[PDF Notes] What is the Theory of Cost-Push Inflation?

The theory of cost-push inflation (also called sellers’ or mark-up inflation) became popular after the mid 1950s. It attempts to explain the rise in prices when the economy is not at full employment.

According to this theory, the prices, instead of being pulled up by excess demand, may also be pushed up as a result of rise in the cost of production.

The basis of cost-push theory is that organised groups, both business and labour fix higher prices for their products or services than would prevail in perfectly competitive market.

Cost-push inflation is characterised by insufficiency of aggregate demand, unemployment of resources and excess capacity.

In nut shell, the cost-push theory of inflation maintains

(a) That the true source of inflation is the increase is cost of production,

(b) That the increase in cost of production is autonomous of the demand conditions,

(c) That the push forces operate through important cost components, such as, wages, profits or material costs, so that cost push inflation may take the form of wage-push inflation, or profit-push inflation or material-push inflation,

(d) That the increase in cost of production is not absorbed by the producers and is passed to the buyers in the form of higher prices.

300+ TOP Transmission & Distribution Objective Questions and Answers

TRANSMISSION & DISTRIBUTION Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. By which of the following systems electric power may be transmitted ?
(a) Overhead system
(b) Underground system
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer: c

2. are the conductors, which connect the consumer’s terminals to the distribution
(a) Distributors
(b) Service mains
(c) Feeders
(d) None of the above
Answer: b

3. The underground system cannot be operated above
(a) 440 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
Answer: d

4. Overhead system can be designed for operation up to
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Answer: c

5. If variable part of annual cost on account of interest and depreciation on the capital outlay is equal to the annual cost of electrical energy wasted in the conductors, the total annual cost will be minimum and the corresponding size of conductor will be most economical. This statement is known as
(a) Kelvin’s law
(b) Ohm’s law
(c) Kirchhoffs law
(d) Faraday’s law
(e) none of the above
Answer: a

6. The wooden poles well impregnated with creosite oil or any preservative compound have life
(a) from 2 to 5 years
(b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 25 to 30 years
(d) 60 to 70 years
Answer: c

7. Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and distribution of electrical power ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Tungsten
Answer: d

8. Galvanised steel wire is generally used as
(a) stay wire
(b) earth wire
(c) structural components
(d) all of the above
Answer: d

9. The usual spans with R.C.C. poles are
(a) 40—50 meters
(b) 60—100 meters
(c) 80—100 meters
(d) 300—500 meters
Answer: c

10. The corona is considerably affected by which of the following ?
(a) Size of the conductor
(b) Shape of the conductor
(c) Surface condition of the conductor
(d) All of the above
Answer: d

11. Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines ?
(a) Resistance
(b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance
(d) All of the above
Answer: d

12. 310 km line is considered as
(a) a long line
(b) a medium line
(c) a short line
(d) any of the above
Answer: a

13. The phenomenon qf rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open-circuited or lightly loaded line is called the
(a) Seeback effect
(b) Ferranti effect
(c) Raman effect
(d) none of the above
Answer: b

14. The square root of the ratio of line impedance and shunt admittance is called the
(a) surge impedance of the line
(b) conductance of the line
(c) regulation of the line
(d) none of the above
Answer: a

15. Which of the following is the demerit of a ‘constant voltage transmission system’ ?
(a) Increase of short-circuit current of the system
(b) Availability of steady voltage at all loads at the line terminals
(c) Possibility of better protection for the line due to possible use of higher terminal reactants
(d) Improvement of power factor at times of moderate and heavy loads
(e) Possibility of carrying increased power for a given conductor size in case of long-distance heavy power transmission
Answer: a

16. Low voltage cables are meant for use up to
(a)l.lkV
(b)3.3kV
(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Ans: e

17. The operating voltage of high voltage cables is up to
(a)l.lkV
(b)3.3kV
(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Answer: d

18. The operating voltage of supertension cables is up to
(a) 3.3 kV
(b) 6.6 kV
(c) 11 kV
(d) 33 kV
Answer: d

19. The operating voltage of extra high tension cables is upto
(a) 6.6 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
(e) 132 kV
Answer: d

20. Which of the following methods is used for laying of underground cables ?
(a) Direct laying
(b) Draw-in-system
(c) Solid system
(d) All of the above
Answer: d

21. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the cables ?
(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation
(b) losses in the conductor
(c) Losses in the metallic sheathings and armourings
(d) All of the above
Answer: d

22. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be operated too hot ?
(a) The oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from higher levels
(b) Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst
(c) Unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will lead to ionization
(d) The thermal instability may rise due to the rapid increase of dielectric losses with temperature
(e) All of the above
Answer: e

23. Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the simplest and lowest in first cost ?
(a) Radial system
(b) Ring system
(c) Inter-connected system
(d) None of the above
Answer: a

24. A booster is a
(a) series wound generator
(b) shunt wound generator
(c) synchronous generator
(d) none of the above
Answer: a

25. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following methods is employed for solution of network problems in interconnected system ?
(a) Circulating current method
(b) Thevenin’s theorem
(c) Superposition of currents
(d) Direct application of Kirehhoffs laws
(e) All of the above
Ans: e

26. Which of the following faults is most likely to occur in cables ?
(a) Cross or short-circuit fault
(b) Open circuit fault
(c) Breakdown of cable insulation
(d) All of the above
Answer: d

27. The cause of damage to the lead sheath of a cable is
(a) crystallisation of the lead through vibration
(b) chemical action on the lead when buried in the earth
(c) mechanical damage
(d) all of the above
Answer: d

28. The voltage of the single phase supply to residential consumers is
(a) 110 V
(b) 210 V
(c) 230 V
(d) 400 V
Answer: c

29. Most of the high voltage transmission lines in India are
(a) underground
(b) overhead
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Answer: b

30. The distributors for residential areas are
(a) single phase
(b) three-phase three wire
(c) three-phase four wire
(d) none of the above
Answer: c

31. The conductors of the overhead lines are
(a) solid
(b) stranded
(c) both solid and stranded
(d) none of the above
Answer: b

32. High voltage transmission lines use
(a) suspension insulators
(b) pin insulators
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer: a

33. Multicore cables generally use
(a) square conductors
(b) circular conductors
(c) rectangular conductors
(d) sector-shaped conductors
(e) none of the above
Answer: d

34. Distribution lines in India generally use
(a) wooden poles
(b) R.C.C. poles
(c) steel towers
(d) none of the above
Answer: b

35. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage cables is
(a) lead
(b) paper
(c) rubber
(d) none of the above
Answer: b

36. The loads on distributors systems are generally
(a) balanced
(b) unbalanced
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Answer: b

37. The power factor of industrial loads is generally
(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Answer: b

38. Overhead lines generally use
(a) copper conductors
(b) all aluminium conductors
(c) A.C.S.R. conductors
(d) none of these
Answer: c

39. In transmission lines the cross-arms are made of
(a) copper
(b) wood
(c) R.C.C.
(d) steel
Answer: d

40. The material generally used for armour of high voltage cables is
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper
Answer: b

41. Transmission line insulators are made of
(a) glass
(b) porcelain
(c) iron
(d) P.V.C.
Answer: b

42. The material commonly used for sheaths of underground cables is
(a) lead
(b) rubber
(c) copper
(d) iron
Answer: a

43. The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is about
(a) 4.3 m
(b) 5.5 m
(c) 7.0 m
(d) 10.5 m
Answer: c

44. The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 kV line is approximately equal to
(a) 2 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 8.5 m
Answer: c

45. Large industrial consumers are supplied electrical energy at
(a) 400 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Answer: c

46. In a D.C. 3-wire distribution system, balancer fields are cross-connected in order to
(a) boost the generated voltage
(b) balance loads on both sides of the neutral
(c) make both machine^ run as unloaded motors
(d) equalize voltages on the positive and negative outers
Answer: d

47. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers and having unequal loads on the two sides
(a) both balancers run as generators
(b) both balancers run as motors
(c) balancer connected to lightly- loaded side runs as a motor
(d) balancer connected to heavily- loaded side runs as a motor
Answer: c

48. Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of a D.C. 2-wire feeder is increased 100 percent, saving in copper is
(a) 25 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 75 percent
(d) 100 percent
Answer: b

49. A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at both ends with equal voltages. As compared to a similar distributor fed at one end only, the drop at the middle point is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) one-half
(d) twice
(e) none of the above
Answer: a

50. As compared to a 2-wire D.C. distributor, a 3-wire distributor with same maximum voltage to earth uses only
(a) 31.25 percent of copper
(b) 33.3 percent of copper
(c) 66.7 percent of copper
(d) 125 percent of copper
Answer: a

51. Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?
(a) 6.6 kV
(b) 8.8 kV
(c) 11 kV
(d) 13.2 kV
Answer: b

52. For an overhead line, the surge impedance is taken as
(a) 20-30 ohms
(b) 70—80 ohms
(c) 100—200 ohms
(d) 500—1000 ohms
(e) none of the above
Answer: c

53. The presence of ozone due to corona is harmful because it
(a) reduces power factor
(b) corrodes the material
(c) gives odour
(d) transfer energy to the ground
(e) none of the above
Answer: b

54. A feeder, in a transmission system, feeds power to
(a) distributors
(b) generating stations
(c) service mains
(d) all of the above
Answer: a

55. The power transmitted will be maximum when
(a) corona losses are minimum
(b) reactance is high
(c) sending end voltage is more
(d) receiving end voltage is more
Answer: c

56. A 3-phase 4 wire system is commonly used on
(a) primary transmission
(b) secondary transmission
(c) primary distribution
(d) secondary distribution
Answer: d

57. Which of the following materials is used for overhead transmission lines ?
(a) Steel cored aluminium
(b) Galvanised steel
(c) Cadmium copper
(d) Any of the above
Answer: d

58. Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain insulators ?
(a) Quartz
(b) Kaolin
(c) Felspar
(d) Silica
Answer: d

59. There is a greater possibility of occurence of corona during
(a) dry weather
(b) winter
(c) summer heat
(d) humid weather
(e) none of the above
Answer: d

60. Which of the following relays is used on long transmission lines ?
(a) Impedance relay
(b) Mho’s relay
(c) Reactance relay
(d) None of the above
Answer: b

61. The steel used in steel cored conductors is usually
(a) alloy steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) mild steel
(d) high speed steel
(e) all of the above
Answer: c

62. Which of the following distribution systems is more reliable ?
(a) Radial system
(b) Tree system
(c) Ring main system
(d) All are equally reliable
Answer: c

63. Which of the following characteristics should the line supports for transmission lines possess ?
(a) Low cost
(b) High mechanical strength
(c) Longer life
(d) All of the above
Answer: d

64. Transmission voltage of ll kV is normally used for distances upto
(a) 20—25 km
(b) 40—50 km
(c) 60—70 km
(d) 80—100 km
Answer: a

65. Which of the following regulations is considered best?
(a) 50%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 2%
Answer: d

66. Skin effect is proportional to
(a) (conductor diameter)
(b) (conductor diameter)
(c) (conductor diameter)
(d) (conductor diameter)
(e) none of the above
Answer: c

67. A conductor, due to sag between two supports, takes the form of
(a) semi-circle
(b) triangle
(c) ellipse
(d) catenary
Answer: d

68. In AC.S.R. conductors, the insulation between aluminium and steel conductors is
(a) insulin
(b) bitumen
(c) varnish
(d) no insulation is required
Answer: d

69. Which of the following bus-bar schemes has the lowest cost ?
(a) Ring bus-bar scheme
(b) Single bus-bar scheme
(c) Breaker and a half scheme
(d) Main and transfer scheme
Answer: b

70. Owing to skin effect
(a) current flows through the half cross-section of the conductor
(b) portion of the conductor near the surface carries more current and core of the conductor carries less current
(c) portion of the conductor near the surface carries less current and core of the conductor carries more cur¬rent
(d) any of the above
(e) none of the above
Answer: b

71. By which of the following methods string efficiency can be improved ?
(a) Using a guard ring
(b) Grading the insulator
(c) Using long cross arm
(d) Any of the above
(e) None of the above
Answer: d

72. In aluminium conductors, steel core is provided to
(a) compensate for skin effect
(b) neutralise proximity effect
(c) reduce line inductance
(d) increase the tensile strength
Answer: d

73. By which of the following a bus-bar is rated ?
(a) Current only
(b) Current and voltage
(c) Current, voltage and frequency
(d) Current, voltage, frequency and short time current
Answer: d

74. A circuit is disconnected by isolators when
(a) line is energized
(b) there is no current in the line
(c) line is on full load
(d) circuit breaker is not open
Answer: b

75. For which of the following equipment current rating is not necessary ?
(a) Circuit breakers
(b) Isolators
(c) Load break switch
(d) Circuit breakers and load break switches
Answer: b

76. In a substation the following equipment is not installed
(a) exciters
(b) series capacitors
(c) shunt reactors
(d) voltatre transformers
Answer: a

77. jCorona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in air around the conductor exceeds
(a) 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(b) 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(c) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(d) 30 kV (maximum value)/cm
Answer: d

78. The voltage drop, for constant voltage transmission is compensated by installing
(a) inductors
(b) capacitors
(c) synchronous motors
(d) all of above
(e) none of the above
Answer: c

79. The use of strain type insulators is made where the conductors are
(a) dead ended
(b) at intermediate anchor towers
(c) any of the above
(d) none of the above
Answer: c

80. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is
(a) non-sinusoidal
(b) sinusoidal
(c) triangular
(d) square
Answer: a

81. Pin type insulators are generally not used for voltages beyond
(a) 1 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 22 kV
(d) 33 kV
Answer: d

82. Aluminium has a specific gravity of
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.7
(c) 4.2
(d) 7.8
Answer: b

83. For transmission of power over a distance of 200 km, the transmission voltage should be
(a) 132 kV
(b) 66 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 11 kV
Answer: a

84. For aluminium, as compared to copper, all the following factors have higher values except
(a) specific volume
(6) electrical conductivity
(c) co-efficient of linear expansion
(d) resistance per unit length for same cross-section
Answer: b

85. Which of the following equipment, for regulating the voltage in distribution feeder, will be most economical ?
(a) Static condenser
(b) Synchronous condenser
(c) Tap changing transformer
(d) Booster transformer
Answer: d

86. In a tap changing transformer, the tappings are provided on
(a) primary winding
(b) secondary winding
(c) high voltage winding
(d) any of the above
Answer: c

87. Constant voltage transmission entails the following disadvantage
(a) large conductor area is required for same power transmission
(b) short-circuit current of the system is increased
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Answer: b

88. On which of the following factors skin effect depends ?
(a) Frequency of the current
(b) Size of the conductor
(c) Resistivity of the conductor material
(d) All of the above
Answer: d

89. The effect of corona can be detected by
(a) presence of ozone detected by odour
(b) hissing sound
(c) faint luminous glow of bluish colour
(d) all of the above
Answer: d

90. For transmission of power over a distance of 500 km, the transmission voltage should be in the range
(a) 150 to 220 kV
(b) 100 to 120 kV
(c) 60 to 100 kV
(d) 20 to 50 kV
Answer: a

91. In the analysis of which of the following lines shunt capacitance is neglected ?
(a) Short transmission lines
(b) Medium transmission lines
(c) Long transmission lines
(d) Medium as well as long transmission lines
Answer: a

92. When the interconnector between two stations has large reactance
(a) the transfer of power will take place with voltage fluctuation and noise
(b) the transfer of power will take place with least loss
(c) the stations will fall out of step be¬cause of large angular displacement between the stations
(d) none of the above
Answer: c

93. The frequency of voltage generated, in case of generators, can be increased by
(a) using reactors
(b) increasing the load
(c) adjusting the governor
(d) reducing the terminal voltage
(e) none of the above
Answer: c

94. When an alternator connected to the bus-bar is shut down the bus-bar voltage will
(a) fall
(b) rise
(c) remain unchanged
(d) none of the above
Answer: c

95. The angular displacement between two interconnected stations is mainly due to
(a) armature reactance of both alternators
(b) reactance of the interconnector
(c) synchronous reactance of both the alternators
(d) all of the above
Answer: a

96. Electro-mechanical voltage regulators are generally used in
(a) reactors
(b) generators
(c) transformers
(d) all of the above
Answer: b

97. Series capacitors on transmission lines are of little use when the load VAR requirement is
(a) large
(b) small
(b) fluctuating
(d) any of the above
Answer: b

98. The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type voltage regulator is effected by
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) varying the reactance
(d) variable transformer
Answer: c

99. When a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, it is due to
(a) permeability variation
(b) corona
(c) skin effect
(d) unsymmetrical fault
(e) none of the above
Answer: c

100. The following system is not generally used
(a) 1-phase 3 wire
(b) 1-phase 4 wire
(c) 3-phase 3 wire
(d) 3-phase 4 wire
Answer: b

101. The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as the
(a) resistivity of conductor material increases
(b) permeability of conductor material increases
(c) diameter increases
(d) frequency increases
Answer: a

110. When a live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and touches the earth which of the following will happen ?
(a) Current will flow to earth
(b) Supply voltage will drop
(c) Supply voltage will increase
(d) No current will flow in the conductor
(e) None of the above
Answer: a

TRANSMISSION & DISTRIBUTION Mcqs Interview Questions Pdf ::

[PDF Notes] What is Demand-Cum-Cost Inflation?

In the actual world, it is difficult to say precisely whether the rise in prices is due to demand-pull factors or cost-push factors. In fact inflation is a combination of both demand-pull and cost-push rise in prices; it may be termed as demand-cum-cost inflation.

The demand-pull inflation has the tendency to generate forces of cost-push inflation; when prices rise due to excess increase in aggregate demand, the workers demand higher wages in view of a rise in cost of living.

Similarly, the cost-push inflation generates demand-pull elements of inflation; when wages are pushed up, the workers’ monetary demand for consumption goods increases due to their higher incomes.

Thus, it is wrong to dichotomies the inflationary process into demand-pull and cost-push rise in prices. As H. G. Johnson has remarked.

“The two theories are, therefore, not independent and self-con­tained theories of inflation but rather theories concerning the mechanism of inflation in a monetary environment that permits it.”

The actual working of the inflationary process is like this: If aggregate demand increases with given output, the prices will rise. As a result, the cost of living will rise and the workers will demand higher wages.

When they succeed in it, their incomes will go up and thus aggregate demand will increase. But, on the other hand, higher costs due to rise in wages will push up the prices. Thus, inflation means demand-cost-price spiral.

The combined demand-cum-cost inflation is illustrated in Figure 6. SS and DD are the original aggregate supply and demand curves respectively. They intersect each other at point E, indicating the full employment output level OM.

The initial price is OP. When aggregate demand increases from DD to D1D1 it intersects the SS supply curve at point E, and the price level rises from OP to OP1. The increase in price level will force the trade unions to secure higher wages for the workers.

This will raise the cost of produc­tion. As a result, a higher aggregate supply curve S1S will intersect D1D curve at point A, showing a reduction in employment (from OM to OM1) and a rise in price level (from OP2 to OP2).

In order to achieve full employment, the aggregate demand must increase to D2D2. It means that full employment is achieved only at a higher price level OP3.

To conclude,

(a) Demand-pull inflation and cost-push inflation move together and lead to cumulative rise in prices.

(b) The forces behind demand-pull inflation are increases in money supply and aggregate expenditure, while the causes of cost-push inflation are mainly rise in wages, profits and material costs,

(c) Of the two types of inflation, cost- push inflation is much more difficult to control than demand-pull inflation. Demand-pull inflation can be controlled by adopting proper monetary and fiscal measures.

But, it is not easy to reduce cost of production through such measures; a reduction in wage rate, for example, will be strongly opposed by the workers.

300+ Economics of Power Generation MCQ Questions & Answers

Economics of Power Generation Multiple Choice Questions MCQs:-

1. Load factor of a power station is defined as
A. maximum demand/average load
B. average load x maximum demand
C. average load/maximum demand
D. (average load x maximum demand)172
Answer: C

2. Load factor of a power station is generally
A. equal to unity
B. less than unity
C. more than unity
D. equal to zero Diversity factor is always
Answer: B

3. The load factor of domestic load is usually
A. 10 to 15%
B. 30 to 40%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 60 to 70%
Answer: A

4. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by
A. sinkingfund method
B. straight line method
C. both A. and B.
D. none of the above
Answer: C

5. Depreciation charges are high in case of
A. thermal plant
B. diesel plant
C. hydroelectric plant
Answer: A

6. Demand factor is defined as
A. average load/maximum load
B. maximum demand/connected load
C. connected load/maximum demand
D. average load x maximum load
Answer: B

7. High load factor indicates
A. cost of generation per unit power is increased
B. total plant capacity is utilised for most of the time
C. total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most of the time
D. none of the above
Answer: B

8. A load curve indicates
A. average power used during the period
B. average kWh (kW) energy consumption during the period
C. either of the above
D. none of the above
Answer: B

9. Approximate estimation of power demand can be made by
A. load survey method
B. statistical methods
C. mathematical method
D. economic parameters
(e) all of the above
Ans: e

10. Annual depreciation as per straight line method, is calculated by
A. the capital cost divided by number of year of life
B. the capital cost minus the salvage value, is divided by the number of years of life
C. increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at stipulated rate of interest
D. none of the above
Answer: B

11. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in
A. flat rate tariff
B. two part tariff
C. maximum demand tariff
D. any of the above
Answer: C

12. In two part tariff, variation in load factor will affect
A. fixed charges
B. operating or running charges
C. both A. and B.
D. either A. or B.
Answer: B

13. In Hopknison demand rate or two parttariff the demand rate or fixed charges are
A. dependent upon the energy consumed
B. dependent upon the maximum demand of the consumer
C. both A. and B.
D. neither A. nor B.
Answer: B

14. Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor ?
A. Peak load plant
B. Base load plant
C. Nuclear power plant
D. Hydro electric plant
Answer: A

15. The area under a load curve gives
A. average demand
B. energy consumed
C. maximum demand
D. none of the above
Answer: B

16. Different generating stations use following prime movers
A. diesel engine
B. hydraulic turbine
C. gas turbine
D. steam turbine
(e) any of the above
Ans: e

17. Diversity factor has direct effect on the
A. fixed cost of unit generated
B. running cost of unit generated
C. both A. and B.
D. neither A. nor B.
Answer: A

18. Following power plant has instant starting
A. nuclear power plant
B. hydro power plant
C. diesel power plant
D. both B. and C.
(e) none of the above
Answer: D

19. Which of the following generating station has minimum ruiyiing cost ?
A. Nuclear
B. Hydro
C. Thermal
D. Diesel
Answer: B

20. Power plant having maximum demand more than the installed rated capacity will have utilisation factor
A. equal to unity
B. less than unity
C. more than unity
D. none of the above
Answer: C

21. Load curve is useful in deciding the
A. operating schedule of generating units
B. sizes of generating units
C. total installed capacity of the plant
D. all of the above
Answer: D

22. Load curve of a power plant has always
A. zero slope
B. positive slope
C. negative slope
D. any combination of A., B. and C.
Ans: e

23. Annual operating expenditure of a power plant consists of
A. fixed charges
B. semi-fixed charges
C. running charges
D. all of the above
Answer: D

24. Maximum demand on a power plant is
A. the greatest of all “short time interval averaged” demand during a period
B. instantaneous maximum value of kVA supplied during a period
(e) both A. or B.
D. none of the above
Answer: A

25. Annual instalment towards depreciation reduces as rate of interest increases with
A. sinking fund depreciation
B. straight line depreciation
C. reducing balances depreciation
D. none of the above
Answer: A

26. Annual depreciation of the plant it proportional to the earning capacity of the plant vide
A. sinking fund depreciation
B. straight line depreciation
C. reducing balances depreciation
D. none of the above
Answer: C

27. For high value of diversity factor, a power station of given installed capacity will be in a position to supply
A. less number of consumers
B. more number of consumers
C. neither A. nor B.
D. either A. or B.
Answer: B

28. Salvage value of the plant is always
A. positive
B. negative
C. zero
D. any of the above
Answer: D

29. Load curve helps in deciding
A. total installed capacity of the plant
B. sizes of the generating units
C. operating schedule of generating units
D. all of the above
Answer: D

30 can generate power at unpredictable or uncontrolled times,
A. Solar power plant
B. Tidal power plant
C. Wind power plant
D. Any of the above
Answer: D

31. Direct conversion of heat into electric power is possible through
A. fuel cell
B. batteries
C. thermionic converter
D. all of the above
Answer: C

32. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that
A. plant is used for stand by purpose only
B. plant is under maintenance
C. plant is used for base load only
D. plant is used for peak load as well as base load
Answer: A

33. Which of the following is not a source of power ?
A. Thermocouple
B. Photovoltaic cell
C. Solar cell
D. Photoelectric cell
Answer: A

34. Which of the following should be used for extinguishing electrical fires ?
A. Water
B. Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher
C. Foam type fire extinguisher
D. CO2 fire extinguisher
Answer: B

35. Low power factor is usually not due to
A. arc lamps
B. induction motors
C. fluorescent tubes
D. incandescent lamp
Answer: D

36. Ships are generally powered by
A. nuclear power plants
B. hydraulic turbines
(e) diesel engines
D. steam accumulators
(e) none of the above
Answer: C

37. Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy is possible through
A. fuel cells
B. solar cells
C. MHD generators
D. none of the above
Answer: C

38. Which of the following place is not associated with nuclear power plants in India ?
A. Narora
B. Tarapur
C. Kota
D. Benglore
Answer: D

39. During load shedding
A. system power factor is changed
B. some loads are switched off
C. system voltage is reduced
D. system frequency is reduced Efficiency is the secondary consideration in
Answer: B

40. which of the following plants ?
A. Base load plants
B. Peak load plants
C. Both A. and B.
D. none of the above
Answer: B

41. Air will not be the working substance in which of the following ?
A. Closed cycle gas turbine
B. Open cycle gas turbine
C. Diesel engine
D. Petrol engine
Answer: A

42. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
A. peak load plant
B. base load plant
C. stand-by plant
D. spinning reserve plant
(e) any of the above
Answer: B

43. power plant is expected to have the longest life.
A. Steam
B. Diesel
C. Hydroelectric
D. Any of the above
Answer: C

44. power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW.
A. Hydroelectric
B. Nuclear
C. Steam
D. Diesel
(e) Any of the above
Answer: D

45. Which of the following, in a thermal power plant, is not a fixed cost ?
A. Fuel cost
B. Interest on capital
C. Depreciation
D. Insurance charges
Answer: A

46. _______ will offer the least load.
A. Vacuum cleaner
B. Television
C. Hair dryer
D. Electric shaver
Answer: D

47. In ______ fuel transportation cost is least.
A. nuclear power plants
B. diesel generating plants
C. steam power stations
Answer: A

48. Which of the following equipment provides fluctuating load ?
A. Exhaust fan
B. Lathe machine
C. Welding transformer
D. All of the above
Answer: C

49. The increased load during summer months is due to
A. increased business activity
B. increased water supply
C. increased use of fans and air conditioners
D. none of the above
Answer: C

50 is the reserved generating capacity available for service under emergency conditions which is not kept in operation but in working order,
A. Hot reserve
B. Cold reserve
C. Spinning reserve
D. Firm power
Answer: B

51. Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and ready to take load when switched on is known as
A. firm power
B. cold reserve
C. hot reserve
D. spinning reserve
Answer: D

52. offers the highest electric load.
A. Television set
B. Toaster
C. Vacuum cleaner
D. Washing machine
Answer: B

53. _______ industry has the least power consumption per tonne of product.
A. Soap
B. Sugar
C. Vegetable oil
D. Caustic soda
Answer: C

54. With reference to a power station which of the following is not a fixed cost ?
A. Fuel cost
B. Interest on capital
C. Insurance charges
D. Depreciation
Answer: A

55. _______ is invariably used as base load plant.
A. Diesel engine plant
B. Nuclear power plant
C. Gas turbine plant
D. Pumped storage plant
Answer: B

ECONOMICS of POWER GENERATION Multiple Choice Questions ::

56. In a power plant if the maximum demand on the plant is equal to the plant capacity, then
A. plant reserve capacity will be zero
B. diversity factor will be unity
C. load factor will be unity
D. load factor will be nearly 60%
Answer: A

57. Incase of ______ fuel transportation is the major problem.
A. diesel power plants
B. nuclear power plants
C. hydro-electric power plants
D. thermal power plants
Answer: D

58. Which of the following power plants need the least period for installation ?
A. Thermal power plant
B. Diesel power plant
C. Nuclear power plant
D. Hydro-electric power plant
Answer: B

59. For which of the following power plants highly skilled engineers are required for running the plants ?
A. Nuclear power plants
B. Gas turbine power plants
C. Solar power plants
D. Hydro-electric power plants
Answer: A

60. In which’of the following power plants the maintenance cost is usually high ?
A. Nuclear power plant
B. Hydro-electric power plants
C. Thermal power plants
D. Diesel engine power plants
Answer: C

61. ________ is invariably used for peak load
A. Nuclear power plant
B. Steam turbine plant
C. Pumped storage plant
D. None of the above
Answer: C

62. Which of the following is not an operating cost ?
A. Maintenance cost
B. Fuel cost
C. Salaries of high officials
D. Salaries of operating staff
Ans:

63. Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak load plant ?
A. It should run at high speed
B. It should produce high voltage
C. It should be small in size
D. It should be capable of starting quickly
Answer: D

64. Large capacity generators are invariably
A. water cooled
B. natural air cooled
C. forced air cooled
D. hydrogen cooled
Answer: D

65. By the use of which of the following power factor can be improved ?
A. Phase advancers
B. Synchronous compensators
C. Static capacitors
D. Any of the above
Answer: D

66. An induction motor has relatively high power factor at
A. rated r.p.m.
B. no load
C. 20 percent load
D. near full load
(e) none of the above
Answer: D

67. Which of the following is the disadvantage due to low power factor ?
A. Poor voltage regulation
B. Increased transmission losses
C. High cost of equipment for a given load
D. All of the above
Answer: D

68. In a distribution system, in order to improve power factor, the synchronous capacitors are installed
A. at the receiving end
B. at the sending end
C. either A. or B.
D. none of the above
Answer: A

69. Static capacitors are rated in terms of
A. kW
B. kWh
(e) kVAR
D. none of the above
Answer: C

70. Which of the following is the disadvantage of a synchronous condenser ?
A. High maintenance cost
B. Continuous losses in motor
C. Noise
D. All of the above
Answer: D

71. For a consumer the most economical power factor is generally
A. 0.5 lagging
B. 0.5 leading
C. 0.95 lagging
D. 0.95 leading
Answer: C

72. A synchronous condenser is virtually which of the following ?
A. Induction motor
B. Under excited synchronous motor
C. Over excited synchronous motor
D. D.C. generator
(e) None of the above
Answer: C

73. For a power plant which of the following constitutes running cost ?
A. Cost of wages
B. Cost of fuel
C. Cost of lubricants
D. All of the above
Answer: D

74. In an interconnected system, the diversity factor of the whole system
A. remains unchanged
B. decreases
C. increases
D. none of the above
Answer: C

75. Generators for peak load plants are usually designed for maximum efficiency at
A. 25 to 50 percent full load
B. 50 to 75 percent full load
C. full load
D. 25 percent overload
Answer: B

76. ________ will be least affected due to charge in supply voltage frequency.
A. Electric clock
B. Mixer grinder
C. Ceiling fan
D. Room heater
Answer: D

77. The connected load of a IVMIM uir consumer is around
A. 5 kW
B. 40 kV
C. 80 kW
D. 120 kW
Answer: A

78. Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage of interconnecting various power stations ?
A. Improved frequency of power supplied
B. Reduction in total installed capacity
C. Increased reliability
D. Economy in operation of plants
Answer: A

79. A power transformer is usually rated in
A. kW
B. kVAR
C. kWh
D. kVA
Answer: D

80. public sector undertaking is associated with erection and sometimes running of thermal power plants
A. NTPC
B. SAIL
C. BEL
D. BHEL
Answer: A

81. Most efficient plants are normally used as
A. peak load plants
B. base load plants
C. either A. or B.
D. none of the above
Ans:

82. For a diesel generating station the useful life is expected to be around
A. 15 to 20 years
B. 20 to 50 years
C. 50 to 75 years
D. 75 to 100 years
Answer: A

83. Which of the following is not a method for estimating depreciation charges ?
A. Sinking fund method
B. Straight line method
C. Diminishing value method
D. Halsey’s 50—50 formula
Answer: D

84. The expected useful life of an hydroelectric power station is around
A. 15 years
B. 30 years
C. 60 years
D. 100 years
Answer: D

85. In a load curve the highest point represents
A. peak demand
B. average demand
C. diversified demand
D. none of the above
Answer: A

86. Which of the following source of power is least reliable ?
A. Solar energy
B. Geothermal power
C. Wind power
D. iMHD
Ans:

87. In India production and distribution of electrical energy is confined to
A. private sector
B. public sector
C. government sectors
D. joint sector
(e) none of the above
Answer: B

88. A pilot exciter is provided on generators for which of the following reasons ?
A. To excite the poles of main exciter
B. To provide requisite starting torque to main exciter
C. To provide requisite starting torque to generator
D. None of the above
Answer: A

89. The primary reason for low power factor is supply system is due to installation of
A. induction motors
B. synchronous motors
C. single phase motors
D. d.c. motors
Answer: A

90. An over excited synchronous motor on noload is known as
A. synchronous condenser
B. generator
C. induction motor
D. alternator
Answer: A

91. Which of the following is an advantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement ?
A. Little maintenance cost
B. Ease in installation
C. Low losses
D. All of the above
Answer: D

92. For any type of consumer the ideal tariff is
A. two part tariff
B. three part tariff
C. block rate tariff
D. any of the above
Answer: B

93. The efficiency of a plant is of least concern when it is selected as
A. peak load plant
B. casual run plant
C. either A. or B.
D. base load plant
Answer: C

94. Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used as base load plant ?
A. Diesel engine plant
B. Gas turbine plant
C. Nuclear power plant
D. Pumped storage plant
Answer: C

95. Which of the following component, in a steam power plant, needs maximum maintenance attention ?
A. Steam turbine
B. Condenser
C. Water treatment plant
D. Boiler
Answer: D

96. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which of the following engine will produce least power ?
A. Supercharged engine
B. Diesel engine
C. Petrol engine
D. All of the above engines will equal power
Answer: C

97. The least share of power is provided in India, by which of the following power plants ? ‘
A. Diesel power plants
B. Thermal power plants
C. Hydro-electric power plants
D. Nuclear power plants
Answer: A

98. Submarines for under water movement, are powered by which of the following ?
A. Steam accumulators
B. Air motors
C. Diesel engines
D. Batteries
Answer: D

99. An alternator coupled to a _____ runs at slow speed, as compared to as com¬pared to others.
A. diesel engine
(6) hydraulic turbine
C. steam turbine
D. gas turbine
Answer: B

100. The effect of electric shock on human body depends on which of the following
A. current
B. voltage
C. duration of contact
D. all of the above
Answer: D

101. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous ?
A. Direct stroke on line conductor
B. Indirect stroke on conductor
C. Direct stroke on tower top
D. Direct stroke on ground wire
Answer: A

102. Which of the following devices may be used to provide protection against lightening over voltages ?
A. Horn gaps
B. Rod gaps
C. Surge absorbers
D. All of the above
Answer: D

103. When the demand of consumers is not met by a power plant, it will resort to which of the following ?
A. Load shedding
B. Power factor improvement at the , generators
C. Penalising high load consumers by increasing the charges for electricity
D. Efficient plant operation
Answer: A

104. Load shedding is possible through which of the following ?
A. Switching of the loads
B. Frequency reduction
C. Voltage reduction
D. Any of the above
Answer: D

105. In power plants insurance cover is provided for which of the following ?
A. Unskilled workers only
B. Skilled workers only
C. Equipment only
D. All of the above
Answer: D

107 A company can raise funds through
A. fixed deposits
B. shares
C. bonds
D. any of the above
Answer: D

108. Which of the following are not repayable after a stipulated period ?
A. Shares
B. Fixed deposits
C. Cash certificates
D. Bonds
Answer: A

109. The knowledge of diversity factor helps in determining
A. plant capacity
B. average load
C. peak load
D. kWh generated
(e) none of the above
Answer: A

110. Which of the following is the disadvantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement ?
A. Easily damaged by high voltage
B. Cannot be repaired
C. Short service life
D. All of the above
Answer: D

ECONOMICS of POWER GENERATION Mcqs Pdf ::

[PDF Notes] What are the different Bottlenecks and Gaps in the Growth Process Economy?

Different bottlenecks and gaps in the growth process of underdeveloped or developing economies which generate inflationary tendencies in these economies are discussed below:

1. Resources Gap:

The underdeveloped countries generally try to industrialise themselves through public sector.

But the socio- economic-political structure of these economies is such that the government is not able to raise enough resources from taxes, public borrowing and profits of the public sector undertakings to meet the expenditures on the developmental programmes.

The government has to resort to deficit financing which makes these economies inflation-prone. Similarly, the resource gap in the private sector, caused by low voluntary savings and high costs puts further pressure for excess expansion of money supply and bank credit, which, in turn, accelerates the inflationary spiral in the economy.

2. Food Bottlenecks:

Due to various structural factors, such as, defective land tenure system, primitive methods of cultivation, lack of irrigation facilities, low level of investment in agriculture, growing pressure of population on land, agricultural output (especially food supply) fails to keep pace with the increase in demand for food arising from growing population and urbanisation.

This food bottleneck first leads to a rise in the prices of food grains, and then affects the whole of the structure of prices.

3. Foreign Exchange Bottlenecks:

The underdeveloped countries suffer from a structural disequilibrium in the balance of payments due to high imports and low exports.

These economies, during their development phase, on the one hand, require the import of capital goods, essential raw materials and semi-manufactured goods and, in many cases, food grains and other consumer goods, and on the other hand, have low export earning due to small exportable surplus, trade restrictions the world over, and relatively poor competitive power of their exports.

Due to this foreign exchange bottleneck, the domestic availability of goods in short supply cannot be easily improved through imports. As a result, the prices of these goods increase and the increase spreads to other prices.

4. Infrastructural Bottlenecks:

Due to resource and foreign exchange gaps, widespread inefficiency and corruption, and faulty planning and plan implementation, most of the underdeveloped countries face in­frastructural, bottlenecks in the field of power and transport.

This restricts the growth process in other sectors and causes underutilisation of productive capacity of the economy. Underutilization of resources does not absorb the full increase in money supply and leads to an inflationary rise in prices.

5. Market Imperfections:

Various imperfections, such as, factor immobility, price rigidity, ignorance of market conditions, rigid social and institutional structures, lack of training and socialization, etc., in the underdeveloped economies do not allow an optimum allocation and utilisation of resources.

Hence, an increase in money supply is not accompanied by the increase in the supply of output, thereby raising the prices.

6. Capital Bottlenecks:

Underdeveloped countries are characterised by low rate of capital formation which is both the cause and consequence of poverty in these economies.

In fact, these economies are caught in the vicious circle of poverty; low income leading to low investment, low investment leading to capital deficiency, capital deficiency leading to low income.

Thus, monetary expansion in such economies, instead of breaking this vicious circle, tends to become inflationary because of structural inability of these economies to increase saving and investment.

7. Entrepreneurial Bottlenecks:

Entrepreneurial bottleneck in the underdeveloped countries arises due to the lack of entrepreneurial skill and the spirit of boldness and adventure.

These economies have only a small class of merchants and traders who mostly deal in consumer goods and act as money lenders and real estate agents.

They do not attempt productive and innovational activities. Thus, increased money supply makes little impact on real output and causes rise in prices.

8. Labour Bottlenecks:

A peculiar feature of the underdeveloped countries is the large magnitude of disguised unemployment which is not responsive to the increase in money supply.

Thus, due to the existence of disguised unemployment, the increase in money supply does not increase employment and output, and often generates inflationary pressure.

300+ Top Power Plant Engineering MCQs and Answers Quiz

Power Plant Engineering Multiple Choice Questions

1. The commercial sources of energy are
A. solar, wind and biomass
B. fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
C. wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
D. none of the above

Answer: B

2. In India largest thermal power station is located at
A. Kota
B. Sarni
C. Chandrapur
D. Neyveli

Answer: C

4. The percentage O2 by Weight in atmospheric air is
A. 18%
B. 23%
C. 77%
D. 79%

Answer: B

5. The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is
A. 21%
B. 23%
C. 77%
D. 79%

Answer: A

6. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is
A. high CO content in flue gases at exit
B. high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
C. high temperature of flue gases
D. the smoking exhaust from chimney

Answer: A

7. The main source of production of biogas is
A. human waste
B. wet cow dung
C. wet livestock waste
D. all above

Answer: D

8. India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at
A. Tarapore
B. Kota
C. Kalpakkam
D. none of the above

Answer: A

9. In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into electrical energy.
A. mechanical
B. chemical
C. heat
D. sound

Answer: B

10. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by
A. using focusing collector or heliostates
B. using flat plate collectors
C. using a solar pond
D. any of the above system

Answer: D

Power Plant Engineering MCQs

11. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately
A. 700 W/m2
B. 800 W/m2
C. 1 kW/m2
D. 2 kW/m2

Answer: C

12. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
A. these develop more power
B. its technology is simple
C. abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
D. these can be easily designed

Answer: C

13. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to
A. Rankine cycle efficiency
B. Carnot cycle efficiency
C. Regenerative cycle efficiency
D. Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency

Answer: D

14. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
A. 15 to 20 per cent
B. 35 to 45 per cent
C. 70 to 80 per cent
D. 90 to 95 per ceut

Answer: B

15. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 an 1 high pressure limit of p2
A. has higher the renal efficiency than the carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
B. has lower the”nal efficiency than carnot cycle operating between same pressure limit?
C. has same thermal efficiency as carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
D. may be more or less depending upon the magnitude of p1 and p2

Answer: A

16. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
A. improves in summer as compared to that in winter
(6) improves in winter as compared to that in summer
C. is unaffected by climatic conditions
D. none of the above

Answer: B

17. Carnot cycle comprises of
A. two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
B. two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
(e) two isothermal processes and three constant pressure processes
D. none of the above

Answer: B

18. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
A. change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
B. change of enthaply between inlet and outlet
C. change of entropy between inlet and outlet
D. change of temperature between inlet and outlet

Answer: B

19. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency
A. is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency
B. is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam is bled at particular pressure
C. is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
D. is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency

Answer: A

20. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of steam extracted for feed heating
A. decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
B. increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
C. is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
D. none of the above

Answer: B

21. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected
A. when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
B. when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
C. when steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
D. when steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine

Answer: B

22. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal efficiency
A. increases with number of feed heaters increasing
B. decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
C. remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
D. none of the above

Answer: A

23. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by
A. exhaust gases
B. heaters
C. draining steam from the turbine
D. all above

Answer: C

24. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to
A. utilise heat of flue gases
B. increase thermal efficiency
C. improve condenser performance
D. reduce loss of heat

Answer: B

25. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle because it has
A. higher critical temperature and pressure
B. higher saturation temperature than other fluids
C. relatively low vapourisation pressure
D. all above

Answer: D

26. Binary’vapour cycles are used to
A. increase the performance of the condenser
B. increase the efficiency of the plant
C. increase efficiency of the turbine

Answer: B

27. A steam power station requires space
A. equal to diesel power station
B. more than diesel power station
C. less than diesel power station

Answer: B

28. Economiser is used to heat
A. air
B. feed water
C. flue gases
D. all above

Answer: B

29. The modern steam turbines are
A. impulse turbines
B. reaction turbines
C. impulse-reaction turbines
D. none of the above

Answer: C

30. The draught which a chimney produces is called
A. induced draught
B. natural draught
C. forced draught
D. balanced draught

Answer: B

31. The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that produced by brick chimney for the same height is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. may be more or less

Answer: B

32. In a boiler installation the natural draught is produced
A. due to the fact that furnace gases being light go through the chimney giving place to cold air from outside to rush in
B. due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold column is higher than the pressure at the chimney base due to hot column
C. due to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure is more than its environmental pressure
D. all of the above

Answer: B

33. The draught produced, for a given height of the chimney and given mean temperature of chimney gases
A. decreases with increase in outside air temperature
B. increases with increase in outside air temperature
C. remains the same irrespective of outside air temperature
D. may increase or decrease with increase in outside air temperature

Answer: A

34. The draught produced by chimney of given height at given outside temperature
A. decreases if the chimney gas temperature increases
B. increases if the chimney gas temperature increases
C. remains same irrespective of chimney gas temperature
D. may increase or decrease

Answer: B

35. For forced draught system, the function of chimney is mainly
A. to produce draught to accelerate the combustion of fuel
B. to discharge gases high up in the atmosphere to avoid hazard
C. to reduce the temperature of the hot gases discharged
D. none of the above

Answer: B

36. Artificial draught is produced by
A. induced fan
B. forced fan
C. induced and forced fan
D. all of the above

Answer: D

37. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by
A. forced fan
B. chimney
C. steam jet
D. only motion of locomotive

Answer: C

38. For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan as compared to forced draught fan is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. not predictable

Answer: B

39. Artificial draught is produced by
A. air fans
B. steam jet
C. fan or steam jet
D. all of the above

Answer: D

40. The artificial draught normally is designed to produce
A. less smoke
B. more draught
C. less chimney gas temperature
D. all of the above

Answer: D

41. For the induced draught the fan is located
A. near bottom of chimney
B. near bottom of furnace
C. at the top of the chimney
D. anywhere permissible

Answer: A

42. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of
A. forced draught system
B. induced draught system
C. balanced draught system
D. natural draught system

Answer: C

43. The efficiency of chimney is approximately
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 20%
D. 0.25%

Answer: D

44. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially superheated at inlet is approximated by equation
A. pvls=C
B. pv1126 = C
C. pv1A = C
D. pv = C

Answer: A

45. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per unit area of steam through a nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated is
A. 0.6
B. 0.578
C. 0.555
D. 0.5457

Answer: B

46. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum mass flow rate per area of steam through a nozzle when steam is initially superheated is
A. 0.555
B. 0.578
C. 0.5457
D. 0.6

Answer: C

47. The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is defined as
A. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure of nozzle
B. the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of nozzle
C. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate per unit area is minimum
D. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate = c

Answer: D

48. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially dry saturated at inlet is approximated by equation.
A.pv = C
B.pv1A = C
C.pv1i = C
D.pv

Answer: D

49. The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle for the same pressure ratio leads to
A. increase in exit velocity from the nozzle
B. decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle
C. no change in exit velocity from the nozzle
D. increase or decrease depending upon the exit quality of steam

Answer: B

50. The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for the same pressure ratio leads to
A. increase in dryness fraction of exit steam
B. decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam
C. no change in the quality of exit steam
D. decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam depending upon inlet quality

Answer: A

51. In case of impulse steam turbine
A. there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
B. there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
C. there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
D. none of the above

Answer: C

52. The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine
A. is same
B. is different
C. increases from one side to the other side
D. decreases from one side to the other side

Answer: A

53. In De Laval steam turbine
A. the pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same as in con¬denser
B. the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure in the con¬denser
C. the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases from inlet to exit from condenser
D. none from the above

Answer: A

54. Incase of reaction steam turbine
A. there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades
B. there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
C. there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
D. none of the above

Answer: A

55. Curtis turbine is
A. reaction steam turbine
B. pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
C. pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
D. velocity compounded impulse steam turbine

Answer: B

56. Rateau steam turbine is
A. reaction steam turbine
B. velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
C. pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
D. pressure velocity compounded steam turbine

Answer: C

57. Parson’s turbine is
A. pressure compounded steam turbine
B. simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
C. simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
D. multi wheel reaction steam turbine

Answer: D

58. For Parson’s reaction steam turbine, degree of reaction is
A. 75%
B. 100%
C. 50%
D. 60%

Answer: C

59. Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on
A. exit pressure only
B. stage efficiency only
C. initial pressures and temperature only
D. all of the above

Answer: C

60. The value of reheat factor normally varies from
A. 0.5 to 0.6
B. 0.9 to 0.95
C. 1.02 to 1.06
D. 1.2 to 1.6

Answer: C

61. Steam turbines are governed by the following methods
A. Throttle governing
B. Nozzle control governing
C. By-pass governing
D. all of the above

Answer: D

62. In steam turbines the reheat factor
A. increases with the increase in number of stages
B. decreases with the increase in number of stages
C. remains same irrespective of number of stages
D. none of the above

Answer: A

63. The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as compared to without condenser, for a given pressure and temperature of steam, is
A. higher
B. lower
C. same as long as initial pressure and temperature is unchanged
D. none of the above

Answer: A

64. In jet type condensers
A. cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
B. steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them
C. steam and cooling water mix
D. steam and cooling water do not mix

Answer: C

65. In a shell and tube surface condenser
A. steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate
B. cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them
C. steam passes through the cooling tubes and cooling water surrounds them
D. all of the above varying with situation

Answer: B

66. In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is
A. fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
B. rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
C. no change in absolute pressure in the condenser
D. rise in temperature of condensed steam

Answer: A

67. The cooling section in the surface condenser
A. increases the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
B. reduces the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
C. does not affect vapour quantity extracted but reduces pump capacity of air extraction pump
D. none of the above

Answer: B

68. Edward’s air pump
A. removes air and also vapour from condenser
B. removes only air from condenser
C. removes only un-condensed vapour from condenser
D. removes air alongwith vapour and also the condensed water from condenser

Answer: D

69. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is
A. to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the primemover
B. to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
C. to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
D. all of the above

Answer: D

70. In a regenerative surface condenser
A. there is one pump to remove air and condensate
B. there are two pumps to remove air and condensate
C. there are three pumps to remove air, vapour and condensate
D. there is no pump, the condensate gets removed by gravity

Answer: B

71. Evaporative type of condenser has
A. steam in pipes surrounded by water
B. water in pipes surrounded by steam
C. either A. or B.
D. none of the above

Answer: A

72. Pipes carrying steam are generally made up of
A. steel
B. cast iron
C. copper
D. aluminium

Answer: A

73. For the safety of a steam boiler the number of safety valves fitted are
A. four
B. three
C. two
D. one

Answer: C

74. Steam turbines commonly used in steam power station are
A. condensing type
B. non-condensing type
C. none of the above

Answer: A

75. Belt conveyer can be used to transport coal at inclinations upto
A. 30°
B. 60°
C. 80°
D. 90°

Answer: A

76. The maximum length of a screw conveyer is about
A. 30 metres
B. 40 metres
C. 60 metres
D. 100 metres

Answer: A

77. The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and heat recovery equipment is about
A. 25 to 30%
B. 40 to 50%
C. 65 to 70%
D. 85 to 90%

Answer: D

78. The average ash content in Indian co als is about
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%

Answer: D

79. Load center in a power station is
A. center of coal fields
B. center of maximum load of equipments
C. center of gravity of electrical system

Answer: C

80. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is of the order of
A. 20 kgf/cm2
B. 50 kgf/cm2
C. 100 kgf/cm2
D. 150 kgf/cm2

Answer: D

81. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by
A. 1 to 5%
B. 4 to 10%
C. 10 to 12%

Answer: B

82. The capacity of large turbo-generators varies from
A. 20 to 100 MW
B. 50 to 300 MW
C. 70 to 400 MW
D. 100 to 650 MW

Answer: B

83. Caking coals are those which
A. burn completely
B. burn freely
C. do not form ash
D. form lumps or masses of coke

Answer: D

84. Primary air is that air which is used to
A. reduce the flame length
B. increase the flame length
C. transport and dry the coal
D. provide air around burners for get¬ting optimum combustion

Answer: C

85. Secondary air is the air used to
A. reduce the flame length
B. increase the flame length
C. transport and dry the coal
D. provide air round the burners for getting optimum combustion

Answer: D

86. In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are used to remove
A. dust
B. clinkers
C. iron particles
D. sand

Answer: C

87. Load carrying capacity of belt conveyor is about
A. 20 to 40 tonnes/hr
B. 50 to 100 tonnes/hr
C. 100 to 150 tonnes/hr
D. 150 to 200 tonnes/hr

Answer: B

88. Method which is commonly applied for unloading the coal for small power plant is
A. lift trucks
B. coal accelerators
C. tower cranes
D. belt conveyor

Answer: B

89. Bucket elevators are used for
A. carrying coal in horizontal direction
B. carrying coal in vertical direction
C. carrying coal in any direction

Answer: B

90. The amount of air which is supplied for complete combustion is called
A. primary air
B. secondary air
C. tertiary air

Answer: B

91. In ______ system fuel from a central pulverizing unit is delivered to a bunker and then to the various burners
A. unit
B. central
C. none of the above

Answer: B

92. Under-feed stokers work best for _______ coals high in volatile matter and with caking tendency
A. anthracite
B. lignite
C. semibituminous and bituminous

Answer: C

93. Example of overfeed type stoker is
A. chain grate
B. spreader
C. travelling grate
D. all of the above

Answer: D

94. Where unpulverised coal has to be used and boiler capacity is large, the stoker which is used is
A. underfeed stoker
B. overfeed stoker
C. any

Answer: B

95. TravelUng grate stoker can burn coals at the rates of
A. 50—75 kg/m per hour
B. 75—100 kg/m per hour
C. 100—150 kg/m per hour
D. 150—200 kg/m2 per hour

Answer: D

96. Blowing down of boiler water is the process
A. to reduce the boiler pressure
B. to increase the steam temperature
C. to control the solid concentration in the boiler water by removing some of the concentrated saline water
D. none of the above

Answer: C

97. Deaerative heating is done to
A. heat the water
B. heat the air in the water
C. remove dissolved gases in the water

Answer: C

98. Reheat factor is the ratio of
A. isentropic heat drop to useful heat drop
B. adiabatic heat drop to isentropic heat drop
C. cumulative actual enthalpy drop for the stages to total is isentropic enthalpy heat drop

Answer: C

99. The value of the reheat factor is of the order of
A. 0.8 to 1.0
B. 1.0 to 1.05
C. 1.1 to 1.5
D. above 1.5

Answer: C

100. Compounding of steam turbine is done for
A. reducing the work done
B. increasing the rotor speed
C. reducing the rotor speed
D. balancing the turbine

Answer: C

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