: A

23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease ?
A. Band width
B. Overall gain
C. Distortion
D. Instability
Answer: A

24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with
A. oscillations
B. step input
C. negative sign
D. positive sign
Answer: D

25. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of
A. reference and output
B. reference and input
E. input and feedback signal
D. output and feedback signal
Answer: A

26. is an open loop control system.
A. Ward Leonard control
B. Field controlled D.C. motor
C. Stroboscope
D. Metadyne
Answer: B

27. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from
A. saturation in amplifying stages
B. loss of gain
C. vibrations
D. oscillations
Answer: A

28. Zero initial condition for a system means
A. input reference signal is zero
B. zero stored energy
C. ne initial movement of moving parts
D. system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
Answer: D

29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the following ?
A. The order of the system
B. The time constant
C. The output for any given input
D. The steady state gain
Answer: C

30. The band width, in a feedback amplifier.
A. remains unaffected
B. decreases by the same amount as the gain increase
C. increases by the sane saaaajajt as the gain decrease
D. decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease
Answer: C

31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes and
load disturbances depend ?
A. Frequency
B. Loop gain
C. Forward gain
D. All of the above
Answer: D

32. The transient response, with feedback system,
A. rises slowly
B. rises quickly
C. decays slowly
D. decays quickly
Answer: D

33. The second derivative input signals modify which of the following ?
A. The time constant of the system
B. Damping of the system
C. The gain of the system
D. The time constant and suppress the oscillations
E. None of the above
Answer: D

34. Which of the following statements is correct for any closed loop system ?
A. All the co-efficients can have zero value
(6) All the co-efficients are always non-zero
C. Only one of the static error co-efficients has a finite non-zero value
D. None of the above
Answer: C

35. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero ?
A. The system is relatively stable
B. The system is highly stable
C. The system is highly oscillatory
D. None of the above
Answer: C

36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control systems should be avoided ?
A. It leads to slow speed of response
B. It leads to low relative stability
C. Noise is proportional to band width
D. None of the above
Answer: C

37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ?
A. Underdamping
B. Overdamping
C. Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
D. Low-level oscillations
Answer: D

38. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ?
A. Error detector
B. Final control element
C. Sensor
D. Oscillator
Answer: D

39. In a control system the output of the controller is given to
A. final control element
B. amplifier
C. comparator
D. sensor
E. none of the above
Answer: A

40. A controller, essentially, is a
A. sensor
B. clipper
C. comparator
D. amplifier
Answer: C

41. Which of the following is the input to a controller ?
A. Servo signal
B. Desired variable value
C. Error signal
D. Sensed signal
Ans:

42. The on-off controller is a _____ system.
A. digital
B. linear
C. non-linear
D. discontinuous
Ans:

43. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to
A. momentum
B. velocity
C. displacement
D. mass
Answer: D

44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is considered analogous to
A. voltage
B. current
C. capacitance
D. charge
E. none of the above
Answer: A

45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered analogous to
A. velocity
B. pressure
C. air flow
D. air flow rate
Answer: D

46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered analogous to
A. head
B. liquid flow
C. liquid flow rate
D. none of the above
Answer: A

47. The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to
A. charge
B. resistance
C. reciprocal of inductance
D. reciprocal of conductance
E. none of the above
Answer: B

48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to
A. current
B. charge
C. inductance
D. capacitance
Answer: A

49. In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered analogous to
A. heat flow
B. reciprocal of heat flow
C. reciprocal of temperature
D. temperature
E. none of the above
Answer: D

50. Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to
A. charge
B. current
C. inductance
D. resistance
Answer: C

51. The transient response of a system is mainly due to
A. inertia forces
B. internal forces
C. stored energy
D. friction
Answer: C

52. signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal.
A. Input
B. Actuating
C. Feedback
D. Reference
Answer: B

53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value of controlled variable is known as
A. disturbance
B. command
C. control element
D. reference input
Answer: A

54. The transfer function is applicable to which of the following ?
A. Linear and time-in variant systems
B. Linear and time-variant systems
C. Linear systems
D. Non-linear systems
E. None of the above
Answer: A

55. From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ?
A. Signal flow graph
B. Analogous table
C. Output-input ratio
D. Standard block system
E. None of the above
Answer: A

56. is the reference input minus the primary feedback.
A. Manipulated variable
B. Zero sequence
C. Actuating signal
D. Primary feedback
Answer: C

57. The term backlash is associated with
A. servomotors
B. induction relays
C. gear trains
D. any of the above
Ans:

58. With feedback _____ increases.
A. system stability
B. sensitivity
C. gain
D. effects of disturbing signals
Answer: A

59. By which of the following the system response can be tested better ?
A. Ramp input signal
B. Sinusoidal input signal
C. Unit impulse input signal
D. Exponentially decaying signal
Answer: C

60. In a system zero initial condition means that
A. The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
B. The system is working with zero stored energy
C. The system is working with zero reference signal
Answer: A

61. In a system low friction co-efficient facilitates
A. reduced velocity lag error
B. increased velocity lag error
C. increased speed of response
D. reduced time constant of the system
Answer: A

62. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of
A. amplidyneset
B. resistance-capacitance parallel circuit
C. motor-generator set
D. any of the above
Ans:

63. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to
A. capacitance
B. reciprocal of capacitance
C. current
D. resistance
Answer: B

64. The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following?
A. Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral
B. Laplace Transform
C. Fourier Integral
D. Either B. or C.
Answer: A

65. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to
A. smaller damping ratio
B. larger damping ratio
C. constant damping ratio
D. none of the above
Answer: A

66. Static error coefficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed loop systems for
specified ________ input signal.
A. acceleration
B. velocity
C. position
D. all of the above
Answer: D

67. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at
A. low frequencies
B. reduced values of open loop gain
C. increased values of open loop gain
D. none of the above
Answer: B

68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin.
A. no pole
B. net pole
C. simple pole
D. two poles
E. none of the above
Answer: A

69. The type 1 system has ______ at the origin.
A. no pole
B. net pole
C. simple pole
D. two poles
Answer: C

70. The type 2 system has ______ at the origin.
A. no net pole
B. net pole
C. simple pole
D. two poles
Answer: D

71. The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are
A. constant, constant
B. constant, infinity
C. zero, constant
D. zero, zero
Answer: C

72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit _______ function.
A. parabolic
B. ramp
C. impulse
D. step
Answer: B

73. In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is
A. unity
B. infinity
C. zero
D. 10
Answer: B

74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output remains below a certain level for all the time, the system is
A. not necessarily stable
B. stable
C. unstable
D. always unstable
E. any of the above
Answer: A

75. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient response ?
A. Root locus
B. Bode plot
C. Nyquist plot
D. None of the above
Answer: A

76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ?
A. Frequency response
B. Absolute stability
C. Relative stability
D. Time response
Answer: C

77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ?
A. Lead-compensation
B. Lag-compensation
C. Lead-lag compensation
D. None of the above
Answer: B

78. technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ?
A. Nyquist Criterion
B. Quasi linearization
C. Functional analysis
D. Phase-plane representation
Answer: A

79. In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of following compensators may be used ?
A. Phase-lead
B. Phase-lag
C. Both A. and B.
D. Either A. and B.
E. None of the above
Answer: A

80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays
A. is independent of frequency
B. is inverseh’proportional to frequency
C. increases linearly with frequency
D. decreases linearly with frequency
Answer: C

81. In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following ?
A. Low-level oscillations
B. High-level oscillations
C. Conditional stability
D. Overdamping
Ans:

82. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tachogenerator ?
A. Acceleration
B. Speed
C. Speed and acceleration
D. Displacement
E. None of the above
Answer: B

83 is not a final control element.
A. Control valve
B. Potentiometer
C. Electropneumatic converter
D. Servomotor
Answer: B

84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a controller ?
A. The range of air output as measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
B. The range of measured variables from set value
C. The range of measured variables through which the air output changes from maximum to minimum
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: C

85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control element converts
A. pressure signal to electric signal
B. pressure signal to position change
C. electric signal to pressure signal
D. position change to pressure signal
E. none of the above
Answer: B

86. Pressure error can be measured by which of the following ?
A. Differential bellows and straingauge
B. Selsyn
C. Strain gauge
D. Strain gauge and potentiometer
Answer: A

87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinates ?
A. Microsyn
B. Selsyn
C. Synchro-resolver
D. Synchro-transformer
Answer: C

88. The effect of error damping is to
A. provide larger settling lime
B. delay the response
C. reduce steady state error
D. any of the above
E. none of the above
Answer: C

89. technique gives quick transient and stability response
A. Root locus
B. Bode
C. Nyquist
D. Nichols
Answer: A

90. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output
A. lag at all frequencies
B. lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
C. lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
D. none of the above
Answer: C

91. Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servomotor ?
A. Static friction
B. Backlash
C. Saturation
D. None of the above
Answer: C

92. can be extended to systems which are time-varying ?
A. Bode-Nyquist stability methods
B. Transfer functions
C. Root locus design
D. State model representatives
Answer: D

93. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it implies that the system is
A. at rest without any energy stored in it
B. working normally with reference input
C. working normally with zero reference input
D. at rest but stores energy
Answer: D

94. Which of the following is an electromagnetically device ?
A. Induction relay
B. Thermocouple
C. LVDT
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: C

95. A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it
A. reduces damping
B. reduces the gain margin
C. increases input noise
D. increases error
Answer: C

96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as
A. oscillatory
B. critically damped
C. overdamped
D. underdamped
E. none of the above
Answer: D

97. In a control system integral error compensation _______ steady state error
A. increases
B. minimizes
C. does not have any effect on
D. any of the above
Answer: B

98. With feed back _____ reduces.
A. system stability
(6) system gain
C. system stability and gain
D. none of the above
Answer: B

99. An amplidyne can give which of the following characteristics ?
A. Constant current
B. Constant voltage
C. Constant current as well as constant voltage
D. Constant current, constant voltage and constant power
E. None of the above
Answer: D

100. Which of the following can be measured by LVDT?
A. Displacement
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
D. Any of the above
Answer: D

101 directly converts temperature into voltage.
A. Thermocouple
B. Potentiometer
C. Gear train
D. LVDT
E. None of the above
Answer: A

102. The transfer function technique is considered as inadequate under which of the following conditions ?
A. Systems having complexities and non-linearities
B. Systems having stability problems
C. Systems having multiple input disturbances
D. All of the above
Answer: D

103. Which of the following is the output of a thermocouple ?
A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. A.C. voltage
D. D.C. voltage
E. None of the above
Answer: D

104. A.C. servomotor is basically a
A. universal motor
B. single phase induction motor
C. two phase induction motor
D. three phase induction motor
Answer: C

105. The first order control system, which is well designed, has a
A. small bandwidth
B. negative time constant
C. large negative transfer function pole
D. none of the above
Answer: C

106. Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus diagrams ?
A. The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
B. The bandwidth of the system
C. The response of a system to a step input
D. The frequency response of a system
E. None of the above
Answer: A

CONTROL SYSTEMS objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

[PDF Notes] What are the Various Class of Inflation?

Inflation may be classified on the basis of factors inducing or causing rise in prices, such as, (a) wage-in­duced, (b) profit-induced, (c) scarcity-induced, (d) deficit-induced, (e) currency-induced, () credit- induced, and (g) foreign trade-induced inflation.

1. Wage-Induced Inflation:

When inflation rises due to a rise in wages, it is called wage-induced inflation. In modern times, trade unions are able to secure higher wages for workers unaccompanied by a simultaneous increase in labour productivity. This increases the cost of production, and, in turn, the price level.

2. Profit-Induced Inflation:

If the producers, due to their monopoly position, tend to mark-up their profit margin, it will lead to profit-induced inflation. Higher profits raise the cost of production which, in turn, pushes up the prices.

3. Scarcity-Induced Inflation:

When the supply of goods does not increase on account of natural calamities, the prices tend to rise. This may be called scarcity-induced inflation.

4. Deficit-Induced Inflation:

When a government covers the deficit in its budget through creating new money (a method known as deficit financing), the purchasing power of the community increases without a simultaneous increase in production.

This leads to a rise in the price level which is referred to as deficit-in­duced inflation. Deficit-induced inflation is more common in less developed countries, where, due to lack of adequate resources, the government resorts to deficit financing to finance its development plans.

5. Currency-Induced Inflation:

When the supply of money exceeds the available output of goods and services, it leads to an inflationary increase in prices. This is a case of currency- induced inflation.

6. Credit-Induced Inflation:

When prices increase on account of an expansion of credit without increasing the quantity of money it is known as credit-induced inflation.

7. Foreign Trade-Induced Inflation,

(a) When a country experiences a sudden rise in the demand for it’s exportable against the inelastic supply of exportable in the domestic market, this increases the demand and price level at home,

(b) Trade gains and sudden inflow of exchange remittances increase the demand and prices in the domestic market. Both these factors lead to foreign trade-induced inflation.

300+ TOP Measurement & Instrumentation MCQs and Answers

Measurement & Instrumentation Objective Questions :-

1. The use of _____ instruments is merely confined within laboratories as standardizing instruments.
A. absolute
B. indicating
C. recording
D. integrating
E. none of the above
Answer: A

2. Which of the following instruments indicate the instantaneous value of the electrical quantity being measured at the time at which it is being measured ?
A. Absolute instruments
B. Indicating instruments
C. Recording instruments
D. Integrating instruments
Answer: B

3. _____ instruments are those which measure the total quantity of electricity delivered in a particular time.
A. Absolute
B. Indicating
C. Recording
D. Integrating
Answer: D

4. Which of the following are integrating instruments ?
A. Ammeters
B. Voltmeters
C. Wattmeters
D. Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters
Answer: D

5. Resistances can be measured with the help of
A. wattmeters
B. voltmeters
C. ammeters
D. ohmmeters and resistance bridges
E. all of the above
Answer: D

6 According to application, instruments are classified as
A. switch board
B. portable
C. both A. and B.
D. moving coil
E. moving iron
F. both D and E
Answer: C

7. Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument ?
A. Deflecting device
B. Controlling device
C. Damping device
D. All of the above
Answer: D

8. A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and enables the latter to reach its final position quickly
A. deflecting
B. controlling
C. damping
D. any of the above
Answer: C

9. The spring material used in a spring control device should have the following property.
A. Should be non-magnetic
B. Most be of low temperature co-efficient
C. Should have low specific resistance
D. Should not be subjected to fatigue
E. All of the above
Answer: E

10. Which of the following properties a damping oil must possess ?
A. Must be a good insulator
B. Should be non-evaporating
C. Should not have corrosive action upon the metal of the vane
D. The viscosity of the oil should not change with the temperature
E. All of the above
Answer: E

11. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as _____ by using a low resistance shunt.
A. ammeter
B. voltmeter
C. flux-meter
D. ballistic galvanometer
Answer: A

12. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as flux-meter
A. by using a low resistance shunt
B. by using a high series resistance
C. by eliminating the control springs
D. by making control springs of large moment of inertia
Answer: C

13. Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range of instruments ?
A. Shunts
B. Multipliers
C. Current transformers
D. Potential transformers
E. All of the above
Answer: E

14. An induction meter can handle current up to
A. 10 A
B. 30 A
C. 60 A
D. 100 A
Answer: D

15. For handling greater currents induction wattmeters are used in conjunction with
A. potential transformers
B. current transformers
C. power transformers
D. either of the above
(e) none of the above
Answer: B

16. Induction type single phase energy meters measure electric energy in
A. kW
B. Wh
C. kWh
D. VAR
E. None of the above
Answer: C

17. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day domestic and industrial installations are
A. mercury motor meters
B. commutator motor meters
C. induction type single phase energy meters
D. all of the above
Answer: C

18. Which of the following meters are not used on D.C. circuits
A. Mercury motor meters
B. Commutator motor meters
C. Induction meters
D. None of the above
Answer: C

19. Which of the following is an essential part of a motor meter ?
A. An operating torque system
B. A braking device
C. Revolution registering device
D. All of the above
Answer: D

20. A potentiometer may be used for
A. measurement of resistance
B. measurement of current
C. calibration of ammeter
D. calibration of voltmeter
E. all of the above
Answer: E

21 is an instrument which measures the insulation resistance of an electric circuit relative to earth and one another,
A. Tangent galvanometer
B. Meggar
C. Current transformer
D. None of the above
Answer: B

22. The household energy meter is
A. an indicating instrument
B. a recording instrument
C. an integrating instrument
D. none of the above
Answer: C

23. The pointer of an indicating instrument should be
A. very light
B. very heavy
C. either A or B
D. neither A nor B
Answer: A

24. The chemical effect of current is used in
A. D.C. ammeter hour meter
B. D.C. ammeter
C. D.C. energy meter
D. none of the above
Answer: A

25. In majority of instruments damping is provided by
A. fluid friction
B. spring
C. eddy currents
D. all of the above
Answer: C

26. An ammeter is a
A. secondary instrument
B. absolute instrument
C. recording instrument
D. integrating instrument
Answer: A

27. In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is provided by
A. spring
B. gravity
C. eddy currents
D. all of the above
Answer: A

28. The disc of an instrument using eddy current damping should be of
A. conducting and magnetic material
B. non-conducting and magnetic material
C. conducting and non-magnetic material
D. none of the above
Answer: C

29. The switch board instruments
A. should be mounted in vertical position
B. should be mounted in horizontal position
C. either A or B
D. neither A nor B
Answer: A

30. The function of shunt in an ammeter is to
A. by pass the current
B. increase the sensitivity of the ammeter
C. increase the resistance of ammeter
D. none of the above
Answer: A

31. The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in
A. series
B. parallel
C. series-parallel
D. none of the above
Answer: A

32. A moving iron instrument can be used for
A. D.C. only
B. A.C. only
C. both D.C. and A.C.
Answer: C

33. The scale of a rectifier instrument is
A. linear
B. non-linear
C. either A or B
D. neither A nor B
Answer: A

34. For measuring current at high frequency we should use
A. moving iron instrument
B. electrostatic instrument
C. thermocouple instrument
D. none of the above
Answer: C

35. The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a dynamometer wattmeter should be
A. almost zero
B. low
C. high
D. none of the above
Answer: C

36. A dynamometer wattmeter can be used for
A. both D.C. and A.C.
B. D.C. only
C. A.C. only
D. any of the above
Answer: A

37. An induction wattmeter can be used for
A. both D.C. and A.C.
B. D.C. only
C. A.C. only
D. any of the above
Answer: B

38. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected on the supply side of the current coil when
A. load impedance is high
B. load impedance is low
C. supply voltage is low
D. none of the above
Answer: A

39. In a low power factor wattmeter the pressure coil is connected
A. to the supply side of the current coil
B. to the load side of the current coil
C. in any of the two meters at connection
D. none of the above
Answer: B

40. In a low power factor wattmeter the compensating coil is connected
A. in series with current coil
B. in parallel with current coil
C. in series with pressure coil
D. in parallel with pressure coil
Answer: C

41. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method, both the watt meters had identical readings. The power factor of the load was
A. unity
B. 0.8 lagging
C. 0.8 leading
D. zero
Answer: A

42. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method the reading of one of the wattmeter was zero. The power factor of the load must be
A. unity
B. 0.5
C. 0.3
D. zero
Answer: B

43. The adjustment of position of shading bands, in an energy meter is done to provide
A. friction compensation
B. creep compensation
C. braking torque
D. none of the above
Answer: A

44. An ohmmeter is a
A. moving iron instrument
B. moving coil instrument
C. dynamometer instrument
D. none of the above
Answer: B

45. When a capacitor was connected to the terminal of ohmmeter, the pointer indicated a low resistance initially and then slowly came to infinity position. This shows that capacitor is
A. short-circuited
B. all right
C. faulty
Answer: B

46. For measuring a very high resistance we should use
A. Kelvin’s double bridge
B. Wheat stone bridge
C. Meggar
D. None of the above
Answer: C

47. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by
A. battery
B. permanent magnet D.C. generator
C. AC. generator
D. any of the above
Answer: B

48. In a meggar controlling torque is provided by
A. spring
B. gravity
C. coil
D. eddy current
Answer: C

49. The operating voltage of a meggar is about
A. 6 V
B. 12 V
C. 40 V
D. 100 V
Answer: D

50. Murray loop test can be used for location of
A. ground fault on a cable
B. short circuit fault on a cable
C. both the ground fault and the short-circuit fault
D. none of the above
Answer: C

51. Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C. voltage ?
A. Small range moving coil voltmeter
B. D.C. potentiometer
C. Small range thermocouple voltmeter
D. None of the above
Answer: B

52. It is required to measure the true open circuit e.m.f. of a battery. The best device is
A. D.C. voltmeter
B. Ammeter and a known resistance
C. D.C. potentiometer
D. None of the above
Answer: C

53. A voltage of about 200 V can be measured
A. directly by a D.C. potentiometer
B. a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box
C. a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a known resistance
D. none of the above
Answer: B

54. A direct current can be measured by
A. a D.C. potentiometer directly
B. a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a standard resistance
C. a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box
D. none of the above
Answer: B

55. To measure a resistance with the help of a potentiometer it is
A. necessary to standardise the potentiometer
B. not necessary to standardise the potentiometer
C. necessary to use a volt ratio box in conjunction with the potentiometer
D. none of the above
Answer: B

56. A phase shifting transformer is used in conjunction with
A. D.C. potentiometer
B. Drysdale potentiometer
C. A.C. co-ordinate potentiometer
D. Crompton potentiometer
Answer: B

57. Basically a potentiometer is a device for
A. comparing two voltages
B. measuring a current
C. comparing two currents
D. measuring a voltage
E. none of the above
Answer: A

58. In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be
A. as long as possible
B. as short as possible
C. neither too small not too large
D. very thick
Answer: A

59. To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C. potentiometer, it is desirable that the supply for the potentiometer in taken
A. from a source which is not the same as the unknown voltage
B. from a battery
C. from the same source as the unknown voltage
D. any of the above
Answer: C

60. The stator of phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with an A.C. potentiometer usually has a
A. single-phase winding
B. two-phase winding
C. three-phase winding
D. any of the above
Answer: B

61. In an AC. co-ordinate potentiometer, the currents in the phase and quadrature potentiometer are adjusted to be
A. out of phase by 90°
(6) out of phase by 60°
C. out of phase by 30°
D. out of phase by 0°
E. out of phase by 180°
Answer: A

62. A universal RLC bridge uses
A. Maxwell bridge configuration for measurement of inductance and De Santas bridge for measurement of capacitance
B. Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and modified De Santy’s bridge for measurement of capacitance
C. Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and Wein bridge for measurement of capacitance
D. Any of the above.
Answer: B

63. For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the suitable bridge is
A. Wein bridge
B. Modified De Santy’s bridge
C. Schering bridge
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: C

64. In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms of
A. known inductance and resistance
B. known capacitance and resistance
C. known resistance
D. known inductance
Answer: B

65. Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate errors due to
A. electrostatic coupling
B. electromagnetic coupling
C. both A. and B.
D. none of the above
Answer: A

66. For measurement of mutual inductance we can use
A. Anderson bridge
B. Maxwell’s bridge
C. Heaviside bridge
D. Any of the above
Answer: C

67. For measurement of inductance having high value, we should use
A. Maxwell’s bridge
B. Maxwell Wein bridge
C. Hay’s bridge
D. Any of the above
Answer: C

68. If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80°, the loss angle of the capacitor is
A. 10°
B. 80°
C. 120°
D. 170°
Answer: A

69. In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth potential is
A. a few volts only
B. 1 kV
C. 5 kV
D. 10 kV
Answer: A

70. To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C. bridges we can use
A. magnetic screening
B. Wagner earthing device
C. wave filters
D. any of the above
Answer: A

71. If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances in the remaining three arms
A. the bridge can always be balanced
B. the bridge cannot be balanced
C. the bridge can be balanced if the resistances have some specific values
Answer: B

72. A power factor meter has
A. one current circuit and two pressure circuits
B. one current circuit and one pressure circuit
C. two current circuits and one pres¬sure circuit
D. none of the above
Answer: A

73. The two pressure coils of a single phase power factor meter have
A. the same dimensions and the same number of turns
B. the same dimension but different number of turns
C. the same number of turns but different dimensions
D. none of the above
Answer: A

74. In a single phase power factor meter the phase difference between the currents in the two pressure coils is
A. exactly 0°
B. approximately 0°
C. exactly 90°
D. approximately 90°
Answer: C

75. In a dynamo meter 3-phase power factor meter, the planes of the two moving coils are at
A. 0°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 120°
Answer: D

76. In a vibrating reed frequency meter the natural frequencies of two adjacent reeds have a difference of
A. 0.1 Hz
B. 0.25 Hz
C. 0.5 Hz
D. 1.5 Hz
Answer: C

77. In a Weston frequency meter, the magnetic axes of the two fixed coils are
A. parallel
B. perpendicular
C. inclined at 60°
D. inclined at 120°
Answer: B

78. A Weston frequency meter is
A. moving coil instrument
B. moving iron instrument
C. dynamo meter instrument
D. none of the above
Answer: B

79. A Weston synchronoscope is a
A. moving coil instrument
B. moving iron instrument
C. dynamometer instrument
D. none of the above
Answer: C

80. In a Weston synchronoscope, the fixed coils are connected across
A. bus-bars
B. incoming alternator
C. a lamp
D. none of the above
Answer: B

81. In Weston synchronoscope the moving coil is connected across
A. bus-bars
B. incoming alternator
C. fixed coils
D. any of the above
Answer: A

82. The power factor of a single phase load can be calculated if the instruments available are
A. one voltmeter and one ammeter
B. one voltmeter, one ammeter and one wattmeter
C. one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter
D. any of the above
Answer: B

83. The desirable static characteristics of a measuring system are
A. accuracy and reproducibility
B. accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility
C. drift and dead zone
D. static error
Answer: B

84. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to full scale deviation of the instrument is called
A. static sensitivity
B. dynamic deviation
C. linearity
D. precision or accuracy
Answer: C

85. Systematic errors are
A. instrumental errors
B. environmental errors
C. observational errors
D. all of the above
Answer: D

86. Standard resistor is made from
A. platinum
B. maganin
C. silver
D. nichrome
Answer: B

87. Commonly used standard capacitor is
A. spherical type
B. concentric cylindrical type
C. electrostatic type
D. multilayer parallel plate type
Answer: B

88. Operating torques in analogue instruments are
A. deflecting and control
B. deflecting and damping
C. deflecting, control and damping
D. vibration and balancing
Answer: C

89. Commonly used instruments in power system measurement are
A. induction
B. moving coil or iron
C. rectifier
D. electrostatic
Answer: A

90. Damping of the Ballistic galvanometer is made small to
A. get first deflection large
B. make the system oscillatory
C. make the system critically damped
D. get minimum overshoot
Answer: A

91. If an instrument has cramped scale for larger values, then it follows
A. square law
B. logarithmic law
C. uniform law
D. none of the above
Answer: B

92. Volt box is a component to
A. extend voltage range
(6) measure voltage
C. compare voltage in a box
D. none of the above
Answer: A

93. E.m.f. of a Weston cell is accurately measured by
A. electrostatic voltmeter
B. hot wire voltmeter
C. isothermal voltmeter
D. electrodynamic voltmeter
Answer: A

94. The gravity controlled instrument has crowded scale because current is proportional to
A. balancing weight
B. deflection angle
C. sine of deflection angle
Answer: C

95. A sensitive galvanometer produces large deflection for a
A. small value of current
B. large value of current
C. large value of power
D. large value of voltage
(e) none of the above
Answer: A

96. A multirangq instrument has
A. multiple shunt or series resistances inside the meter
B. multicoii arrangement
C. variable turns of coil
D. multi range meters inside the measurement system
E. any of the above
Answer: A

97. The rectifier instrument is not free from
A. temperature error
B. wave shape error
C. frequency error
D. all of the above
Answer: C

98. Alternating current is measured by
A. induction ammeter
B. permanent magnet type ammeter
C. electrostatic ammeter
D. moving iron repulsion type voltmeter
Answer: A

99. Most sensitive galvanometer is
A. elastic galvanometer
B. vibration galvanometer
C. Duddlb galvanometer
D. spot ballistic galvanometer
Answer: D

100. Instrument transformers are
A. potential transformers
B. current transformers
C. both A. and B.
D. power transformers
Answer: C

101. An instrument transformer is used to extend the range of
A. induction instrument
B. electrostatic instrument
C. moving coil instrument
D. any of the above
Answer: A

102. Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of
A. electrostatic instrument
B. thermocouple instrument
C. moving iron instrument
D. electrodynamic instrument
Answer: C

103. In an energy meter braking torque is produced to
A. safe guard it against creep
B. brake the instrument
C. bring energy meter to stand still
D. maintain steady speed and equal to driving torque
Answer: D

104. Various adjustments in an energy meter include
A. light load or friction
B. lag and creep
C. overload and voltage compensation
D. temperature compensation
(e) all of the above
Answer: E

105. The power of a n-phase circuit can be measured by using a minimum of
A. (n – 1) wattmeter elements
B. n wattmeter elements
C. (n + 1) wattmeter elements
D. 2n wattmeter elements
Answer: A

106. Two holes in the disc of energy meter are drilled at the opposite sides of the spindle to
A. improve its ventilation
B. eliminate creeping at no load
C. increase its deflecting torque
D. increase its braking torque
Answer: B

107. Which of the following is measured by using a vector voltmeter ?
A. Amplifier gain and phase shift
B. Filler transfer functions
C. Complex insersion loss
D. All of the above
Answer: D

108. The principle on which vector voltmeter is based is
A. that it works on the principle of complex variation
B. that it measures the response of linear ramp voltage
C. same as digital meter
D. that it measures the amplitude of a single at two points and at the same time measures their phase difference
Answer: D

110. To measure radio frequency, the suitable frequency meter is
A. Weston frequency meter
B. reed vibrator frequency meter
C. heterodoxy frequency meter
D. electrical resonance frequency meter
Answer: C

Measurement & Instrumentation Multiple Choice Questions with Answers pdf Download Online test Quiz

[PDF Notes] On the basis of Government reaction, inflation can be open or suppressed

On the basis of Government reaction, inflation can be open or suppressed.

1. Open Inflation:

If the government takes no steps to check the price rise and the market mechanism is allowed to function without any interference, it is called open inflation. Under open inflation, market mechanism performs the function of allocating scarce resources among competing industries.

If there is shortage of any particular resource, the market mechanism would raise its price and allocate it to those industries which can afford to pay a higher price for it. The hyper-inflation in Germany after the World War-I is an example of open inflation.

2. Suppressed Inflation:

If the government actively makes efforts to check the price rise through price control and rationing, it is called suppressed inflation. These measures can check inflation as long as their effect continues.

Once these measures are withdrawn, the demand for goods increases and the suppressed inflation becomes open inflation. Thus, suppressed inflation means to defer current demand or to divert demand from controlled goods to uncontrolled goods.

Suppressed inflation results in many evils, such as profiteering, black marketing, hoarding, corruption, etc. It also leads to the diversion of economic resources from more essential goods to less essential goods.

300+ TOP Electrical Machine Design Objective Type Questions and Answers

Electrical Machine Design Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. Which of the following is the major consideration to evolve a good design ?
(a) Cost
(b) Durability
(c) Compliance with performance criteria as laid down in specifications
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

2 impose limitation on design.
(a) Saturation
(b) Temperature rise
(c) Efficiency
(d) Power factor
(e) All above
Ans: e

3. The efficiency of a machine should be as ______ as possible to reduce the operating cost.
(a) high
(b) low
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

4. If an insulating material is operated beyond the maximum allowable temperature, its life is
(a) drastically increased
(b) drastically reduced
(c) unaffected
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

5. The design of mechanical parts is particularly important in case of _____ speed machines.
(a) low
(b) medium
(c) high
(d) any of the above
Ans: c

6. In induction motors, the length of air gap in kept as small as mechanically possible is order to have
(a) low power factor
(b) high power factor
(c) high over load capacity
(d) any of the above
Ans: b

7. In ______ machines, the size of the shaft is decided by the critical speed which depends on the deflection of the shaft.
(a) small
(b) medium
(c) large
(d) any of the above.
Ans: c

8. The length cf air gap to be provided in ______ is primarily determined by power factor consideration.
(a) d.c. series motor .
(b) d.c. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) synchronous motor
Ans: c

9. Electrical machines having a power output up to about 750 W may be called_______machines.
(a) small size
(b) medium size
(c) large size
(d) any of the above
Ans: a

10. Electrical machines having power outputs ranging from a few kW up to approximately 250 kW may be classified as
(a) small size machines
(b) medium size machines
(c) large size machines
(d) any of the above
Ans: b

11. Commercial available medium size machines have a speed range of ______ .
(a) 200 to 400 r.p.m.
(b) 600 to 1000 r.p.m.
(c) 1000 to 1500 r.p.m.
(d) 2000 to 2500 r.p.m.
Ans: d

12. The action of electromagnetic machines can be related to which of the following basic principles ?
(a) Induction
(b) Interaction
(c) Alignment
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

13. The change in flux linkages can be caused in which of the following ways ?
(a) The flux is constant with respect to time and is stationary and the coil moves through it
(b) The coil is stationary with respect to flux and the flux varies in magnitude with respect to time
(c) Both the changes mentioned above occur together, i.e., the coil moves through a time varying field
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

14 is universally used for windings of electrical machines because it is easily workable without any possibility of
fracture.
(a) Silver
(b) Steel
(c) Aluminium
(d) Copper
Ans: d

15. Aluminium when adopted as a conductor material in ______ transformers, decreases the overall cost of the transformer
(a) small size
(b) medium size
(c) large size
(d) any of the above size
Ans: a

16. Which of the following materials is used in the manufacture of resistance grids to be used in the starters of large motors ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Cast-iron
Ans: d

17. Materials exhibiting zero value of resistivity are known as ______ .
(a) conductors
(b) semiconductors
(c) insulators
(d) superconductors
Ans: d

18. ________ has a lowrelative permeability and is used principally in field frames when cost is of primary importance and extra weight is not objectionable.
(a) Cast steel
(b) Aluminium
(c) Soft steel
(d) Cast iron
Ans: d

19 ______is extensively used for those portions of magnetic circuit which carry steady flux and need superior mechanical properties ?
(a) Grey cast-iron
(b) Cast steel
(c) High carbon steel
(d) Stainless steel
Ans: b

20. Hot rolled sheets have ______ value of permeability
(a) zero
(b) low
(c) high
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

21. The heated parts of an electrical machine dissipate heat into their surroundings by which of the following modes of heat dissipation ?
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

22. The heat dissipated by from a surface depends upon its temperature and its characteristics like colour, roughness etc.
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) any of the above
Ans: c

23. The mcrease in heat dissipation by air blasts is due to increase in
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(e) radiation
(d) any ofthe above
Ans: b

24. On which of the following variables heat convected depends ?
(a) Power density
(b) Temperature difference between heated surface and coolant
(c) Thermal resistivity, density, specific heat
(d) Gravitational constant
(e) All of the above
Ans: e

25. Which of the following methods is used for air cooling of turbo-alternators ?
(a) One sided axial ventilation
(b) Two sided axial ventilation
(c) Multiple inlet system
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

26. Multiple inlet system of air cooling of turbo-alternators can be used for machines of rating upto
(a) 10 MW
(b) 30 MW
(c) 60 MW
(d) 150 MW
Ans: c

27. Which of the following is an advantage of hydrogen cooling ?
(a) Increase in efficiency
(b) Increase in ratings
(c) Increase in life
(d) Smaller size of coolers
(e) All of the above
Ans: e

28. The density of hydrogen is _____ times the density of air.
(a) 0.07
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 3.5
Ans: a

29. Hydrogen has a heat transfer co-efficient _____ times that of air
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.5
(c) 3.5
(d) 4.5
Ans: a

30. The thermal conductivity of hydrogen is ______ times that of air
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans: d

31. With conventional hydrogen cooling it is possible to increase the rating of a single unit to
(a) 50 MW
(b) 100 MW
(c) 200 MW
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

32. The noise produced by a ______ cooled machine is less as the rotor moves in a medium of smaller density.
(a) air
(b) hydrogen
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

33. cooling is the process of dissipating the armature and field winding losses to a cooling medium circulating within the winding insulation wall
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Conventional
(d) Any of the above
Ans: a

34. Machines cooled by direct cooling method may be called
(a) “supercharged”
(b) “inner cooled”
(c) “conductor cooled”
(d) any of the above
Ans: d

35. In direct cooled system using hydrogen both stator and rotor conductors are made
(a) solid
(b) hollow
(c) perforated
(d) any ofthe above
Ans: b

36. With direct water cooling it is possible to have ratings of about
(a) 200 MW
(b) 300 MW
(c) 400 MW
(d) 600 MW
Ans: d

37. The resistivity of water should not be less than
(a) 10 Q m
(b) 100 Q m
(c) 1000 Q m
(d) 2000 Q m
Ans: d

38. Direct water cooling of rotor winding presents
(a) no mechanical difficulties
(b) lesser mechanical difficulties
(c) greater mechanical difficulties
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

39. The time taken by the machine to attain 0.632 of its final steady temperature rise is called
(a) heating time constant
(b) cooling time constant
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

40. In self cooled motors the cooling time constant is about ______ than the heating time constant because cooling conditions are worse at standstill.
(a) 2 to 3 times greater
(b) 3 to 4 times greater
(c) 4 to 5 times greater
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

41. By which of the following methods motor rating for variable load drives can be determined ?
(a) Method of average losses
(b) Equivalent current method
(c) Equivalent torque method
(d) Equivalent power method
(e) All of the above.
Ans: e

42. Which of the following methods does not take into account the maximum temperature rise under variable load conditions ?
(a) Equivalent power method
(b) Equivalent current method
(c) Method of average losses
(d) Equivalent torque method
Ans: c

43. Which of the following methods is most accurate ?
(a) Equivalent current method
(b) Equivalent power method
(c) Equivalent torque method
(d) Method of average losses
Ans: a

44. By which of the following methods the temperature rise of windings and other parts may be determined ?
(a) Thermometer method
(6) Resistance method
(c) Embedded temperature detector method
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d

45. The slot leakage can be calculated by making which of the following assumptions ?
(a) The current in the slot conductors is uniformly distributed over their cross-section
(b) The leakage path is straight across the slot and around the iron at the bottom
(c) The permanence of air paths is only considered. The reluctance of iron paths is assumed as zero
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

46. The value of exciting or magnetizing current depends upon which of the following factors ?
(a) Total m.m.f. required
(b) The number of turns in the exciting winding
(c) The way in which the winding is distributed
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

47. Tractive magnets are operated from
(a) a.c. supply
(b) d.c. supply
(c) either a.c. or d.c. supply
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

48. electromagnets generally function as holding magnets.
(a) Tractive
(b) Portative
(c) Either of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans: b

49. Which of the following is the commonly used type of electromagnets ?
(a) Flat-faced armature type
(b) Horse shoe type
(c) Flat-faced plunger type
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

50. are used for construction of core of electromagnets.
(a) Soft magnetic materials
(b) Hard magnetic materials
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: a

51. The design of electromagnets is based upon which of the following fundamental equations ?
(a) Force equation
(b) Magnetic circuit equation
(c) Heating equation
(d) Voltage equation
(e) All of the above
Ans: e

52. When the two coil sides forming a coil are spaced exactly one pole pitch apart they are said to be of
(a) short pitch
(b) full pitch
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

53. are always double layer type.
(a) Closed windings
(b) Open windings
(c) Either of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans: a

54. The distance between the starts of two consecutive coils measured in terms of coil sides is called
(a) front pitch
(b) winding pitch
(c) commutator pitch
(d) back pitch
Ans: b

55. The winding where dummy coils are used is sometimes called
(a) duplex winding
(b) triplex winding
(c) forced winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

Electrical Machine Design Questions and Answers ::

56. Dummy coil should not be used in
(a) small machines
(b) large machines
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

57. Power transformers have rating
(a) equal to 50 kVA
(6) equal to 100 kVA
(c) above 200 kVA
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

58. Power transformers should be designed to have maximum efficiency
(a) at one-fourth load
(b) at one-half load
(c) at or near full load
(d) any of the above
Ans: c

59. In transformers using hot rolled steel, the cross-section of the yoke is made about _____ greater than that of the core
(a) 5 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 15 percent
(d) 30 percent
(e) none of the above
Ans: c

60. Yokes with rectangular cross-section are used for
(a) small capacity transformers
(b) medium capacity transformers
(c) large capacity transformers
(d) any of the above
Ans: a

61. The cold rolled grain oriented steel has ______ permeability in the direction of the grain orientation.
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) nil
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

62. Cylindrical windings using circular conductors, employed in transformers, are
(a) single layered
(b) double layered
(c) multi-layered
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

63. Helical windings are used in
(a) distribution transformers
(b) power transformers
(c) shell type transformers
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

64. Multi-layer helical windings are commonly used in the transformers as high voltage windings
(a) upto 20 kV
(b) upto 50 kV
(c) upto 80 kV
(d) for 110 kV and above
Ans: d

65. Disc windings are primarily used in
(a) short capacity transformers
(b) medium capacity transformers
(c) high capacity transformers
(d) any of the above
Ans: c

66. The heat dissipating capability of transformers of ratings higher than 30 kVA in increased by providing which of
the following ?
(a) Corrugations
(b) Fins
(c) Tubes
(d) Radiator tanks
(e) All of the above
Ans: e

67. Transformers with a capacity of up to _____ have a cooling radiator system with natural cooling
(a) 2 MVA
(b) 5 MVA
(c) 7.5 MVA
(d) 10 MVA
Ans: d

68. The forced oil and air circulation method is usual one for transformers of capacities
(a) upto 5 MVA
(b) upto 10 MVA
(c) upto 20 MVA
(d) 30 MVA upwards
Ans: d

69. The flash point of transformer oil should be higher than
(a) 40°C
(b) 60°C
(c) 80°C
(d) 104°C
Ans: d

70. The voltage control in electric supply networks in required on account of which of the following reasons ?
(a) Adjustment of voltage at consumers premises within statutory limits
(b) Control of active and reactive power
(c) Adjustment of short period daily and seasonal voltage variations in accordance with variations of load
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

71. D.C. windings are
(a) sometimes 2-layer type
(b) never 2-layer type
(c) always 2-layer type
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

72. The usual values of maximum flux densities for distribution transformers using hot rolled silicon steel are
(a) 0.5 to 0.8 Wb/m2
(b) 0.8 to 1.0 Wb/m2
(c) 1.1 to 1.35 Wb/m2
(d) 1.4 to 1.8 Wb/m2
Ans: c

73. For 275 kV transformers, using cold rolled grain oriented steel, which of the following values of flux density may be used?
(a) 1.0 Wb/m2
(b) 1.1 Wb/m2
(c) 1.3 Wb/m2
(d) 1.6 Wb/m2
(e) None of the above
Ans: d

74. For large power transformers, self oil cooled type or air blast type which of the following values of current density may be used ?
(a) 1.0 to 1.2 A/mm2
(b) 1.5 to 2.0 A/mm2
(c) 2.2 to 3.2 A/mm2
(d) 3.2 to 4.2 A/mm2
Ans: c

75. A current density of _____ is ilsed for large power transformers with forced circulation of oil or with water cooling coils
(a) 1.5 to 2.5 A/mm2
(b) 3.5 to 4.5 A/mm2
(c) 4.0 to 5.0 A/mm2
(d) 5.4 to 6.2 A/mm2
Ans: d

76. The high voltage winding is usually which of the following type ?
(a) Cylindrical winding with circular conductors
(b) Cross-over winding with either circular or small rectangular conductors
(c) Continuous disc type winding with rectangular conductors
(d) All of the above types
Ans: d

77. Which of the following is the basic consideration in the design of insulation ?
(a) Electrical considerations
(b) Mechanical considerations
(c) Thermal considerations
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

78. A practical formula for determining the thickness of insulation between low voltage and high voltage windings is
(a) 1 + 0.2 kVmm
(6) 2 + 0.5 kVmm
(c) 4 + 0.7 kV mm
(d) 5 + 0.9 kV mm
Ans: d

79. The insulation between windings and grounded core and the insulation between the windings of the same phase is
called
(a) minor insulation
(b) major insulation
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

80. The cylindrical windings using circular conductors are used for current rating of
(a) upto 20 A
(b) upto 40 A
(c) upto 60 A
(d) upto 80 A
Ans: d

81. The surge phenomenon is particularly important in case of
(a) low voltage transformers
(b) medium voltage transformers
(c) high voltage transformers
(d) any of the above
Ans: c

82. Which of the following in an application of D.C. motors?
(a) Traction
(b) Drives for process industry
(c) Battery driven vehicles
(d) Automatic control
(e) All of the above
Ans: e

83. D.C. servomotors are used in
(a) purely D.C. control systems
(6) purely AC. control systems
(c) both D.C. and AC. control systems
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

84. The stator of a D.C. machine comprises of
(a) main poles
(6) interpoles
(c) frame
(d) all of the above
Ans: d

85. The laminations of the armature of a D.C. machine are usually _____ thick.
(a) 0.1 to 0.2 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.3 mm
(c) 0.3 to 0.4 mm
(d) 0.4 to 0.5 mm
Ans: d

86. is usually used for brush rockers
(a) Mild steel
(b) Copper
(c) Aluminium
(d) Cast-iron
Ans: d

87. ______ brushes are fragile and cause excessive wear of commutator,
(a) Natural graphite
(b) Hard carbon
(c) Electro graphitic
(d) Metal graphite
Ans: a

88. Which of the following brushes can be used for high values of current density ?
(a) Metal graphite brushes
(b) Hard carbon brushes
(c) Electro-graphitic brushes
(d) Natural graphite brushes
Ans: a

89. ________ is the common method of applying brushes to the commntator.
(a) Radial
(b) Trailing
(c) Reaction
(d) All of the above
Ans: d

90. Which of the following problem arises in D.C. motors which are fed from thyristor bridge circuits ?
(a) Increased I R losses
(b) Increased core losses
(c) Poor commutation
(d) Change in motor parameters
(e) All of the above
Ans: e

91. The weight of copper of both armature and field windings decreases with _____ in number of poles.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

92. In a D.C. machine the number of brush arms is _____ the number of poles.
(a) less than
(b) equal to
(c) greater than
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

93. In a D.C. machine the current per brush arm should not be more than
(a) 100 A
(6) 200 A
(e) 300 A
(d) 400 A
Ans: d

94. In a D.C. machine, the value of peripheral speed should not, normally, exceed
(a) 10 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 30 m/s
(d) 40 m/s
Ans: c

95. In D.C. machines the width of the duct is usually
(a) 4 mm
(b) 6 mm
(c) 8 mm
(d) 10 mm
Ans: d

96. D.C. machines designed with a large value of air gap length have
(a) worst, ventilation
(b) poor ventilation
(c) better ventilation
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

97. In D.C. machines, ir order to prevent excessive distortion of field form by the armature reaction, the field mmf must be made
(a) equal to that of armature mmf
(b) less in comparison with the armature mmf
(c) large in comparison with the armature mmf
(d) none of the above
Ans: c

98. In D.C. machines, the ____ in field mmf results in increase in size and cost of machines.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

99. The operation of a D.C. machine with large air gap lengths is comparatively
(a) quiet
(b) noisy
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

100. Which of the following methods may be adopted to reduce the effects of armature reaction ?
(a) Increase in length of air gap at pole tips
(b) Increasing reluctance of pole tips
(c) Compensating windings
(d) Interpoles
(e) All of the above
Ans: e

101. In D.C. machines the usual limit of slot pitch is
(a) between 5 to 10 mm
(b) between 10 to 15 mm
(c) between 15 to 20 mm
(d) between 25 to 35 mm
Ans: d

110. In D.C. machines the number of slots per pole usually lies
(a) between 2 to 4
(b) between 6 to 8
(c) between 9 to 16
(d) between 20 to 30
Ans: c

Electrical Machine Design Mcqs Pdf ::