For the smooth and automatic working of gold standard, certain conditions are to be fulfilled. These conditions are called ‘the rules of the gold standard game’. According to Crowther. “The gold standard is a jealous God. It will work provided it is given exclusive devotion.”
1. Free Movements of Gold:
There should be no restriction on the movement of gold among the gold standard countries. They can freely import and export gold.
2. Elastic Money Supply:
The Government of the gold standard countries must expand currency and credit when gold is coming in and contract currency and credit when gold is going out.
This requires that whatever non-gold money (paper money or coins or demand deposits) may be in circulation, gold reserves in some fixed proportion must be kept.
For example, if the gold reserve ratio is 50%, then for a reduction of $ 1 gold reserve, there must be a reduction of $ 2 of credit money.
3. Flexible Price System:
Price-cost system of gold standard countries should be flexible so that when money supplies increases (or decreases) as a result of gold inflow (or gold outflow), the prices, wages, interest rates, etc., rise (or fall).
4. Free Movement of Goods:
There should also be free movement of goods and services among the gold standard countries.
Under gold standard, differences in prices between countries are expressed through excess of exports or imports of one country over the other and the excess of exports or imports are adjusted through inflow or outflow of gold. Thus, restrictions on import or export of goods disturb the automatic working of the gold standard.
5. No Speculative Capital Movements:
There should not be large movements of capital between countries. Small short-term capital movements are necessary to fill the gap in the international payments and, thereby, to correct the disequilibrium in the balance of payments.
For example, the monetary authority of a country, with adverse balance of payments, can raise interest rates, and thus, attract capital from other countries and, in turn, correct its adverse balance of payments position.
But large panic movements of capital as a result of political, social and economic disturbances are dangerous for the smooth working of the gold standard.
6. No International Indebtedness:
Gold standard countries should make efforts to avoid international indebtedness. When external debt increases, the country should increase exports to pay back the interest and the principal.
7. Proper Distribution of Gold:
An important requirement for the successful working of the gold standard is the availability of sufficient gold reserves and their propter distribution among the participating countries.
1. The S.I. unit of power is
A. Henry
B. coulomb
C. watt
D. watt-hour Answer: C
2. Electric pressure is also called
A. resistance
B. power
C. voltage
D. energy Answer: C
3. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance are called
A. insulators
B. inductors
C. semi-conductors
D. conductors Answer: D
4. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?
A. Cast iron
B. Copper
C. Carbon
D. Tungsten Answer: B
5. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?
A. Copper
B. Gold
C. Silver
D. Paper Answer: D
CURRENT ELECTRICITY MCQs
6. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called
A. resistance
B. reluctance
C. conductance
D. inductance Answer: C
7. Conductance is reciprocal of
A. resistance
B. inductance
C. reluctance
D. capacitance Answer: A
8. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as
A. length
B. area of cross-section
C. temperature
D. resistivity Answer: B
9. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases and then decreases
D. remains constant Answer: A
10. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors
A. decreases
B. increases
C. first increases and then decreases
D. remains constant Answer: A
11. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its specific resistance is around
A. 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m
B. 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m
C. 1.6 x 10″”8 Q-m
D. 1.8 x 10″8 Q-m Answer: C
12. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected in parallel. The total resistance of the combination is
A. 5 ohms
B. 10 ohms
C. 15 ohms
D. 55 ohms Answer: A
13. An instrument which detects electric current is known as
A. voltmeter
B. rheostat
C. wattmeter
D. galvanometer Answer: D
14. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage across the resistor is
A. 33 V
B. 66 v
C. 80 V
D. 132 V Answer: B
15. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V. The resistance of the light bulb is
A. 400 Q
B. 600 Q
C. 800 Q
D. 1000 Q Answer: C
16. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is 12 ohms. If the resistance of one branch is 18 ohms, what is the resistance of the other ?
A. 18 Q
B. 36 Q
C. 48 Q
D. 64 Q Answer: B
17. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 Q. If the same four wires are connected is series the effective resistance will be
A. 1 Q
B. 2 Q
C. 3 Q
D. 4 Q Answer: D
18. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of resistances 8 ohms and 12 ohms respectively. The current in each branch is
A. 6.4 A, 6.9 A
B. 6.4 A, 9.6 A
C. 4.6 A, 6.9 A
D. 4.6 A, 9.6 A Answer: B
19. Current velocity through a copper conductor is
A. the same as propagation velocity of electric energy
B. independent of current strength
C. of the order of a few ^.s/m
D. nearly 3 x 108 m/s Answer: C
20. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature co-efficient of resistance?
A. Manganin
B. Porcelain
C. Carbon
D. Copper Answer: A
21. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Q resistor but have several 1000 Q ones which you would connect
A. two in parallel
B. two in parallel and one in series
C. three in parallel
D. three in series Answer: B
22. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when
A. same current passes in turn through both
B. both carry the same value of current
C. total current equals the sum of branch currents
D. sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f. Answer: A
23. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C. circuit?
A. Elements have individual currents
B. Currents are additive
C. Voltages are additive
D. Power are additive Answer: D
24. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-efficient of resistance?
A. Copper
B. Aluminum
C. Carbon
D. Brass Answer: C
25. Ohm’s law is not applicable to
A. vacuum tubes
B. carbon resistors
C. high voltage circuits
D. circuits with low current densities Answer: A
26. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?
A. Iron
B. Silver
C. Copper
D. Carbon Answer: B
27. For which of the following ‘ampere second’ could be the unit ?
A. Reluctance
B. Charge
C. Power
D. Energy Answer: B
28. All of the following are equivalent to watt except
A. (amperes) ohm
B. joules/sec.
C. amperes x volts
D. amperes/volt Answer: D
29. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10 W is likely to be a
A. metallic resistor
B. carbon resistor
C. wire wound resistor
D. variable resistor Answer: C
30. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature co-efficient ?
A. Aluminium
B. Paper
C. Rubber
D. Mica Answer: A
31. Varistors are
A. insulators
B. non-linear resistors
C. carbon resistors
D. resistors with zero temperature coefficient Answer: B
32. Insulating materials have the function of
A. preventing a short circuit between conducting wires
B. preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
C. conducting very large currents
D. storing very high currents Answer: B
33. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in
A. ampere-hours
B. ampere-volts
C. kWh
D. amperes Answer: D
34. The minimum charge on an ion is
A. equal to the atomic number of the atom
B. equal to the charge of an electron
C. equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom (#) zero Answer: B
35. In a series circuit with unequal resistances
A. the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
B. the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
C. the lowest resistance has the highest current
D. the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop Answer: D
36. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
A. carbon
B. aluminium
C. tungsten
D. nickel Answer: C
37. A 3 Q resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of
A. 2 watts
B. 4 watts
C. 6 watts
D. 8 watts Answer: C
38. Which of the following statement is true?
A. A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
B. A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
C. A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
D. A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter Answer: C
39. The resistance of a few meters of wire conductor in closed electrical circuit is
A. practically zero
B. low
C. high
D. very high Answer: A
40. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
A. increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
B. increases in each branch
C. is zero in all branches
D. is zero in the highest resistive branch Answer: C
41. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes
A. 0.4 ohm
B. 0.6 ohm
C. 0.8 ohm
D. 1.0 ohm Answer: A
42. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one bulb burns open
A. there will be heavy current in the main line
B. rest of the two bulbs will not light
C. all three bulbs will light
D. the other two bulbs will light Answer: D
43. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series swift a battery across them, which of the following statement is true ?
A. The current through each bulb in same
B. The voltage across each bulb is not same
C. The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
D. None of the above Answer: A
44. Two resistances Rl and Ri are connected in series across the voltage source where Rl>Ri. The largest drop will be across
A. Rl
B. Ri
C. either Rl or Ri
D. none of them Answer: A
45. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 6.28 x 1018 electrons with potential difference of 20 V across the terminal ?
A. 5 joules
B. 10 joules
C. 15 joules
D. 20 joules
Ans:
46. A closed switch has a resistance of
A. zero
B. about 50 ohms
C. about 500 ohms
D. infinity Answer: A
47. The hot resistance of the bulb’s filament is higher than its cold resistance because the temperature co-efficient of the filament is
A. zero
B. negative
C. positive
D. about 2 ohms per degree Answer: C
48. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current due to
A. reactance
B. capacitance
C. impedance
D. resistance
Ans:
49. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided
A. to prevent leakage of current
B. to prevent shock
C. both of above factors
D. none of above factors Answer: C
50. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on
A. the magnitude of voltage on the conductor
B. the magnitude of current flowing through it
C. both A. and B.
D. none of the above Answer: A
51. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit ?
A. Voltage
B. Current
C. Power
D. Resistance Answer: B
52. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is replaced by 100 W bulb, the heater output will
A. decrease
B. increase
C. remain same
D. heater will burn out Answer: B
53. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes, using same supply mains
A. length of heating element should be decreased
B. length of heating element should be increased
C. length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
D. none of the above Answer: A
54. An electric filament bulb can be worked from
A. D.C. supply only
B. A.C. supply only
C. Battery supply only
D. All above Answer: D
55. Resistance of a tungsten lamp as applied voltage increases
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains same
D. none of the above Answer: B
56. Electric current passing through the circuit produces
A. magnetic effect
B. luminous effect
C. thermal effect
D. chemical effect
(e) all above effects Answer: C
57. Resistance of a material always decreases if
A. temperature of material is decreased
B. temperature of material is increased
C. number of free electrons available become more
D. none of the above is correct Answer: C
58. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?
A. Input power
B. Losses
C. True component of power
D. kWh consumed
(e) Ratio of output to input Answer: B
59. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature rises. This is due to
A. collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
B. the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
C. mutual collisions between metal atoms
D. mutual collisions between conducting electrons Answer: A
60. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
A. 4 : 25
B. 25 : 4
C. 2 : 5
D. 5 : 2 Answer: C
61. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
A. it takes in proton
B. its atoms are removed
C. it gives away electrons
D. it gives away positive charge Answer: C
62. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in reducing the magnitude of the current.
A. Reactor
B. Capacitor
C. Inductor
D. Resistor Answer: D
63. It becomes more difficult to remove
A. any electron from the orbit
B. first electron from the orbit
C. second electron from the orbit
D. third electron from the orbit Answer: D
64. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will
A. reduce
B. increase
C. decrease
D. become zero Answer: C
65. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total resistance of the load
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. none of the above Answer: B
66. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating). Which of the following statement is correct ?
A. 100 W lamp will glow brighter
B. 40 W lamp will glow brighter
C. Both lamps will glow equally bright
D. 40 W lamp will fuse Answer: B
67. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be
A. 4.84 Q
B. 48.4 Q
C. 484 ft
D. 4840 Q Answer: C
68. In the case of direct current
A. magnitude and direction of current remains constant
B. magnitude and direction of current changes with time
C. magnitude of current changes with time
D. magnitude of current remains constant Answer: A
69. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is observed. This suggests that the type of supply is
A. A.C.
B. D.C.
C. any of above two
D. none of the above Answer: B
70. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage increases.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. none of the above Answer: B
71. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in
A. parallel
B. series
C. series-parallel
D. end-to-end Answer: A
72. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be
A. very low
B. low
C. high
D. any value Answer: C
73. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because switching operation produces
A. arcs across separating contacts
B. mechanical noise of high intensity
C. both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
D. none of the above Answer: A
74. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
A. resistance
B. inductance
C. capacitance
D. impedance Answer: B
75. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its length without change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
A. 1/9 times
B. 3 times
(e) 9 times
D. unchanged Answer: C
76. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it after removing a portion of it, the power of the heater will
A. decrease
B. increase
C. remain constant
D. none of the above Answer: B
77. A field of force can exist only between
A. two molecules
B. two ions
C. two atoms
D. two metal particles Answer: B
78. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called
A. semi-conductor
B. super-conducto
C. compound
D. insulator Answer: C
79. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of
A. a column of mercury
B. a cube of carbon
C. a cube of copper
D. the unit length of wire Answer: A
80. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will be
A. 9 times
B. 1/9 times
C. 1/3 times
D. 3 times Answer: B
91. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?
A. Lorentz method
B. Releigh method
C. Ohm’s law method
D. Wheatstone bridge method Answer: D
92. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two corners ?
A. 3/2 Q
(b 6 Q
C. 4 Q
D. 8/3 Q Answer: C
93. Ohm’s law is not applicable to
A. semi-conductors
B. D.C. circuits
C. small resistors
D. high currents Answer: A
94. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one conductor is four times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms the resistance of other conductor will be
A. 160 ohms
B. 80 ohms
C. 20 ohms
D. 10 ohms Answer: D
95. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2 £2/m. For a heater of 1 kW at 200 V, the length of wire required will be
A. 80 m
B. 60 m
C. 40 m
D. 20 m Answer: A
96. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
A. ohms/°C
B. mhos/ohm°C
(e) ohms/ohm°C
D. mhos/°C Answer: C
97. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?
A. Zinc
B. Lead
C. Mercury
D. Copper
Ans:
98. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
A. current through supply line flows at slower speed
B. supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
C. resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
D. supply wires are made of superior material Answer: C
99. The condition for the validity under Ohm’s law is that
A. resistance must be uniform
B. current should be proportional to the size of the resistance
C. resistance must be wire wound type
D. temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature at negative end Answer: A
100. Which of the following statement is correct ?
A. A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between that of a conductor and an insulator
B. A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having average value of conductivity of metal and insulator
C. A semi-conductor is one which con¬ducts only half of the applied voltage
D. A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting material and insulator Answer: A
101. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it
A. has lower wattage rating
B. has higher wattage rating
C. has large number of turns
D. offers large number of tapping Answer: B
102. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper conductor of identical cross-section, for the same electrical resistance, is
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 100%
D. 150% Answer: A
103. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads
A. zero
B. infinite
C. high but within tolerance
D. low but not zero Answer: B
104. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals but much greater than that of typical insulators.
A. Varistors
B. Thermistor
C. Semi-conductors
D. Variable resistors Answer: C
105. All good conductors have high
A. conductance
B. resistance
C. reluctance
D. thermal conductivity Answer: A
106. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from
A. charcoal
B. silicon carbide
C. nichrome
D. graphite Answer: C
107. Voltage dependent resistors are used
A. for inductive circuits
B. to supress surges
C. as heating elements
D. as current stabilizers Answer: B
108. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly
A. 1840
B. 1840
C. 30
D. 4 Answer: A
109. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7 Answer: B
110. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20 W the total power supplied by the voltage source equals
A. 10 W
B. 20 W
C. 40 W
D. 60 W Answer: D
111. A thermistor has
A. positive temperature coefficient
B. negative temperature coefficient
C. zero temperature coefficient
D. variable temperature coefficient Answer: C
112. If/, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then according to Joule’s law heat produced will be proportional to
A. I2Rt
B. I2Rf
C. I2R2t
D. I2R2t* Answer: A
113. Nichrome wire is an alloy of
A. lead and zinc
B. chromium and vanadium
C. nickel and chromium
D. copper and silver Answer: C
114. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one micro ampere current to flow through it. The conductance of the circuit is
A. 1 n-mho
B. 106 mho
C. 1 milli-mho
D. none of the above Answer: A
115. Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient ?
A. Compounds of silver
B. Liquid metals
C. Metallic alloys
D. Electrolytes Answer: D
116. Conductance : mho ::
A. resistance : ohm
B. capacitance : henry
C. inductance : farad
D. lumen : steradian Answer: A
117. 1 angstrom is equal to
A. 10-8 mm
B. 10″6 cm
C. 10″10 m
D. 10~14 m Answer: C
118. One newton meter is same as
A. one watt
B. one joule
C. five joules
D. one joule second Answer: B
If two or more instances of the phenomenon under investigation have only one circumstance in common, the circumstance in which alone all the instances agree, is the cause (or effect) of the given phenomenon.
The importance of this method as compared to the procedure, of simple enumeration. is that it seeks to identify the one and the only circumstance that is associated with the effect. It is not the observation of merely the conjunction of one phenomenon with another phenomenon for a number of times.
There is the need of examining the constituent factors involved with the instance about which a causal connection is suspected.
Among the antecedent factors and the consequent factors the presence of the single invariable factor is taken into account for the causal relationship.
Obviously there is the need of more than two instances where the event occurs. In all those cases there should be only one circumstance common both in the antecedent and consequent side. For example, if it is noticed that in a village the’ villagers have become able to get very good crops and they ail have used a definite type of fertilizer for their cultivation then the causal connection between the two events may be thought of.
Here one can notice the agreement between using a particular fertilizer and getting good crops and on that basis of agreement the causal connection between the pair of events may be established.
Similarly noticing the presence of large number of coconut trees in the sea areas one can draw the conclusion that climate nearer to the sea is suitable for the better growth of coconut trees.
Symbolically the method of Agreement may be represented as:
A B C M followed by x y z p
A C D G followed by x z s t
A E F D followed by x n r s
A and x are causally related.
In the above example in the antecedent side A is common to all three cases. B is absent in the 2nd and 3rd instances, C are absent in the 3rd instance, D is absent in the 1st instance, E and F are absent in the 1st and 2nd instances, M is absent in two other instance: So the three instances agree in respect of the occurrence of A in the antecedent side.
Similar x is common to all the three instances of consequent side. On this agreement it can be said that A is either the cause or a part of the cause of x.
This method is based on the first principle of elimination i.e. “whatever antecedes can be left out without prejudice to the effect can be no part of the cause”.
The significance of this principle is that if after taking away some circumstance still the effect is present” then that circumstance cannot be the cause.
In other words a circumstar in the absence which the effect occurs cannot be the cause. Basing on this principle B, C, M, G, E, F, cannot be the cause.
Let us take some concrete example. By reading the books published by the Bureau of Textbook Preparation if a number of students achieve success in examinations, other conditions remaining variable; it will be presumed that the success of students may be d to their reading of the books of the Bureau of Textbook Preparation.
From a dental survey it was seen that in some particular cities the dental decay was remarkably’ low. After further investigation it was found that in their water supplies there was high level of fluoride. Thus it was supposed that the use of fluoride water is causally connected with the decrease of dental decay.
Characteristics
1. It is a method of single agreement. Mellone and Coffey call this method as the method of single agreement. Here there is agreement in one circumstance only. Other circumstances differ in the instances.
In the case of more than one agreement this method is ineffective. The singleness of the agreement gives the impression of a causal relation
2. It is a method of observation. Through the observation of a number of instances where the common factor of agreement is found the causal connection can be established. Ii; is primarily a method of observation. But it does not mean that it is not applicable to experimental cases.
3. It is a method of discovery rather than a method of proof. Observation is a guide to discover something rather than to prove something. Since the method is a method of observation; it is a method of discovery.
Through this method a causal connection is discovered between two phenomena because of their simultaneous occurrences. When two phenomena occur simultaneously it gives the impression that there might be a causal link between them.
Class 9 PEASANTS and FARMERS Questions and Answers pdf :-
1. What is meant by the term British Agricultural Revolution?
The term British Agricultural Revolution describes a period of agricultural developments in Britain between 16th century and mid 18th century which saw a massive increase in agricultural production and net output.
2. Despite availability of labour, why did farmers invest in threshing machines?
Rich farmers invested in threshing machines because
(i) They feared shortage of labour due to Napoleonic.
(ii) Moreover they felt that the available labour was and prone to drinking.
(iii) To reduce dependence on labour and increase efficiency.
3. Why and how were the Native Americans driven westwards?
The white settlers moved westwards as this area held a lot of promise. Forests could be cut to provide land for cultivation, animals hunted for their skin; and mountains mined for their minerals.
To evacuate Native Americans numerous wars were fought, in which Indians were massacred and their villages burnt. Ultimately they were forced to sign treaties and give up their land.
4. Give any two reasons for the increase in food production in the 19th century.
Food production increased in 19th century because:
(i) More lands were brought under cultivation.
(ii) Landlords sliced pasturelands and carved up open fields.
(iii) Forest commons were cut up and marsh land was made suitable for cultivation.
5. What were the occupations of Native Americans?
(i) Native Americans lived by hunting, gathering and fishing.
(ii) Others cultivated corn, beans, tobacco and pumpkin.
6. Give any two positive results of enclosures on English agriculture.
(i) Enclosures helped bring new land under cultivation.
(ii) Helped increase food production.
(iii) Barren land was made cultivable by clearance of forests and marshes. (Any two)
7. How did the introduction of threshing machines improve agriculture?
Introduction of threshing machines improved agriculture by improving efficiency and reducing costs.
8. How did the British build resources of the state?
The British built the resources of the state by imposing a regular system of land revenue, increasing revenue rates and by expanding area under cultivation at the expense of grazing lands and forests.
9. Name some crops which India under British colonial rule produced for the world market.
The crops which India produced for the world market were-indigo, opium, sugar cane, jute, wheat and several others.
10. Why were Indian farmers pressurised to grow commercial crops?
Indian farmers were pressurised to grow commercial crops to feed the growing urban population of Europe and to meet the growing raw material needs of the mills of Lanchashire and Manchester in England.
11 What commodities was East India Company buying in China, for sale in England?
Tea and silk were the two commodities which East India Company was buying in China, to trade in England.
12. Why did British have a negative balance of payment with China?
The British traders had a negative balance of payment with China because while tea became popular in Britain, England in the late 18th century produced nothing which they could trade to China i.e., persuade the Chinese to buy.
13. What was the cause of anxiety of the English merchants?
The cause of anxiety of the English merchants was the constant outflow of treasure- silver bullion to finance the tea trade.
14. Trade in which commodity helped the English reverse the unfavourable balance of payment with China?
Trade in opium which was produced in India, helped the English reverse the unfavourable balance of payment with China.
15. Where was poppy/opium cultivation done for export to China?
Poppy cultivation was done in Bengal for export to China.
16. Why was the trade in opium illegal?
Trade in opium was illegal because the Chinese Emperor had forbidden its production and sale except for medicinal purposes.
17. Who introduced opium into China in the 16th century?
The Portuguese had introduced opium into China in the 16th century.
18. Why had the Chinese banned the production and sale of Opium?
Except for medicinal purposes the Chinese Emperor had banned the production and sale of Opium because of its addictive properties.
19. Why was Opium trade so important for the British?
Opium trade was important for the British because returns from Opium sale financed the tea purchases in China and helped reverse the unfavourable balance of trade.
20. Why the war between Britain and China (1837-1842) was called the Opium War?
The war was called the Opium War because the primary cause of war was the British illegal trade in Opium.
21. What was the major consequence of the Opium War (1837-1842)?
China was defeated and forced to accept the humiliating terms of the treaties. These unequal treaties forced China to open up for trade with foreign merchants.
22. Expansion of wheat agriculture caused many problems in the Great Plains. Explain.
(i) Expansion of wheat agriculture led to terrifying dust storms in the 1930s. People were blinded and choked, while cattle suffocated to death. (ii) Fences as well as fields were buried by sand. Tractors and machines were clogged with dust and damaged beyond repair.
23. State any one cause of Dust Bowl in Great Plains of USA.
To undertake extensive wheat cultivation to meet world demands, entire landscape was stripped of grass cover. Thus when rains failed year after year and winds blew ferociously the whole region became a dust bowl.
24. Define the term Enclosure.
Fences coming up on common land were termed enclosure.
25. Give one way in which enclosures affected the poor farmers.
With ‘Enclosures’ the poor farmer lost his customary rights to graze his cattle etc.
26. Why did farmers undertake cultivation of turnip and clover?
Farmers undertook cultivation of turnip and clover because these crops helped enhance the fertility of the soil by increasing the nitrogen content of the soil. Turnip was also a good fodder relished by cattle.
27. What was the attitude of the British Parliament towards the Enclosure Movement?
The early enclosures were not supported by the state but by mid 18th century a number of enclosure acts, which culminated in the General Enclosure Act of 1801 was passed legalising enclosures.
28. State the difference between enclosures of the 16th century and 18th century England.
The 16th century enclosures proceeded slowly and were created by individual landlord with the intention to promote sheep farming.
In the 18th century, unlike the 16th century, there was a frantic effort to enclose lands, signifying changing times. Land was enclosed to promote grain production.
29. What was the occupation of the Native Americans?
The occupation of the Native Americans was largely nomadic. Many lived only by hunting, gathering and fishing. Others cultivated corn, beans, tobacco and pumpkin. Still others were expert trappers of beaver.
30. What was the cause of conflict between the British government and the Indian peasant?
The cause of conflict between the British government and the Indian farmer was the unremunerative price of opium given to the cultivator. The British bought opium at a very cheap price and sold it at a high price to opium agents in China.
“If two or more instances in which the phenomenon occurs have only one circumstance in common, while two or more instances in which it does not occur have nothing in common save the absence of that circumstance, the circumstance in which alone the two sets of instances differ is the effect or the cause, or an indispensable part of the cause of the phenomenon”.
The importance of this method is that the causal connection is determined on the basis of double agreements i.e., the agreement in presence and agreement in absence.
Hence for this method there is the need of two sets of instances. For example, suppose in a village by using a particular fertilizer people get good harvest and in the neighboring village, people have not used that fertilizer and have not got good harvest then the causal j connection between two incidents namely using the fertilizer and getting good harvest can be suspected.
Thus where the presence of one incident leads to the occurrence of another incident and the absence of that incident leads to the absence of the other incident a causal connection between the two phenomena can be suggested.
Because of the double agreement i.e. agreement in presence and the agreement in absence the causal connection can be ascertained with higher probability. The following example will illustrate it.
Symbolical example: – Positive Set
ABC are followed by abc
A B D are followed by abd
A C D are followed by acd
AND Negative Set
B C D are followed by bcd
C D E are followed by cde
B E F are followed by bef
A and a are causally related.
In this example among the positive instances A is common to all the three antecedent instances and correspondingly as is common in the three consequent instance.-, Moreover, among the negative instances A is absent in the three antecedent instances and correspondingly a is absent in the consequent instances. Here a causal connection between A and a is accepted.
This method is based on both the first and second principle of elimination. It follows that whatever is absent in presence of a phenomenon cannot be the cause of that phenomenon and a circumstance in whose presence the effect does not occur cannot be the cause. Basing on these principles. B, C, M, G, E, F, D cannot be the cause.
Concrete example:
1. In the cricket matches where Saurav is captain of the Indian team, the team wins and when Saurav is absent the term loses. Other circumstances being the same the captainship of Saurav is the cause of the winning of the team.
2. The students who follow the textbooks regularly get good marks. The students who do not follow the textbooks but follow notebooks do not get good marks.
Other conditions remaining almost the same it follows that following textbooks and securing good marks are causally connected.
Characteristic:
1. In the joint method there is application of the method of agreement and the method of difference. Hence the principles of elimination of both these methods are applied in this method to eliminate the accidental factors and to find out the real cause.
Whatever antecedent can be left out without affecting the effect cannot be the cause. Similarly what cannot be eliminated without affecting the phenomenon must be causally related with it.
2. It is not a primary method. It is the modification of the method of agreement and the method of difference. Fowler calls this method “the double method of agreement” and Bain calls it “the method of double agreement”.
But Mill considers this method as a special modification of the method of difference and calls it, “the indirect method of difference”. Venn considers this method as the method of exclusion.
3. In the method of difference only two instances are taken into consideration whereas in the joint method two sets of instances are taken into consideration.
The method of difference strictly adopts experiment for finding out the instances but in the joint method instances may be collected either by experiment or by observation.
4. The joint method proves the causal relation in an indirect way. The method of agreement suggests a causal relation through the positive set and the joint method confirms the suggestion through another set, the negative set. Hence it is supposed to be the method of proof.
Advantages or merits of the method:
1. It is a dependable method because it proves the supposition obtained through the method of agreement. The method becomes more dependable if the instances are chosen carefully.
2. This method can be applied to the cases of observation and also to the cases of experiment. When the instances are taken from observations it becomes a modification of the method of agreement and when the experimental instances are taken into consideration it becomes a modification of the method of difference.
3. It has a wide range of application. The cases of plurality of causes cannot create difficulty for this method. For it considers the negative instances that help to avoid the unconnected common antecedent.
Disadvantages:
1. Mill claims that this method eliminations the difficulties arising out of the plurality of causes. The method of agreement is unable to tackle it.
Some logicians point out that the possibility of plurality of causes is not agreeably eliminated by this method. Because the particular agreeable factor may be the cause so far. But there may remain many other cases unexamined where the cause may be different. So this method does not fare better to tackle the problem arising out of plurality of causes.
2. This method also fails in case of intermixture of effects. The method can be applied when the antecedents and the unsequents are distinguishable in conjunction of causes and intermixture of effects. But if the consequents make a complex phenomenon it is not possible to apply the joint method.
3. The joint method is of no value in case of permanent causes. For it is not possible to procure negative instances.
4. It also fails to distinguish the cause from co-existence. Because in respect of the co-existence of incidents two phenomena may be present or absent in several instances. But they may not be causally related.
Lightning always precedes thunder and they are also absent together. But lightning is not the cause of thunder, but they are the co-effects of some other cause.
PASTORALISM in the MODERN WORLD Questions and Answers pdf :-
1. Name any five important pastoral nomadic communities found in India in the mountains, plains, and plateau and desert regions.
(i) Mountains: Gujjars Bakarwala, Gaddi’s.
(ii) Plains and Plateau: Dhangars, Banjaras.
(iii) Desert Region: Raikas.
2. Name any four states/regions in India where pastoral nomadism is practised.
(i) Jammu and Kashmir,
(ii) Himachal Pradesh,
(iii) Maharashtra,
(iv) Uttar Pradesh,
(v) Rajasthan.
3. Give names of any one pastoral community of
(i) Himachal Pradesh
(ii) Jammu and Kashmir.
Himachal Pradesh: Gaddi Shepherds Jammu and Kashmir: Gujjar Bakarwals
4. Name the pastorial communities of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
Pastoral communities that lived in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh were:
(i) Gollas
(ii) Kurumas, and
(iii) Kurubas.
5. What was the occupation of the pastoral communities of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh?
The pastoral communities of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka herded cattle, raised sheep and goats and sold woven blankets. Of them the Kurumas and Kurubas lived near the woods, cultivated small patches of land and indulged in a variety of petty trades.
6. Gujjar herders originally belong to which state.
The Gujjar herders originally came from the state of Jammu and Kashmir. In the 19th century search for pastures brought them to hills of Uttar Pradesh.
7. What is the pattern of migration of Gujjar herders?
The Gujjar herders in winters came down to the dry, forests of the bhabar and in summers they went up to the high meadows i.e., the bugyals.
8. Where the Banjaras found and what were their occupations?
Banjaras a well-known group of graziers were found in
(i) U.P.
(ii) Punjab
(iii) Rajasthan
(iv) Madhya Pradesh, and
(v) Maharashtra
Occupation:
They were nomadic and mainly graziers and sold plough, cattle, and other goods to villagers in exchange for grain and fodder.
9. Who are Raikas, where are they found?
(i) Raikas are a nomadic community found in the deserts of Rajasthan. (ii) They are pastoralists and cultivators.
10. Why are the Raika community both pastoralists and cultivators?
The uncertainty and meagre rainfall in the desert region leading to fluctuating harvests made the Raikas combine both cultivation and pastoralism as means of occupation.
11. Why did pastoral communities move from place to place?
Pastoral communities moved from place to place in search of pastures for their cattle.
12. Give any one change that occurred in Maasai society during colonial rule.
During colonial rule the traditional difference based on age between elders and warriors was disturbed and a new distinction between wealthy and poor pastoralists developed.
13. How did the British seek to administer the affairs of the Maasai?
To administer the Maasai the British appointed chiefs of different sub-groups of Maasai. They were made responsible for tribal affairs and imposed restrictions on warfare and raids.
14. Give names of any two pastoral communities of Africa.
(i) Bedouins (ii) Berbers.
15. Give two factors for pastoral communities being nomadic.
Pastoral communities are nomadic because:
(i) It enables them to survive bad times and avoid crisis in difficult terrain.
(ii) Continuous movement is also because of exhaustion of pasture and there insurability.
16. What does the word Maasai mean? Where are they found?
The word Maasai means ‘My People’. It is derived from the word ‘Maa. Maasai’s are found primarily in East Africa: 3,00,000 in Southern Kenya and 1,50,000 in Tanzania.
17. How did poor Maasai pastoralists survive war and famines?
During war, famines and other bad times the poor Maasai pastoralists searched for work in the towns as charcoal burners, at road and building construction sites to make a living.
18. Give names of one game reserve in
(i) Kenya (ii) Tanzania.
Kenya:
Samburu National Park/Maasai Mara
Tanzania:
Serengeti Park
19. What was the Grazing Act? Or why did the pastoralists hate the Grazing Act?
By the Grazing Act, the British levied tax on the pastoralists, on every animal they took to pastures to graze. It was hated by the impoverished pastoral community for it’s was contrary to their customary rights.
20. Give one reason why the British passed the Criminal Tribes Act?
The British considered traders, craftsmen and pastoralists to be criminal by nature. The Criminal Tribes Act was passed so that they could identify and control these communities.
21. Define the term Pastoral Nomadism.
Pastoral Nomadism is a form of subsistence agriculture based on herding of domesticated animals. Under this people do not live in one place but move from one place to another along with their animals in search of fresh grazing areas.
