[PDF Notes] Notes on Discount and Finance House of India (DFHI)

The Working Group of Money Market, in its Report submitted in 1987, recommended, among other things, that a Finance House should be set up to deal in short-term money market instruments.

As a follow-up on the recommendations of the Working Group, the Reserve Bank in India, in collaboration with the public sector banks and financial institutions, set up the Discount and Finance House of India Limited (DFHI) in.

April 1988. DFHI is the apex body in the Indian money market and its establishment is a major step towards developing a secondary market for money instruments. DFHI, which commenced its operations from April 25, 1988, deals in short-term money market instruments.

As a matter of policy, the aim of the DFHI is to increase the volume of turnover rather than to become the repository of money market instruments. The initial paid up capital of DFHI is Rs. 150 crores.

Apart from this, it has lines of refinance from RBI and a line of credit from the consortium of public sector banks.

As the apex agency in the Indian money market, the DFHI has been playing an important role ever since its inception. It has been promoting the active participation of the scheduled commercial banks and their subsidiaries, state and urban cooperative banks and all-Indian financial institutions in the money market.

The objective is to ensure that short-term surplus and deficits of these institutions are equilibrated at market-re­lated rates through inter-bank transactions and various money market instruments.

In 1990-91 the DFHI opened its branches at Delhi, Calcutta, Madras, Ahmedabad and Banglore in order to decentralise its operations and provide money market facilities at the major money market centers in the country.

300+ TOP I.C. Engines MCQ Questions and Answers Quiz

I.C. Engines Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :-

1. In an internal combustion engine, the process of removing the burnt gases from the combustion chamber of the engine cylinder is known as

A. Scavenging

B. Detonation

C. Supercharging

D. Polymerisation

Answer: A

2. Pick up the wrong statement about supercharging

A. Supercharging reduces knocking in diesel engines

B. There can be limited supercharging in petrol engines because of detonation

C. Supercharging at high altitudes is essential

D. Supercharging results in fuel economy

Answer: D

3. Number of working strokes per min. for a four stroke cycle engine are _________ the speed of the engine in r.p.m.

A. Equal to

B. One-half

C. Twice

D. Four-times

Answer: B

4. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve

A. Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 35° after the bottom dead center

B. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center

C. Opens at 10° after top dead center and closes 20° before the bottom dead center

D. May open or close anywhere

Answer: A

5. The voltage required to produce a spark across the gap, between the sparking points is

A. 2000 to 4000 volts

B. 4000 to 6000 volts

C. 6000 to 10,000 volts

D. 10,000 to 12,000 volts

Answer: C

6. Compression ratio of I.C. Engines is

A. The ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after compression stroke

B. Volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder

C. Ratio of pressure after compression and before compression

D. Swept volume/cylinder volume

Answer: A

7. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of the order of

A. 6: 1

B. 9: 1

C. 12: 1

D. 15: 1

Answer: D

8. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine is given by (where r = Compression ratio, and γ = Ratio of specific heats)

A. 1 – rγ – 1

B. 1 + rγ – 1

C. 1 – (1/rγ – 1)

D. None of these

Answer: C

9. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the combustion chamber is located

A. Above the piston

B. Below the piston

C. Between the pistons

D. There is no such criterion

Answer: C

10. The ignition of the charge by some hot surface within the engine before the passage of spark is called

A. Pre-ignition

B. Detonation

C. Ignition delay

D. Auto-ignition

Answer: A

I.C. Engines MCQs

11. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle diesel engine

A. Fuel injection starts at 10° before top dead center and ends at 20° after top dead center

B. Fuel injection starts at top dead center and ends at 20° after top dead center

C. Fuel injection starts at just before top dead center and ends just after top dead center

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: A

12. Which one of the following engines will have heavier flywheel than the remaining ones?

A. 30 kW four-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.

B. 30 kW two-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.

C. 30 kW two-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.

D. 30 kW four-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.

Answer: A

13. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?

A. Diesel

B. Kerosene

C. Fuel oil

D. Gasoline

Answer: D

14. The working pressure and temperature inside the cylinder of an internal combustion engine is _________ as compared to a steam engine.

A. Low

B. Very low

C. High

D. Very high

Answer: D

15. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in air inlet temperature, will

A. Increase linearly

B. Decrease linearly

C. Increase parabolically

D. Decrease parabolically

Answer: B

16. If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine increases, then its efficiency will

A. Remain same

B. Decrease

C. Increase

D. None of these

Answer: B

17. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as

A. Scavenging

B. Turbulence

C. Supercharging

D. Pre-ignition

Answer: C

18. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by

A. Cetane number

B. Octane number

C. Calorific value

D. All of these

Answer: B

19. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the

A. Maximum pressure developed

B. Minimum pressure

C. Instantaneous pressure at any instant

D. Average pressure

Answer: D

20. The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by

A. High self ignition temperature

B. Low volatility

C. Higher viscosity

D. All of these

Answer: D

21. Pour point of fuel oil is the

A. Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame

B. Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals

C. It catches fire without external aid

D. Indicated by 90% distillation temperature i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off

Answer: B

22. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the compression

A. Starts at 40° after bottom dead centre and ends at 30° before top dead centre

B. Starts at 40° before bottom dead centre and ends at 30° after bottom dead centre

C. Starts at bottom dead centre and ends at top dead centre

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: A

23. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of

A. 500-1000°C

B. 1000-1500°C

C. 1500-2000°C

D. 2000-2500°C

Answer: D

24. In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a

A. Haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber

B. Rotary motion of the gases in the chamber

C. Radial motion of the gases in the chamber

D. None of the above

Answer: B

25. Supercharging is the process of

A. Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere

B. Providing forced cooling air

C. Injecting excess fuel for raising more loads

D. Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully

Answer: A

26. The knocking in spark ignition engines can be reduced by

A. Retarding the spark

B. Increasing the engine speed

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Answer: C

27. An engine indicator is used to determine the following

A. Speed

B. Temperature

C. Volume of cylinder

D. m.e.p. and I.H.P.

Answer: D

28. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve

A. Opens at 30° before bottom dead centre and closes at 10° after top dead centre

B. Opens at 30° after bottom dead centre and closes at 10° before top dead centre

C. Opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre

D. May open and close anywhere

Answer: A

29. The pressure at the end of compression in the case of diesel engine is of the order of

A. 6 kg/cm

B. 12 kg/cm

C. 20 kg/cm

D. 35 kg/cm

Answer: D

30. The fuels in order of decreasing knock tendency for spark ignition engines are

A. Paraffin, aromatic, napthene

B. Paraffin, napthene, aromatic

C. Napthene, aromatics, paraffin

D. Napthene, paraffin, aromatic

Answer: B

31. Crankcase explosion in I.C. engines usually occurs as

A. First a mild explosion followed by a bi explosion

B. First a big explosion followed by a mil explosion

C. Both mild and big explosions occurs simultaneously

D. Never occurs

Answer: A

32. The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoretical air required for complete combustion is

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. May be more or less depending on engine capacity

Answer: B

33. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the compression

A. Starts at 40° after bottom dead center and ends at 10° before top dead center

B. Starts at 40° before top dead center and ends at 40° after top dead center

C. Starts at top dead center and ends at 40° before bottom dead center

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: A

34. It the temperature of intake air in IC engines is lowered, then its efficiency will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain same

D. Increase up to certain limit and then decrease

Answer: A

35. The loud pulsating noise heard within the cylinder of an internal combustion engine is known as

A. Detonation

B. Turbulence

C. Pre-ignition

D. Supercharging

Answer: A

36. Which of the following medium is compressed in a Diesel engine cylinder?

A. Air alone

B. Air and fuel

C. Air and lub oil

D. Fuel alone

Answer: A

37. Detonation is harmful due to

A. Increase in the rate of heat transfer, there is a reduction in the power output and efficiency of the engine

B. Excessive turbulence which removes most of the insulating gas boundary layer from the cylinder walls

C. High intensity of knock causes crankshaft vibration and the engine runs rough

D. None of the above

Answer: D

38. A stoichiometric air-fuel ratio is

A. Chemically correct mixture

B. Lean mixture

C. Rich mixture for idling

D. Rich mixture for over loads

Answer: A

39. The firing order in an I.C. engine depends upon

A. Arrangement of the cylinders

B. Design of crankshaft

C. Number of cylinders

D. All of these

Answer: D

40. Pick up the false statement

A. Thermal efficiency of diesel engine is about 34%

B. Theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is approximately 15:1

C. High speed compression engines operate on dual combustion cycle

D. S.I. engines are quality governed engines

Answer: D

41. The maximum propulsive efficiency of a turbojet engine is at a speed of

A. 1000 km/h

B. 2000 km/h

C. 2400 km/h

D. 3000 km/h

Answer: C

42. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency is called

A. Net efficiency

B. Efficiency ratio

C. Relative efficiency

D. Overall efficiency

Answer: C

43. The inlet valve of a four stroke cycle internal combustion engine remains open for

A. 130°

B. 180°

C. 230°

D. 270°

Answer: C

44. The minimum cranking speed in case of petrol engine is about

A. Half the operating speed

B. One fourth of operating speed

C. 250 – 300 rpm

D. 60 – 80 rpm

Answer: D

45. Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine is _________ the speed of the engine in r.p.m.

A. Equal to

B. One-half

C. Twice

D. Four-times

Answer: A

46. Flash point of fuel oil is

A. Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame

B. Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals

C. Temperature at which it catches fire without external aid

D. Indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e. when 90% of sample oil has distilled off

Answer: A

47. In petrol engines, advancing of the spark timing will _________ the knocking tendency.

A. Not effect

B. Decrease

C. Increase

D. None of these

Answer: C

48. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the air is supplied by

A. A supercharger

B. A centrifugal blower

C. A vacuum chamber

D. An injection tube

Answer: C

49. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine

A. Requires smaller foundation

B. Is lighter

C. Consumes less lubricating oil

D. All of these

Answer: D

50. Which of the following is not an intern’s combustion engine?

A. 2-stroke petrol engine

B. 4-stroke petrol engine

C. Diesel engine

D. Steam turbine

Answer: D

51. The spark ignition engines are governed by

A. Hit and miss governing

B. Qualitative governing

C. Quantitative governing

D. Combination of (B) and (C)

Answer: C

52. Diesel engine can work on very lean air fuel ratio of the order of 30: 1. A petrol engine can also work on such a lean ratio provided

A. It is properly designed

B. Best quality fuel is used

C. Cannot work as it is impossible

D. Flywheel size is proper

Answer: C

53. The object of providing masked inlet valve in the air passage of compression ignition engines is to

A. Enhance flow rate

B. Control air flow

C. Induce primary swirl

D. Induce secondary turbulence

Answer: C

54. In the crankcase method of scavenging, the air pressure is produced by

A. Supercharger

B. Centrifugal pump

C. Natural aspirator

D. Movement of engine piston

Answer: D

55. The brake power (B.P.) of the engine is given by (where W = Brake load or dead load in newtons, l = Length of arm in meters, N = Speed of engine in r.p.m., S = Spring balance reading in newtons, D = Dia. of brake drum in meters, and d = Dia. of rope in meters)

A. B.P = (Wl × 2πN)/60 watts

B. B.P = [(W – S) πDN]/60 watts

C. B.P = [(W – S) π (D + d) N]/60 watts

D. All of these

Answer: D

57. The temperature of interior surface of cylinder wall in normal operation is not allowed to exceed

A. 80°C

B. 120°C

C. 180°C

D. 240°C

Answer: C

58. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is _________ a four stroke cycle engine.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: B

59. Scavenging is usually done to increase

A. Thermal efficiency

B. Speed

C. Power output

D. Fuel consumption

Answer: C

60. If V₁ is the jet velocity and V₀ is the vehicle velocity, then the propulsive efficiency of a rocket is given by

A. [2(V₀/V₁)]/ [1 + (V₀/V₁)²]

B. (V₀/V₁)/ [1 + (V₀/V₁)²]

C. V₀/(V₀ + V₁)

D. V₁/(V₀ + V₁)

Answer: A

61. The pressure and temperature at the end of compression stroke in a petrol engine are of the order of

A. 4-6 kg/cm² and 200-250°C

B. 6-12 kg/cm² and 250-350°C

C. 12-20 kg/cm² and 350-450°C

D. 20-30 kg/cm² and 450-500°C

Answer: B

62. The compression ignition engines are governed by

A. Hit and miss governing

B. Qualitative governing

C. Quantitative governing

D. Combination of (B) and (C)

Answer: B

63. The reason for supercharging in any engine is to

A. Increase efficiency

B. Increase power

C. Reduce weight and bulk for a given output

D. Effect fuel economy

Answer: C

64. Stoichiometric ratio is

A. Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by weight

B. Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by volume

C. Actual air-fuel ratio for maximum efficiency

D. None of the above

Answer: B

65. Volatility of diesel fuel oil is

A. Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame

B. Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals

C. It catches fire without external aid

D. Indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off

Answer: D

66. The purpose of testing an internal combustion engine is

A. To determine the information, which cannot be obtained by calculations

B. To conform the data used in design, the validity of which may be doubtful

C. To satisfy the customer regarding the performance of the engine

D. All of the above

Answer: D

67. The process of breaking up or a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called

A. Vaporisation

B. Carburetion

C. Ionization

D. Atomization

Answer: D

68. The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston is called

A. Mechanical efficiency

B. Overall efficiency

C. Volumetric efficiency

D. Relative efficiency

Answer: C

69. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given compression ratio is

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. More or less depending on power rating

Answer: C

70. In order to prevent knocking in spark ignition engines, the charge away from the spark plug should have

A. Low density

B. Low temperature

C. Long ignition delay

D. All of these

Answer: D

71. The actual volume of fresh charge admitted in 4-stroke petrol engine is

A. Equal to stroke volume

B. Equal to stroke volume and clearance volume

C. Less than stroke volume

D. More than stroke volume

Answer: C

72. The power actually developed by the engine cylinder of an I.C. engine is known as

A. Theoretical power

B. Actual power

C. Indicated power

D. None of these

Answer: C

73. In loop scavenging, the top of the piston is

A. Flat

B. Contoured

C. Slanted

D. Depressed

Answer: B

74. The correct sequence of the decreasing order of brake thermal efficiency of the three given basic types of engines is

A. Four stroke C.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine

B. Four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine

C. Four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine

D. Two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I. engine

Answer: A

75. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the percentage increase in efficiency will be

A. 2%

B. 4%

C. 8%

D. 14%

Answer: D

76. The knocking tendency in compression ignition engines for a given fuel will be

A. Enhanced by decreasing compression ratio

B. Enhanced by increasing compression ratio

C. Dependent on other factors

D. None of the above

Answer: A

77. When crude oil is heated, then which of the following hydrocarbon is given off first?

A. Kerosene

B. Gasoline

C. Paraffin

D. Natural gas

Answer: D

78. Supercharging is the process of supplying the intake air to the engine cylinder at a density _________ the density of the surrounding atmosphere.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: C

79. Polymerization is a chemical process in which molecules of a compound become

A. Larger

B. Slowed down

C. Smaller

D. Liquid

Answer: A

80. In a petrol engine, the fuel supplied to the engine cylinder is mixed with required quantity of air and the mixture is ignited with a

A. Fuel pump

B. Fuel injector

C. Spark plug

D. None of these

Answer: C

81. For maximum power generation, the air fuel ratio for a petrol engine for vehicles, is of the order of

A. 9 : 1

B. 12 : 1

C. 15 : 1

D. 18 : 1

Answer: B

82. The ratio of the indicated thermal efficiency to the air standard efficiency is known as

A. Mechanical efficiency

B. Overall efficiency

C. Volumetric efficiency

D. Relative efficiency

Answer: D

83. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to

A. Instantaneous and rapid burning of the first part of the charge

B. Instantaneous auto ignition of last part of charge

C. Delayed burning of the first part of the charge

D. Reduction of delay period

Answer: A

84. Which of the following statement is correct regarding petrol engines?

A. A fine fuel spray mixed with air is ignited by the heat of compression which is at a high pressure

B. The fuel supplied to the engine cylinder is mixed with necessary amount of air and the mixture in ignited with the help of a spark plug

C. The fuel is first evaporated after passing through a carburettor and is mixed with air before ignition

D. All of the above

Answer: B

85. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the

A. Exhaust will be smoky

B. Piston rings would stick into piston grooves

C. Engine starts overheating

D. Scavenging occurs

Answer: D

86. Pre-ignition is caused by the spontaneous combustion of the mixture before the end of the compression stroke, and is due to

A. Cylinder walls being too hot

B. Overheated spark plug points

C. Red hot carbon deposits on cylinder walls

D. Any one of these

Answer: D

87. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

A. Air used for combustion sent under pressure

B. Forced air for cooling cylinder

C. Burnt air containing products of combustion

D. Air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine’s cylinder during the exhaust period

Answer: D

88. The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include

A. Iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene

B. Normal octane and aniline

C. Iso-octane and normal hexane

D. Normal heptane and iso-octane

Answer: D

89. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of revolutions of crankshaft

A. 1/2

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Answer: C

90. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased by

A. Decreasing the density of intake air

B. Increasing the temperature of intake air

C. Increasing the pressure of intake air

D. Decreasing the pressure of intake air

Answer: C

91. Engine pistons are usually made of aluminium alloy because it

A. Is lighter

B. Wear is less

C. Absorbs shocks

D. Is stronger

Answer: A

92. Which of the following fuel detonates readily?

A. Benzene

B. Iso-octane

C. Normal heptane

D. Alcohol

Answer: C

93. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engines

A. Exhaust valve opens at 35° before bottom dead center and closes at 20° after top dead center

B. Exhaust valve opens at bottom dead center and closes at top dead center

C. Exhaust valve opens just after bottom dead center and closes just before top dead center

D. May open and close anywhere

Answer: A

94. During idling, a petrol engine requires _________ mixture.

A. Lean

B. Rich

C. Chemically correct

D. None of these

Answer: B

95. The air-fuel ratio in petrol engines is controlled by

A. Controlling valve opening/closing

B. Governing

C. Injection

D. Carburetion

Answer: D

96. The function of a distributor in a coil ignition system of I.C. engines is

A. To distribute spark

B. To distribute power

C. To distribute current

D. To time the spark

Answer: D

97. The specific fuel consumption per BH hour for a petrol engine is approximately

A. 0.15 kg

B. 0.2 kg

C. 0.25 kg

D. 0.3 kg

Answer: C

98. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the expansion

A. Starts at top dead center and ends at bottom dead center

B. Starts at 30° before top dead center and ends at 50° before bottom dead center

C. Starts at 30° after top dead center and ends at 50° after bottom dead center

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: B

99. Which of the following is false statement?
Excess quantities of sulphur in diesel fuel are Objectionable because it may cause the following

A. Piston ring and cylinder wear

B. Formation of hard coating on piston skirts

C. Oil sludge in the engine crank case

D. Detonation

Answer: D

100. As compared to air standard cycle, in actual working, the effect of variation in specific heats is to

A. Increase maximum pressure and maximum temperature

B. Reduce maximum pressure and maximum temperature

C. Increase maximum pressure and decrease maximum temperature

D. Decrease maximum pressure and increase maximum temperature

Answer: B

101. Fuel consumption of diesel engines is not guaranteed at one quarter load because at such low loads

A. The friction is high

B. The friction is unpredictable

C. The small difference in cooling water temperature or in internal friction has a disproportionate effect

D. The engine is rarely operated

Answer: C

102. By higher octane number of spark ignition fuel, it is meant that the fuel has

A. Higher heating value

B. Higher flash point

C. Lower volatility

D. Longer ignition delay

Answer: D

103. In diesel engine the diesel fuel injected into cylinder would burn instantly at about compressed air temperature of

A. 250°C

B. 500°C

C. 1000°C

D. 2000°C

Answer: C

104. A gas engine has a swept volume of 300 cm3 and clearance volume of 25 cm3. Its volumetric efficiency is 0.88 and mechanical efficiency is 0.90. The volume of the mixture taken in per stroke is

A. 248 cm3

B. 252 cm3

C. 264 cm3

D. 286 cm3

Answer: C

105. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine

A. Compression starts at 35° after bottom dead center and ends at top dead center

B. Compression starts at bottom dead center and ends at top dead center

C. Compression starts at 10° before bottom dead center and, ends just before top dead center

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: A

106. In a petrol engine, the mixture has the lowest pressure at the

A. Beginning of suction stroke

B. End of suction stroke

C. End of compression stroke

D. None of these

Answer: B

107. The specific fuel consumption per BHP hour for diesel engine is approximately

A. 0.15 kg

B. 0.2 kg

C. 0.25 kg

D. 0.3 kg

Answer: B

108. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10

B. Higher compression ratio in diesel engines results in higher pressures

C. Petrol engines work on Otto cycle

D. All of the above

Answer: D

109. All heat engines utilize

A. Low heat value of oil

B. High heat value of oil

C. Net calorific value of oil

D. Calorific value of fuel

Answer: A

110. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. A four stroke cycle engine develops twice the power as that of a two stroke cycle engine

B. For the same power developed, a four stroke cycle engine is lighter, less bulky and occupies less floor area

C. The petrol engines are costly than diesel engines

D. All of the above

Answer: D

111. Does the supply of scavenging air at a density greater than that of atmosphere mean engine is supercharged?

A. Yes

B. No

C. To some extent

D. Unpredictable

Answer: B

112. Which one of the following event would reduce volumetric efficiency of a vertical compression ignition engine?

A. Inlet valve closing after bottom dead center

B. Inlet valve closing before bottom dead center

C. Inlet valve opening before top dead center

D. Exhaust valve closing after top dead center

Answer: B

113. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

A. Spark

B. Injected fuel

C. Heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion

D. Ignition

Answer: C

114. Which of the following does not relate to a spark ignition engine?

A. Ignition coil

B. Spark plug

C. Carburettor

D. Fuel injector

Answer: D

115. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs due to

A. Leaking piston rings

B. Use of thick head gasket

C. Clogged air inlet slots

D. All of the above

Answer: D

116. Iso-octane (C₈H₁₈) has octane number of

A. 0

B. 50

C. 100

D. 120

Answer: C

117. As a result of detonation in an I.C. engine, following parameter attains very high value

A. Peak pressure

B. Rate of rise of pressure

C. Rate of rise of temperature

D. Peak temperature

Answer: B

118. A two stroke cycle engine gives ________ the number of power strokes as compared to the four stroke cycle engine, at the same engine speed.

A. Half

B. Same

C. Double

D. Four times

Answer: C

119. The accumulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of

A. Clearance volume

B. Volumetric efficiency

C. Ignition time

D. Effective compression ratio

Answer: D

120. In a four stroke cycle engine, the sequence of operations is

A. Suction, compression, expansion and exhaust

B. Suction, expansion, compression and exhaust

C. Expansion, compression, suction and exhaust

D. Compression, expansion, suction and exhaust

Answer: A

121. Gaseous fuel guarantees are based on

A. Calorific value of oil

B. Low heat value of oil

C. High heat value of oil

D. Mean heat value of oil

Answer: B

122. The ratio of the work obtained at the crankshaft in a given time to the energy supplied during the same time is called

A. Mechanical efficiency

B. Overall efficiency

C. Indicated thermal efficiency

D. Volumetric efficiency

Answer: B

123. The size of inlet valve of an engine in comparison to exhaust valve is

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. More/less depending on capacity of engine

Answer: B

124. The volumetric efficiency of a well designed engine may be

A. 30 to 40%

B. 40 to 60%

C. 60 to 70%

D. 75 to 90%

Answer: D

125. A 5 BHP engine running at full load would consume diesel of the order of

A. 0.3 kg/hr

B. 1 kg/hr

C. 3 kg/hr

D. 5 kg/hr

Answer: B

126. A petrol engine, during suction stroke draws

A. Air only

B. Petrol only

C. A mixture of petrol and air

D. None of these

Answer: C

127. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. All the irreversible engines have same efficiency

B. All the reversible engines have same efficiency

C. Both Rankine and Carnot cycles have same efficiency between same temperature limits

D. All reversible engines working between same temperature limits have same efficiency

Answer :Option D

128. The fuel valve in a four stroke cycle diesel engine

A. Opens at 15° after top dead center and closes at 20° before bottom dead center

B. Opens at 15° before top dead center and closes at 20° after top dead center

C. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center

D. May open and close anywhere

Answer: B

129. For the same power developed in I.C. engines, the cheaper system is

A. Naturally aspirated

B. Supercharged

C. Centrifugal pump

D. Turbo charger

Answer: B

130. The thermal efficiency of petrol and gas engines is about

A. 15%

B. 30%

C. 50%

D. 70%

Answer: B

131. Which is more viscous lube oil?

A. SEA 30

B. SAE 50

C. SAE 70

D. SAE 80

Answer: D

132. In petrol engine, using a fixed octane rating fuel and fixed compression ratio, supercharging will _________ the knocking tendency.

A. Not effected

B. Decrease

C. Increase

D. None of these

Answer: C

133. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C. engine are usually based on

A. Low heat value of oil

B. High heat value of oil

C. Net calorific value of oil

D. Calorific value of fuel

Answer: B

134. The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all speeds because the

A. Jet area is automatically varied depending on the suction

B. The flow from the main jet is diverted to the compensating jet with increase in speed

C. The diameter of the jet is constant and the discharge coefficient is invariant

D. Flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber

Answer: D

135. The magneto in an automobile is basically

A. Transformer

B. D.C. generator

C. Capacitor

D. Magnetic circuit

Answer: B

136. In order to eliminate knocking in compression ignition engines, there should be

A. Short delay period

B. Late auto-ignition

C. Low compression ratio

D. High self ignition temperature of fuel

Answer: A

137. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine cannot work is

A. 8 : 1

B. 10 : 1

C. 15 : 1

D. 20 : 1 and less

Answer: D

138. A fuel of an octane number rating of 75 matches in knocking intensity as a mixture of

A. 75% iso-octane and 25% normal heptane

B. 75% normal heptane and 25% iso-octane

C. 75% petrol and 25% diesel

D. 75% diesel and 25% petrol

Answer: A

139. An hmh flame speed is obtained in diesel engine when air fuel ratio is

A. Uniform throughout the mixture

B. Chemically correct mixture

C. About 35% of rich mixture

D. About 10% of rich mixture

Answer: D

140. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine

A. Is lighter

B. Requires smaller foundations

C. Consumes less lubricating oil

D. All of these

Answer: D

141. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C engine remains open for nearly

A. 180°

B. 125°

C. 235°

D. 200°

Answer: C

142. The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is

A. Minimum turbulence

B. Low compression ratio

C. High thermal efficiency and power output

D. Low volumetric efficiency

Answer: C

143. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C. engine running at 1500 rpm will run at

A. 1500 rpm

B. 750 rpm

C. 3000 rpm

D. Any value independent of engine speed

Answer: B

144. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the inlet valve

A. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center

B. Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 40° after bottom dead center

C. Opens at 20° after top dead center and closes at 20° before bottom dead center

D. May open or close anywhere

Answer: B

145. Which of the following is false statement? Some of the methods used to reduce diesel smoke are as follows

A. Using additives in the fuel

B. Increasing the compression ratio

C. Adherence to proper fuel specification

D. Avoidance of overloading

Answer: B

146. The frictional power (F.P.) is given by

A. F.P. = B.P. – I.P.

B. F.P. = I.P. – B.P.

C. F.P. = B.P./I.P.

D. F.P. = I.P./B.P.

Answer: B

147. The following volume of air is required for consuming 1 liter of fuel by a four stroke engine

A. 1 m3

B. 5 m3

C. 56 m3

D. 910 m3

Answer: D

148. The delay period in compression ignition engines depends upon

A. Temperature and pressure in the cylinder at the time of injection

B. Nature of the fuel mixture strength

C. Relative velocity between the fuel injection and air turbulence pressure of residual gases

D. All of the above

Answer: D

149. A diesel engine has

A. 1 valve

B. 2 valves

C. 3 valves

D. 4 valves

Answer: C

150. The mechanical efficiency (ηm) of the engine is given by

A. ηm = B.P/I.P

B. ηm = I.P/B.P

C. ηm = (B.P × I.P)/100

D. None of these

Answer: A

151. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the engine revolution or size in following way

A. Feeding more fuel

B. Heating incoming air

C. Scavenging

D. Supercharging

Answer: D

152. The reflectivity depends upon

A. Geometry of the reflector

B. Energy of neutrons

C. Properties of the reflector

D. All of these

Answer: D

153. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburettor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to clean filter will be

A. Higher

B. Lower

C. Remain unaffected

D. None of the above

Answer: A

154. The sensing element in the control system of nuclear reactors measures the _________ of the neutron flux in the reactor.

A. Temperature

B. Volume

C. Density

D. None of these

Answer: C

155. Pick up the wrong statement

A. 2-stroke engine can run in any direction

B. In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is obtained in 4-strokes

C. Thermal efficiency of 4-stroke engine is more due to positive scavenging

D. Petrol engines occupy more space than diesel engines for same power output

Answer: D

156. If V₁ is the jet velocity and V₀ is the vehicle velocity, then propulsive efficiency of a turbojet engine is

A. V₁ / (V₀ + V₁)

B. V₀ / (V₀ + V₁)

C. 2V₀ / (V₀ + V₁)

D. 2V₁ / (V₀ + V₁)

Answer: C

157. In a cycle, the spark lasts roughly for

A. 1 sec

B. 0.1 sec

C. 0.01 sec

D. 0.001 sec

Answer: D

158. Which of the following does not relate to a compression ignition engine?

A. Fuel pump

B. Fuel injector

C. Governor

D. Carburettor

Answer: D

159. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately

A. 1 : 1

B. 5 : 1

C. 10 : 1

D. 15 : 1

Answer: C

160. The advancing of spark timing in spark ignition engines will _________ knocking tendency.

A. Increase

B. Reduce

C. Not effect

D. None of these

Answer: A

161. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of

A. 5-10 kg/cm²

B. 20-25 kg/cm²

C. 60-80 kg/cm²

D. 90-130 kg/cm²

Answer: D

162. A mixture containing 65% of iso-octane and 35% of normal heptane will have

A. Cetane number 65

B. Octane number 65

C. Cetane number 35

D. Octane number 35

Answer: B

163. The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, with increase in cut-off ratio will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Be independent

D. May increase or decrease depending on other factors

Answer: B

164. Theoretically, a four stroke cycle engine should develop _________ power as that of a two stroke cycle engine.

A. Half

B. Same

C. Double

D. Four times

Answer: A

165. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is expressed in terms of

A. kcal

B. kcal/kg

C. kcal/m²

D. kcal/m3

Answer: D

166. The pressure at the end of compression, in diesel engines, is approximately

A. 10 bar

B. 20 bar

C. 25 bar

D. 35 bar

Answer: D

167. A 75 cc engine has following parameter as 75 cc

A. Fuel tank capacity

B. Lube oil capacity

C. Swept volume

D. Cylinder volume

Answer: C

168. The combustion in compression ignition engines is

A. Homogeneous

B. Heterogeneous

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Answer: B

169. Supercharging is essential in

A. Diesel engines

B. Gas turbines

C. Petrol engines

D. Aircraft engines

Answer: D

170. Which of the following fuel has little tendency towards detonation?

A. Benzene

B. Iso-octane

C. Normal heptane

D. Alcohol

Answer: B

171. Most high speed compression engines operate on

A. Diesel cycle

B. Otto cycle

C. Dual combustion cycle

D. Special type of air cycle

Answer: C

172. The higher combustion chamber wall temperature in compression ignition engines will _________ knocking tendency.

A. Increase

B. Reduce

C. Not effect

D. None of these

Answer: B

173. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain same

D. None of these

Answer: B

174. Solid fuel fabricated into various small shapes, which are assembled to form fuel elements, is in the form of

A. Plates

B. Pallets

C. Pins

D. All of these

Answer: D

175. A heat engine utilizes the

A. Calorific value of oil

B. Low heat value of

C. High heat value of oil

D. Mean heat value of oil

Answer: C

176. Diesel as compared to petrol is

A. Highly ignitable

B. More difficult to ignite

C. Less difficult to ignite

D. None of these

Answer: B

177. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol engine compared to diesel engine of same H.P. is

A. Same

B. More

C. Less

D. Less or more depending on operating conditions

Answer: B

178. The increase of efficiency of a compression ignition engine, as the load decreases, is due to

A. Higher maximum temperature

B. Qualitative governing

C. Quantitative governing

D. Hit and miss governing

Answer: B

179. For the same compression ratio

A. Otto cycle is more efficient than the Diesel

B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto

C. Both Otto and Diesel cycles are, equally efficient

D. Compression ratio has nothing to do with efficiency

Answer: A

180. The self ignition temperature of petrol is _________ as compared to diesel oil.

A. Same

B. Lower

C. Higher

D. None of these

Answer: C

181. In diesel engine, the compression ratio in comparison to expansion ratio is

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. Variable

Answer: C

182. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the pressure inside the engine cylinder during the suction stroke is __________ the atmospheric pressure.

A. Equal to

B. Below

C. Above

D. None of these

Answer: B

183. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is

A. Less difficult to ignite

B. Just about the same difficult to ignite

C. More difficult to ignite

D. Highly ignitable

Answer: C

184. In a petrol engine, if diesel is used, then the engine will

A. Not run

B. Run more efficiently

C. Run at high speed

D. Explode

Answer: A

185. Installation of supercharger on a four cycle diesel engine can result in the following percentage increase in power

A. Up to 35%

B. Up to 50%

C. Up to 75%

D. Up to 100%

Answer: D

186. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines on weak mixtures is

A. Unaffected

B. Lower

C. Higher

D. Dependent on other factors

Answer: C

187. Combustion in compression ignition engines is

A. Homogeneous

B. Heterogeneous

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. Laminar

Answer: B

188. The colour of exhaust from diesel engine is generally

A. White

B. Bluish

C. Black

D. Violet

Answer: C

189. A diesel engine as compared to petrol engine (both running and rated load) is

A. More efficient

B. Less efficient

C. Equally efficient

D. Other factors will decide it

Answer: A

190. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is ignited at

A. 30° before top dead center

B. 30° after top dead center

C. 30° before bottom dead center

D. 30° after bottom dead center

Answer: A

191. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel consumption guarantees are based on

A. High heat value

B. Low heat value

C. Net calorific value

D. Calorific value

Answer: B

192. The knocking tendency in spark ignition engines may be decreased by

A. Controlling the air-fuel mixture

B. Controlling the ignition timing

C. Controlling the exhaust temperature

D. Reducing the compression ratio

Answer: D

193. The term scavenging is generally associated with

A. 2-stroke cycle engines

B. 4-stroke cycle engines

C. Aeroplane engines

D. High efficiency engines

Answer: D

194. Which of the following statement is correct regarding normal cetane?

A. It is a standard fuel used for knock rating of diesel engines

B. Its chemical name is normal hexadecane

C. It has long carbon chain structure

D. All of the above

Answer: D

195. Most high speed compression engines operate on

A. Otto cycle

B. Diesel cycle

C. Dual cycle

D. Carnot cycle

Answer: C

196. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the inlet valve

A. Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 40° after bottom dead center

B. Opens at 20° after top dead center and closes at 20° before bottom dead center

C. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center

D. May open and close anywhere

Answer: A

197. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by

A. Fuel pump

B. Governor

C. Injector

D. Carburettor

Answer: D

198. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. In compression ignition engines, detonation occurs near the beginning of combustion.

B. Since the fuel, in compression ignition engines, is injected at the end of compression stroke, therefore, there will be no pre-ignition.

C. To eliminate knock in compression ignition engines, we want to achieve auto-ignition not early and desire a long delay period.

D. In compression ignition engines, because of heterogeneous mixture, the rate of pressure rise is comparatively lower.

Answer: C

199. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the

A. Beginning of suction stroke

B. End of suction stroke

C. Beginning of exhaust stroke

D. End of exhaust stroke

Answer: A

200. The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine

A. Opens at 50° before bottom dead center and closes at 15° after top dead center

B. Opens at bottom dead center and closes at top dead center

C. Opens at 50° after bottom dead center and closes at 15° before top dead center

D. May open and close anywhere

Answer: A

201. The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine

A. Starts at 15° before top dead center and ends at 30° after top dead center

B. Starts at top dead center and ends at 30° after top dead center

C. Starts at 15° after top dead center and ends at 30° before bottom dead center

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: C

202. In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as

A. Pre-ignition period

B. Delay period

C. Period of ignition

D. Burning period

Answer: B

203. The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is

A. Alcohol

B. Water

C. Lead

D. None of these

Answer: B

204. A diesel engine has

A. One valve

B. Two valves

C. Three valves

D. Four valves

Answer: C

205. The pressure inside the cylinder is _________ the atmospheric pressure during the exhaust stroke.

A. Equal to

B. Below

C. Above

D. None of these

Answer: C

206. A carburettor is used to supply

A. Petrol, air and lubricating oil

B. Air and diesel

C. Petrol and lubricating oil

D. Petrol and air

Answer: D

207. Morse test can be conducted for

A. Petrol engines

B. Diesel engines

C. Multi cylinder engines

D. All of these

Answer: C

208. High speed compression engines operate on

A. Otto cycle

B. Diesel cycle

C. Dual combustion cycle

D. All of these

Answer: C

209. The theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is

A. 10 : 1

B. 15 : 1

C. 20 : 1

D. 25 : 1

Answer: B

210. A diesel engine has compression ratio from

A. 6 to 10

B. 10 to 15

C. 15 to 25

D. 25 to 40

Answer: C

211. In order to mix air and petrol in the required proportion and to supply it to the engine during suction stroke, then _________ is employed.

A. Fuel pump

B. Injector

C. Carburettor

D. None of these

Answer: C

212. The ratio of the brake power to the indicated power is called

A. Mechanical efficiency

B. Overall efficiency

C. Indicated thermal efficiency

D. Volumetric efficiency

213. The cetane (C₁₆H₃₄) which is a straight chain paraffin, is assigned a cetane number of

A. 0

B. 50

C. 100

D. 120

214. The thermodynamic cycle on which the petrol engine works, is

A. Otto cycle

B. Joule cycle

C. Rankine cycle

D. Stirling cycle

215. The correct mixture strength (by weight) for petrol is about

A. 14.6 : 1

B. 18.5 : 1

C. 20.4 : 1

D. 22.6 : 1

216. The scavenging efficiency of a four stroke cycle diesel engine is

A. Below 50%

B. Between 50 and 85%

C. Between 85 and 95%

D. Between 95 and 100%

217. If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain same

D. None of these

218. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a petrol engine is about

A. 0.2 kg

B. 0.25 kg

C. 0.3 kg

D. 0.35 kg

219. The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at a sufficiently high pressure in order to

A. Inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke

B. Inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomization

C. Ensure that penetration is not high

D. All of the above

220. A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of

A. 40% cetane and 60% alpha methyl naphthalene

B. 40% alpha methyl naphthalene and 60% cetane

C. 40% petrol and 60% diesel

D. 40% diesel and 60% petrol

221. The two reference fuels used for cetane rating are

A. Cetane and iso-octane

B. Cetane and alpha-methyl naphthalene

C. Cetane and normal heptane

D. Cetane and tetra ethyl lead

222. In petrol engines, the delay period is of the order of

A. 0.001 second

B. 0.002 second

C. 0.003 second

D. 0.004 second

223. A diesel engine is _________ as compared to petrol engine, both running at rated load.

A. Equally efficient

B. Less efficient

C. More efficient

D. None of these

224. The pressure at the end of compression, in petrol engines, is approximately

A. 10 bar

B. 20 bar

C. 25 bar

D. 35 bar

225. The turbine of the turboprop engine is __________ that of the turbojet engine.

A. Same as

B. Smaller than

C. Bigger than

D. None of these

Answer: C(15)

226. A higher compression ratio causes

A. Pre-ignition

B. Increase in detonation

C. Acceleration in the rate of combustion

D. Any one of these

Answer: D

 

228. A spark plug gap is kept from

A. 0.3 to 0.7 mm

B. 0.2 to 0.8 mm

C. 0.4 to 0.9 mm

D. 0.6 to 1.0 mm

Answer: A

229. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine depends on

A. Fuel used

B. Speed of engine

C. Compression ratio

D. None of these

Answer: C

230. Alpha-methyl-naphthalene (C₁₁ H₁₀) has a cetane number of

A. 0

B. 50

C. 100

D. 120

Answer: A

231. The increase in intake temperature of internal combustion engines will _________ efficiency.

A. Have no effect on

B. Increase

C. Decrease

D. None of these

Answer: C

232. The thermal efficiency of a petrol engine is _________ as compared to diesel engine.

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. None of these

Answer: B

233. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about

A. 15%

B. 30%

C. 50%

D. 70%

Answer: D

234. The ignition quality of diesel oil is expressed by

A. Cetane number

B. Octane number

C. Calorific value

D. None of these

Answer: A

235. If petrol is used in a diesel engine, then

A. Low power will be produced

B. Efficiency will be low

C. Higher knocking will occur

D. Black smoke will be produced

Answer: C

236. In a coil ignition system of petrol engines, a condenser is connected across the contact breaker in order to

A. Prevent sparking across the gap between the points

B. Cause more rapid break of the primary current, giving a higher voltage in the secondary circuit

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Answer: C

237. The _________ engines can work on very lean mixture of fuel.

A. Spark ignition

B. Compression ignition

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Answer: B

238. A diesel engine, during suction stroke, draws

A. Air only

B. Diesel only

C. A mixture of diesel and air

D. None of these

Answer: A

239. Antiknock for compression ignition engines is

A. Napthene

B. Tetra ethyl lead

C. Amyl nitrate

D. Hexadecane

Answer: C

240. The method of determination of indicated power of a multi cylinder spark ignition engine is by the use of

A. Morse test

B. Prony brake test

C. Motoring test

D. Heat balance test

Answer: A

241. The cetane number of diesel oil, generally available, is

A. 20 to 25

B. 25 to 30

C. 30 to 40

D. 40 to 55

Answer: D

242. A petrol engine has compression ratio from

A. 6 to 10

B. 10 to 15

C. 15 to 25

D. 25 to 40

Answer: A

243. The brake power is the power available

A. In the engine cylinder

B. At the crank shaft

C. At the crank pin

D. None of these

Answer: B

244. The normal heptane (C₇H₁₆) is given a rating of ________ octane number.

A. 0

B. 50

C. 100

D. 120

Answer: A

245. The knocking in diesel engines may be prevented by

A. Reducing the delay period

B. Raising the compression ratio

C. Increasing the inlet pressure of air

D. All of these

Answer: D

246. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by

A. Carburettor

B. Injector

C. Governor

D. None of these

Answer: A

247. If the compression ratio in I.C. engine increases, then its thermal efficiency will

A. Decrease

B. Increase

C. Remain same

D. None of these

Answer: B

248. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 70%

D. 100%

Answer: B

249. The octane number of petrol, generally available, is

A. 20 to 40

B. 40 to 60

C. 60 to 80

D. 80 to 100

Answer: D

250. The object of supercharging the engine is

A. To reduce mass of the engine per brake power

B. To reduce space occupied by the engine

C. To increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required

D. All of the above

Answer: D

251. The increase of cooling water temperature in petrol engine will _________ the knocking tendency.

A. Not effect

B. Decrease

C. Increase

D. None of these

Answer: C

252. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a diesel engine is about

A. 0.2 kg

B. 0.25 kg

C. 0.3 kg

D. 0.35 kg

Answer: A

253. The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about

A. 10 bar

B. 100 bar

C. 150 bar

D. 500 bar

Answer: B

254. Morse test is used to determine the I.P. of a

A. Single cylinder petrol engine

B. Four stroke engine

C. Single cylinder diesel engine

D. Multi cylinder engine

Answer: D

I.C. Engines objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

[PDF Notes] Short notes on the Old Bill Market Scheme in India

The bill market scheme was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India in January 1952. Under this scheme, the Reserve Bank undertook to advance loans to commercial banks against their demand promissory notes supported by the security of bills of their constituents or customers.

Before 1952, the practice was that the banks could secure additional cash from the Reserve Bank only by selling government securities to it. But, now, according to the bill market scheme, a bank can grant loans to its customers against their promissory notes and can further use the same promissory notes to borrow from the Reserve Bank.

All that the bank is required is to convert these promissory notes into promissory notes maturing within 90 days.

Thus the bill market scheme aimed at widening the loan window of the Reserve Bank for the banks by allowing them to borrow even against their ordinary commercial credit after its conversion into eligible bills.

Initially, the bill market scheme was introduced on an experimental basis. It was restricted (a) to the scheduled banks with deposits of Rs. 10 crore and above: (b) for the loans with the minimum limit of Rs. 10 lakh; and (c) against the individual bills, the minimum value of each should be one lakh rupees.

Later on the scope of the scheme was broadened from time to time (a) by making more banks eligible to borrow under the scheme; (b) by reducing the minimum eligibility value for bills: (c) by reducing the minimum limit of advances; and (d) by extending the scheme to export bills with the minimum of 180 days.

Soon the bill market scheme became popular. The loans granted under the scheme increased from Rs. 29 crore in 1951-52 to Rs. 228 crore in 1955-56 and to Rs. 1354 crore in 1968-69.

The bill market scheme introduced in 1952 was in fact a pseudo bill market scheme. Its objective was not be develop a genuine bill market, but to provide extended financial accommodation to banks by the Reserve Bank.

The scheme was not based upon the genuine trade bills, but on the conversion of loans and advances of the banks into bills. The genuine bill finance imposes a discipline of making payments when due and involves the credit transactions supported with genuine trade transactions.

The bill market scheme, on the contrary, evolved the cash credit system of bank lending which the borrowers of the bank found much more convenient elastic and to their liking; the discipline of the bill finance was absent in such a system.

The Dehajia Committee report brought out the abuses of cash system and suggested the use of bill financing for the supervision of the funds lent by the commercial banks.

300+ TOP Nuclear Power Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Nuclear Power Plants Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :-

1. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparsion to a conventional thermal power plant is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less or mote depending on size
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

2. Isotopes of same elements have
(a) same atomic number and different masses
(b) same chemical properties but different atomic numbers
(c) different masses and different atomic numbers
(d) different chemical properties and same atomic numbers
(e) same chemical properties and same atomic numbers.
Ans: b

3. Atomic number of an element in the periodic table represents the numbers of
(a) protons in the nucleus
(b) electrons in me nucleus
(c) neutrons in the nucleus
(d) electrons in the atom
(e) neutrons in the atom.
Ans: a

4. The mass number of a substance represents the sum of total number of
(a) protons and neutrons in an atom
(b) protons and electrons in an atom
(c) neutrons and electrons in an atom
(d) protons and neutrons in a nucleus
(e) protons and electrons in a nucleus.
Ans: d

5. Which is not identical for an atom and an isotope
(a) mass number
(b) atomic number
(c) chemical properties
(d) position in periodic table
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

6. Amongst the following, the fissionable materials are
(a) U233andPu239
(b) U23iandPu233
(c) U235andPu235
(d) U238andPu239
(e) U243andPu235
Ans: a

6. A nuclear unit becoming critical means
(a) it is generating power to rated capacity
(b) it is capable of generating much more than rated capacity
(c) there is danger of nuclear spread
(d) chain reaction that causes automatic splitting of the fuel nuclei has been established
(e) it generates no heat.
Ans: d

7. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to
(a) reduce temperature
(b) extract heat from nuclear reaction
(c) control the reaction
(d) cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their speed
(e) moderate the radioactive pollution.
Ans: d

8. The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is
(a) heavy water
(b) concrete and bricks
(c) graphite and concrete
(d) deutrium
(e) graphite.
Ans: e

9. The nuclear energy is measured as
(a) MeV
(b) curie
(c) farads
(d) MW
(e) kWhr.
Ans: a

10. The total energy released in fission of U is
(a) 5 MeV
(b) 10 MeV
(c) 199 MeV
(d) 168 MeV
(e) 11 MeV.
Ans: c

11. Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of
(a) unity
(b) more than unity
(c) less than unity
(d) zero
(e) infinity.
Ans: b

12. Boiling water reactor employs
(a) boiler
(b) direct cycle of coolant system
(c) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(d) multi pass system
(e) single circuit system.
Ans: b

13. Fast breeder reactor uses
(a) boiler
(b) direct cycle of coolant system
(c) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(d) multi pass system
(e) single circuit system.
Ans: c

14. One gram of uranium will produce energy equivalent to approximately
(a) 1 tonne of high grade coal
(b) 4.5 tonnes of high grade coal
(c) 10 tonnes of high grade coal
(d) 100 tonnes of high grade coal
(e) 1000 tonnes of high grade coal.
Ans: b

15. Which of the following nuclear reactor does not need a heat exchanger for generation of steam
(a) gas cooled
(b) liquid metal cooled
(c) pressurised water
(d) boiling water
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

16. The number of isotopes of hydrogen are
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) U
(c) 3
(e) 0
Ans: c

17. The commonly used material for shielding is
(a) lead or concrete
(b) lead and tin
(c) graphite or cadmium
(d) thick galvanised sheets
(e) black carbon papers.
Ans: a

18. The main interest of shielding in nuclear reactor is protection against
(a) X-rays
(b) infra-red rays
(c) a, P, and y rays
(d) neutrons and gamma rays
(e) electrons.
Ans: d

19. Reflector in nuclear plants is used to
(a) return the neutrons back into the core
(b) shield the radioactivity completely
(c) check polllution
(d) conserve energy
(e) is not used.
Ans: a

20. The energy required to be applied to a radioactive nucleus for the emission of a neutron is
(a) 1 MeV
(b) 2.4 MeV
(c) 4.3 MeV
(d) 7.8 MeV
(e) 20 MeV.
Ans: d

21. Which of the following are ferrite materials
(a) U233andPu239
(b) U
(c) U238andPu239
(d) U238andTh239
(e) none of the above
Ans: b

22. Ferrite material is
(a) the most fissionable material
(b) the basic fuel for nuclear paints
(c) basic raw material for nuclear plants
(d) the material which absorbs neutrons and undergoes spontaneous changes leading to the formation of fissionable material
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

23. Enriched uranium is one in which
(a) %age of U235 has been artificially in-creased
(b) %age of U has been artificially increased
(c) %age of U234 has been artificially in-creased
(d) extra energy is pumped from outside
(e) all impurities have been removed.
Ans: a

24. Which of the following particles is the lightest
(a) nucleus
(b) electron
(c) proton
(d) meson
(e) neutron.
Ans: b

25. Which of the following is the heaviest
(a) neutron
(b) proton
(c) atom
(d) electron
(e) nucleus.
Ans: c

26. In fast breeder reactors
(a) any type of moderator can be used
(b) graphite is used as the moderator
(c) heavy water is used as the moderator
(d) moderator may or may not be used
(e) moderator is dispensed with.
Ans: e

27. In nuclear fission each neutron that causes fission releases
(a) no new neutron
(b) at least one new neutron
(c) one new neutron
(d) more than one new neutrons
(e) many-fold neutrons.
Ans: d

28. The breeding gain in case of thermal breeder reactor as compared to fast breeder reactor is
(a) same
(b) lower
(c) higher
(d) unity
(e) higher/lower depending on the size of reactor.
Ans: b

29. Gas cooled reactor uses following materials as moderator, and coolant
(a) graphite, C02
(b) graphite, air
(c) heavy water, C02
(d) lead, H2
(e) concrete, N2.
Ans: a

30. A nuclear fission produces energy of following order in MeV
(a) 20
(b) 200
(c) 2000
(d) 20,000
(e) 2 x 105.
Ans: b

31. The process by which a heavy nucleus is splitted into two light nuclei is known as
(a) splitting
(b) fission
(c) fusion
(d) disintegration
(e) chain reaction.
Ans: b

32. A nuclear fission is initiated when the critical energy as compared to neutron binding energy of the atoms is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

33. The fast breeder reactor uses the following moderator
(a) demineralised water
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) heavy water
(d) graphite
(e) no moderator is used.
Ans: e

34. The first unclear power plant in India is located at
(a) Kota
(b) Kalapakkam
(c) Tarapur
(d) Baraeilly
(e) Kerala.
Ans: c

35. The nuclear power plant at Tarapur has the following reactor
(a) fast breeder
(b) pressurised water
(c) boiling water
(d) sodium graphite
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

35. Boiling water reactor uses the following as moderator, coolant and working fluid
(a) ordinary fluid
(b) heavy water
(c) molten lead
(d) hydrogen gas
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

36. Ideally the neutron flux in reactor should be
(a) maximum in center and zero at side
(b) maximum at side and zero in center
(c) uniform throughout
(d) zero throughout
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

37. Enriched uranium may contain fissionable contents of the order of
(a) 1-99%
(b) 1-25%
(c) 1-50%
(d) 1-75%
(e) 1-90%.
Ans: a

38. U235 will undergo fission by
(a) high energy (fast) neutrons alone
(b) low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(c) either fast or slow neutrons
(d) medium energy neutrons
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

39. U238 will undergo fission by
(a) high energy (fast) neutrons alone
(b) low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(c) either fast or slow neutrons
(d) medium energy neutrons
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

40. A reactor capable of converting a ferrite material into fissile isotopes is called
(a) regenerative reactor
(b) fast breeder reactor
(c) breeder reactor
(d) boiling water reactor
(e) ferrite reactor.
Ans: a

Nuclear Power Plants Interview Questions and Answers pdf :-

41. Hydrogen is preferred as better coolant in comparison to C02 because former
(a) is lighter
(b) is inert
(c) has high specific heat
(d) is a good conductor
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

42. Natural uranium is made up of
(a) 99.282% U238, 0.712% U235, 0.006% U234
(b) 99.282% U235, 0.712% U238, 0.06%’ U234
(c) 99.282% U234, 0.712% U238, 0.006% U235
(d) 99.282% U235, 0.712% U234, 0.006% U238
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

43. The risk of radioactive hazard is greatest in the turbine with following reactor
(a) pressurised water
(b) boiling water
(c) gas cooled
(d) liquid metal cooled
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b

44. Plutonium is produced
(a) as basic raw material
(b) by neutron irradiation of Uz
(c) by neutron irradiation of throium
(d) artificially
(e) in high capacity furnace.
Ans: b

45. Electron-volt is the unit of
(a) atomic power
(b) energy
(c) voltage
(d) radio activity
(e) there is no such unit.
Ans: b

46. Pick up the wrong statement
(a) In a heterogeneous or solid-fuel reactor, the fuel is mixed in a regular pattern within moderator.
(b) Slow or thermal neutrons have energy of the order or 0.025 eV
(c) Fast neutrons have energies above 1000 eV
(d) Fast reactor uses moderator
(e) Most serious drawback in using water as coolant in nuclear plants is its high vapour pressure.
Ans: d

47. The unit of radio-activity is
(a) electron-volt
(b) electron-ampere
(c) curie
(d) MeV
(e) AMU.
Ans: c

48. Pick up the wrong statement Fast breeder reactors
(a) operate at extremely high power densities.
(b) are liquid-metal cooled
(c) produce more fuel than they consume
(d) are unmoderated
(e) use water as coolant.
Ans: e

49. Uranium-233 is produced
(a) as basic raw material
(b) by neutron irradiation of Uz
(c) by neutron irradiation of thorium
(d) artificially
(e) in high capacity furnaces.
Ans: c

50. Plutonium-239 is produced
(a) as basic raw material
(b) by neutron irradiation of IT*
(c) by neutron irradiation of thorium
(d) artificially
(e) in high capacity furnaces.
Ans: b

51. Which of the following type of pump is used in liquid metal cooled reactor for circulation of liquid metal
(a) centrifugal
(b) axial
(c) reciprocation
(d) electromagnetic
(e) diaphragm.
Ans: d

52. Which of the following is the primary fuel
(a) Ulii
(b) U
(c) U238
(d) Pu:
(e) Pu
Ans: b

53. Which of the following is secondary fuel
(a) Th232andU238
(b) U233andPu239
(c) U233andPu238
Ans: c

54. A pressurised water reactor employs pressuriser for the following application
(a) to maintain constant pressure in primary circuit under varying load
(b) to Supply high pressure steam
(c) to increase pressure of water in primary circut
(d) to provide subcooled water at high pressure
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

55. Which of the following can be used as a coolant in nuclear plant
(a) light or heavy water
(b) molten lead
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) freon
(e) carbon tetrachloride.
Ans: a

56. Reactors for propulsion applications use
(a) natural uranium
(b) molten lead
(c) any form of uranium
(d) thorium
(e) plutonium.
Ans: b

57. The function of control rods in nuclear plants is to
(a) control temperature
(b) control readioactive pollution
(c) control absorption of neutron
(d) control fuel consumption
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

58. Breeder reactors employ liquid metal coolant because it
(a) acts as good moderator
(b) produces maximum steam
(c) transfers heat from core at a fast rate
(d) breeds neutrons
(e) increases rate of reaction in core.
Ans: c

59. In triggering fission, which type of neutrons are more effective
(a) fast
(b) slow
(c) in bulk
(d) static
(e) activated.
Ans: b

60. For economical operation of a nuclear plant
(a) used fuel should be reprocessed
(b) moderator should be used
(c) coolant should be employed
(d) control rods should be used
(e) reflector should be used.
Ans: a

61. The size of the reactor is said to be critical when
(a) chain reaction can be initiated
(b) it becomes uncontrollable
(c) it explodes
(d) it produces no power
(e) it produces tremendous power.
Ans: a

62. When a reactor becomes critical, then the production of neutrons is
(a) infinite
(b) zero
(c) exactly balanced by the loss of neutrons through leakage
(d) initiated
(e) stopped.
Ans: c

63. In the breeder reactors the generation of new fissionable atom is
(a) at the lower rate than the consumption
(b) at a higher rate than the constuption
(c) at an equal rate of the consumption
(d) depends on other considerations
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

64. The energy produced by a thermal reactor of same size as a breeder reactor is
(a) almost same
(b) slightly more
(c) slightly less
(d) much less
(e) much more.
Ans: d

65. Reactors designed for propulsion applications are designed for
(a) natural uranium
(b) enriched uranium
(c) pure uranium
(d) any type of uranium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

66. Supertheated steam is generated in following reactor
(a) boiling water
(b) gas cooled
(c) pressurised water
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

67. Solid- fuel for nuclear reactions may be fabricated into various small shapes such as
(a) plates
(b) pallets
(c) pins
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

68. Which of the following is more appropriate for a moderator. One which
(a) does not absorb neutrons
(b) absorbs neutrons
(c) accelerates neutrons
(d) eats up neutrons
(e) regenerates neutrons.
Ans: a

69. A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed by
(a) slowing down fast neutrons so that Uz fission continues by slow motion neutrons
(b) accelerating fast neutrons
(c) absorbing all neutrons
(d) using moderator
(e) enriching U235.
Ans: a

70. In triggering fission, the following types of neutrons are desirable
(a) fast moving
(b) slow moving
(c) critical neutrons
(d) neutrons at rest
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

71. Effective moderators are those materials which contain
(a) light weight atoms
(b) heavy weight atoms
(c) critical atoms
(d) zero weight atoms
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a

72. In a fission process, maximum %age of energy is released as
(a) kinetic energy of neutrons
(b) kinetic energy of fission products
(c) instantaneous release of gamma rays
(d) gradual readioactive decay of fission products
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

73. The following present serious difficulty in designing reactor shield
(a) alpha particles
(b) beta particles
(c) thermal neutrons
(d) fast neutrons and gamma rays
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

74. In nuclear fission
(a) the original elements change into completely different elements
(b) the electrons of the element change
(c) the molecules rearrange themselves to form other molecules
(d) none of the above.
Ans: a

75. In order to have constant clain reaction to produce a constant rate of heat output, the value of ratio of the number of neutrons in one generation to the number of neutrons in the immediately preceding generation must be
(a) greater than 1.0
(b) less than 1.0
(c) equal to zero
(c) equal to 1.0
(e) equal to infinity.
Ans: d

76. A fast breeder reactor uses following as fuel
(a) enriched uranium
(b) plutonium
(c) thorium
(d) U235
(e) natrual uranium.
Ans: d

77. A boiling water reactor uses following as fuel
(a) enriched uranium
(b) plutonium
(c) thorium
(d) U
(e) natural uranium.
Ans: a

78. A fast breeder reactor
(a) uses graphite rods as moderator
(b) has powerful moderator
(c) has no moderator
(d) uses ferrite material as moderator
(e) uses pressurised water as moderator.
Ans: c

79. Artificial radioactive isotopes find application in
(a) power generation
(b) nucleonic devices
(c) nuclear fission
(d) nuclear fusion
(e) medical field.
Ans: e

80. A fast breeder reactor uses
(a) 90% U-235
(b) U-238
(c) U-235
(d) Pu-239
(e) U-239.
Ans: a

81. Half life of a radioactive isotope corresponds to the time required for half of the following to decay
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) nulceus
(e) atom.
Ans: e

82. Pressurised water reactor isdesigned
(a) for boiling pi water in the core
(b) to use liquid sodium metal as coolant
(c) to use intermediate coolant
(d) to prevent the water coolant from boiling in the core
(e) to eliminate the coolant loop of the pressurised water.
Ans: d

83. The coolant used in boiling water reactor is
(a) Co2
(b) pressurised water
(c) mixture of water and steam
(d) liquid metal
(e) mercury.
Ans: c

84. In boiling water reactor, moderator is
(a) coolant itself
(b) ferrite rod
(c) graphite rod
(d) liquid sodium metal
(e) blanket of thorium.
Ans: a

85. The most practical fuel for a thermo-nuclear reactor, both from econocical and nuclear consideration is
(a) plutonium
(b) uranium
(c) deuterium
(d) thorium
(e) lithium.
Ans: c

86. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to conventional and nuclear consideration is
(a) higher cost of nuclear fuel
(b) high initial cost
(c) high heat rejection in condenser
(d) lower temperature and pressure condi-tions
(e) nuclear hazard risk.
Ans: d

87. The presence of reflector in nuclear power plants results in
(a) increased production of neutrons
(b) complete absorption of neutrons
(c) controlled production of neutrons
(d) decreased leakage of neutrons
(e) decrease of speed of neutrons.
Ans: d

88. The fuel needed, with reflector in nuclear power plant, in order to generate sufficient neutrons to sustain a chain reaction, would be
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) zero
(e) negative, i.e. fuel would be generated.
Ans: b

89. Each fission of U235 produces following number of fast neutrons per fission
(a) 1 neutron
(b) 1 — neutrons
(c) 1 – 2 neutrons
(d) 2 — neutrons
(e) infinite.
Ans: d

[PDF Notes] What are the Advantages of Developed Bill Market in India?

A developed bill market is useful to the borrowers, creditors and to financial and monetary system as a whole. The bill market scheme will go a long way to develop the bill market in the country. The following are various advantages of developed bill markets.

(i) Bill finance is better than cash credit. Bills are self-liquidating and the date of repayment of a bank’s loans through discounting or rediscounting is certain.

(ii) Bills provide greater liquidity to their holders because they can be shifted to others in the market in case of need for cash.

(iii) A developed bill market is also useful to the banks is case of emergency. In the absence of such a market, the banks in need of cash have to depend either on call money market or on the Reserve Bank’s loan window.

(iv) The commercial bill rate is much higher than the treasury bill rate. Thus, the commercial banks and other financial institutions with short-term surplus funds find in bills an attractive source of both liquidity as well as profit.

(v) A development bill market is also useful for the borrowers. The bills are time-bound, can be sold in the market and carry the additional security in the form of acceptor’s signature. Therefore, for the borrowers, the post of bill finane is lower than that of cash credit.

(vi) A developed bill market makes the monetary system of the country more elastic. Whenever the economy requires more cash, the banks can get the bills rediscounted from the Reserve Bank and thus can increase the money supply.

(vii) Development of the bill market will also make the monetary control measures, as adopted by the Reserve Bank, more effective.

As pointed out by the Narasimhan Study Group, “the evolution of the bill market will also make the Bank Rate variation by the Reserve Bank a more effective weapon of monetary control as the impact of any such changes could be transmitted through this sensitive market to the rest of the banking system.”

500+ MCQs on Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles and Turbines

Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles and Turbines Multiple Choice Questions

1. The maximum heat loss is a boiler occurs due to

A. Moisture in fuel

B. Dry flue gases

C. Steam formation

D. Unburnt carbon

Answer: B

2. A single stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 1.2 m runs at 3000 r.p.m. If the blade speed ratio is 0.42, then the inlet velocity of steam will be

A. 79 m/s

B. 188 m/s

C. 450 m/s

D. 900 m/s

Answer: C

3. The actual vacuum in a condenser is equal to

A. Barometric pressure + actual pressure

B. Barometric pressure – actual pressure

C. Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure

D. Gauge pressure – atmospheric pressure

Answer: B

4. Steam turbines are used for

A. Large marine propulsion

B. Electric power generation

C. Direct drive of fans, compressors, pumps

D. All of these

Answer: D

5. Locomotive boiler is of the following type

A. Multi tubular

B. Horizontal

C. Internally fired

D. All of the above

Answer: D

6. It is required to produce large amount of steam at low pressure. Which boiler should be used?

A. Pulverized fuel fired boiler

B. Cochran boiler

C. Lancashire boiler

D. Babcock and Wilcox boiler

Answer: C

7. Reheating of steam in a turbine

A. Increases the work-done through the turbine

B. Increases the efficiency of the turbine

C. Reduces wear on the blades

D. All of these

Answer: D

8. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace, is known as

A. Equivalent evaporation

B. Factor of evaporation

C. Boiler efficiency

D. Power of a boiler

Answer: C

9. In designing air preheaters, the important design consideration is that

A. Approach temperature should be as low as possible

B. Handling and maintenance should be easier

C. Heat transfer area should be optimum

D. Stack gases should not be cooled to the dew point

Answer: D

10. A steam nozzle converts

A. Heat energy of steam into kinetic energy

B. Kinetic energy into heat energy of steam

C. Heat energy of steam into potential energy

D. Potential energy into heat energy of steam

Answer: A

Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles and Turbines Mcqs

11. The number of water level indicators in a boiler are generally __________ in number.

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Answer: B

12. The maximum discharge through a chimney occurs when the height of chimney is

A. Infinitely long

B. Around 200 meters

C. Equal to the height of the hot gas column producing draught

D. Outside temperature is very low

Answer: C

13. The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always

A. Equal to unity

B. Less than unity

C. Greater than unity

D. None of these

Answer: C

14. Water and sediment in fuel oil can be removed by

A. Heating the oil in the settling tanks

B. Cooling the oil in the settling tanks

C. Burning the oil

D. Suspension

Answer: B

15. For a Parson’s reaction turbine, if α₁ and α₂ are fixed blade angles at inlet and exit respectively and β₁ and β₂ are the moving blade angles at entrance and exit respectively, then

A. α₁ = α₂ and β₁ = β₂

B. α₁ = β₁ and α₂= β₂

C. α₁ < β₁ and α₂ > β₂

D. α₁ = β₂ and β₁ = α₂

Answer: B

16. In a reaction turbine when the degree of reaction is zero, then there is

A. No heat drop in moving blades

B. No heat drop in fixed blades

C. Maximum heat drop in moving blades

D. Maximum heat drop in fixed blades

Answer: A

17. A vessel into which the steam is exhausted and condensed after doing work in an engine cylinder or turbine is known as

A. Steam condenser

B. Steam boiler

C. Steam preheater

D. Economiser

Answer: A

18. The capacity of induced draft fan compared to forced draft fan in a boiler is

A. Same

B. More

C. Less

D. Less or more depending on size of boiler

Answer: B

19. The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows

A. Carnot cycle

B. Rankine cycle

C. Joule cycle

D. Stirling cycle

Answer: B

20. Which of the following compound steam engine requires a smaller flywheel?

A. Receiver type

B. Tandem type

C. Woolf type

D. All of these

Answer: A

21. The feed check valve is used in order to

A. Regulate flow of boiler water

B. Check level of water in boiler drum

C. Recirculate unwanted feed water

D. Allow high pressure feed water to flow to drum and not allow reverse flow to take place

Answer: D

22. The discharge of steam in a convergent-divergent nozzle __________ after the throat (i.e. in the divergent portion of the nozzle)

A. Remains constant

B. Decreases

C. Increases

D. None of these

Answer: A

23. An economiser _________ the steam raising capacity of a boiler.

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Has no effect on

D. None of these

Answer: A

24. 1 kg.m is equal to

A. 9.81 Joules

B. 102 Joules

C. 427 Joules

D. None of these

Answer: A

25. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle, the nozzle is said to be

A. Choked

B. Under-damping

C. Over-damping

D. None of these

Answer: B

26. The aim of a compound steam engine is

A. To reduce the ratio of expansion in each cylinder

B. To reduce the length of stroke

C. To reduce the temperature range in each cylinder

D. All of the above

Answer: D

27. At critical point, i.e. p=225.65 kg/cm², the latent enthalpy of vaporisation is

A. Maximum

B. Minimum

C. Zero

D. Depends on temperature also

Answer: C

28. Parson’s reaction turbine is a __________ reaction turbine.

A. 40 percent

B. 50 percent

C. 60 percent

D. 70 percent

Answer: B

29. A compound steam engine in which the high pressure and low pressure cylinders have common piston rod, is called

A. Receiver type compound engine

B. Tandem type compound engine

C. Woolf type compound engine

D. None of these

Answer: B

30. Lancashire boiler is a

A. Stationary fire tube boiler

B. Stationary water tube boiler

C. Water tube boiler with natural/forced circulation

D. Mobile fire tube boiler

Answer: A

31. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades,

A. Pressure increases while velocity decreases

B. Pressure decreases while velocity increases

C. Pressure and velocity both decreases

D. Pressure and velocity both increases

Answer: B

32. The relative efficiency is defined as the

A. Ratio of thermal efficiency to Rankine efficiency

B. Ratio of brake power to the indicated power

C. Ratio of heat equivalent to indicated power to the energy supplied in steam

D. Product of thermal efficiency and Rankine efficiency

Answer: A

33. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler?

A. Locomotive boiler

B. Babcock and Wilcox boiler

C. Stirling boiler

D. All of the above

Answer: A

34. The purpose of governing in steam turbines is to

A. Maintain the speed of the turbine

B. Reduce the effective heat drop

C. Reheat the steam and improve its quality

D. Completely balance against end thrust

Answer: A

35. The performance of a boiler is measured by the

A. Amount of water evaporated per hour

B. Steam produced in kg/h

C. Steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt

D. All of these

Answer: D

36. Which of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands?

A. Babcock and Wilcox

B. Locomotive

C. Lancashire

D. Cochran

Answer: B

37. The ratio of the work-done on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam is called

A. Blading efficiency

B. Nozzle efficiency

C. Stage efficiency

D. Mechanical efficiency

Answer: C

38. The artificial draught is produced by

A. Steam jet

B. Centrifugal fan

C. Chimney

D. BothA. andB.

Answer: D

39. With increase in load, radiant superheater has

A. Drooping characteristic

B. Linear characteristic

C. Rising characteristic

D. Flat characteristic

Answer: A

40. In a 50% reaction turbine stage, tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor inlet is 537 m/s and the blade velocity is 454 m/s. The power output in kW of steam will be

A. 260 kW

B. 282 kW

C. 296 kW

D. 302 kW

Answer: B

41. Which of the following statement indicates the difference between Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler?

A. Cornish boiler is a water tube boiler whereas Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler

B. Cornish boiler is a fire tube boiler whereas Lancashire boiler is a water tube boiler

C. Cornish boiler has one flue tube whereas Lancashire boiler has two flue tubes

D. Cornish boiler has two flue tubes whereas Lancashire boiler has one flue tube

Answer: C

42. Primary air is the air used to

A. Provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion

B. Transport and dry the coal

C. Convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into CO₂ at higher zone

D. Air delivered by forced draft fan

Answer: B

43. In an ideal impulse turbine, the

A. Absolute velocity at the inlet of moving blade is equal to that at the outlet

B. Relative velocity at the inlet of the moving blade is equal to that at the outlet

C. Axial velocity at inlet is equal to that at the outlet

D. Whirl velocity at inlet is equal to that at the outlet

Answer: B

44. A throttle governed steam engine develops 15 kW with 280 kg per hour of steam and 35 kW with 520 kg per hour of steam. The steam consumption in kg per hour when developing 20 kW will be nearly

A. 150 kg/h

B. 210 kg/h

C. 280 kg/h

D. 340 kg/h

Answer: D

45. Gradually increasing temperature of flue gases at inlet to chimney for given steam outputs is an indication of

A. Higher effectiveness of boiler

B. High calorific value coal being burnt

C. Fouling of heat transfer surfaces

D. Raising of steam temperature

Answer: C

46. The critical pressure ratio for initially superheated steam is __________ as compared to initially dry saturated steam.

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. None of these

Answer: B

47. A condenser in a steam power plant

A. Increases expansion ratio of steam

B. Reduces back pressure of steam

C. Reduces temperature of exhaust steam

D. All of these

Answer: D

48. An impulse turbine as compared to a reaction turbine, for a given power has _________ row of blades.

A. Equal

B. Less

C. More

D. None of these

Answer: C

49. For maximum discharge through a chimney, the condition is that height of hot gas column producing the draught should be

A. One-half the height of chimney

B. Equal to the height of chimney

C. Two times the height of chimney

D. Four times the height of chimney

Answer: B

50. The steam temperature with increase in load in case of a boiler fitted with radiation superheater

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remain unaffected

D. First increases and then decreases

Answer: B

51. The rate of discharge through the nozzle __________ when the exit pressure is gradually reduced.

A. Remains same

B. Decreases

C. Increases

D. None of these

Answer: C

52. The object of producing draught in a boiler is

A. To provide an adequate supply of air for the fuel combustion

B. To exhaust the gases of combustion from the combustion chamber

C. To discharge the gases of combustion to the atmosphere through the chimney

D. All of the above

Answer: D

53. Feed water conditioning in thermal power plants in done to

A. Reduce hardness and for removal of solids

B. Increase efficiency of thermal power plant

C. Increase heat transfer rate

D. Increase steam parameters

Answer: A

54. A regenerative steam cycle renders

A. Increased work output per unit mass of steam

B. Decreased work output per unit mass of steam

C. Increased thermal efficiency

D. Decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency

Answer: D

55. The fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are

A. Horizontal

B. Vertical

C. Inclined

D. None of these

Answer: A

56. For water, at pressures below atmospheric;

A. Melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly

B. Melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly

C. Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly

D. Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly

Answer: A

57. The action of steam in a steam turbine is

A. Static

B. Dynamic

C. Static and dynamic

D. Neither static nor dynamic

Answer: B

58. The efficiency of the plant __________ with the mechanical draught.

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains constant

D. None of these

Answer: A

59. The latent heat of steam with increase of pressure

A. Remain same

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. Behaves unpredictably

Answer: C

60. When the cross-section of a nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit, it is called a

A. Divergent nozzle

B. Convergent nozzle

C. Convergent-divergent nozzle

D. None of these

Answer: A

61. The equivalent evaporation is defined as

A. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace

B. The amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt

C. The amount of water evaporated from and at 100°C into dry and saturated steam

D. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C

Answer: C

62. Steam engine operates on

A. Carnot cycle

B. Joule cycle

C. Stirling cycle

D. Brayton cycle

Answer: D

63. De-Laval turbines are mostly used

A. Where low speeds are required

B. For small power purposes and low speeds

C. For large power purposes

D. For small power purposes and high speeds

Answer: D

64. In a Tandem type compound engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinders

A. Have common piston rod

B. Are set at 90°

C. Have separate piston rods

D. Are set in V-arrangement

Answer: A

65. Pick up the correct statement as regards Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler

A. Cornish is fire tube and Lancashire is water tube

B. Cornish is water tube and Lancashire is fire tube

C. Cornish has two fire tubes and Lancashire has one

D. Lancashire has two fire tubes and Cornish has one

Answer: D

66. Blading efficiency is also known as

A. Stage efficiency

B. Diagram efficiency

C. Nozzle efficiency

D. None of these

Answer: B

67. In a single acting steam engine

A. The steam is admitted on one side of the piston and one working stroke is produced during each revolution of the crankshaft

B. The steam is admitted, in turn, on both sides of the piston and one working stroke is produced during each revolution of the crankshaft

C. The steam is admitted on one side of the piston and two working strokes are produced during each revolution of the crankshaft

D. The steam is admitted, in turn, on both sides of the piston and two working strokes are produced during each revolution of the crankshaft

Answer: A

68. Boiler H.P. is defined as the

A. Steam evaporation rate per kg of fuel fired

B. Work done in evaporating 1 kg of steam per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated steam

C. The evaporation of 15.65 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated steam

D. Work done by 1 kg of steam at saturation condition

Answer: C

69. Steam turbines may be classified according to

A. Direction of steam flow

B. Number of stages

C. Mode of steam action

D. All of these

Answer: D

70. The fire tubes in a Locomotive boiler has __________ diameter.

A. 4.75 mm

B. 5.47 mm

C. 7.45 mm

D. 47.5 mm

Answer: D

71. The safety valve at superheater as compared to drum safety valve setting is set at

A. Higher value

B. Lower value

C. Same value

D. Any value

Answer: B

72. In a compound steam engine, the first stage of expansion is carried out in a high pressure cylinder whereas the last expansion is completed in low pressure cylinder. The diameter of high pressure cylinder is _________ the low pressure cylinder.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: B

73. For combustion of a fuel, following is essential

A. Correct fuel air ratio

B. Proper ignition temperature

C. O₂ to support combustion

D. All the three above

Answer: D

74. In an impulse reaction turbine, the pressure drops gradually and continuously over

A. Fixed blades

B. Moving blades

C. Both fixed and moving blades

D. None of these

Answer: C

75. The efficiency of a boiler is defined as

A. Ratio of heat actually used in producing steam to the heat liberated in the furnace

B. Ratio of the mass of steam produced to the mass of total water supplied in a given time

C. Ratio of the heat liberated in the furnace to the heat actually used in producing steam

D. None of the above

Answer: A

76. The pressure compounded impulse turbine as compared to velocity compounded turbine require __________ number of stages.

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. None of these

Answer: C

77. The safety valve on boiler drum compared to safety valve on superheater is set at

A. Same value

B. Higher value

C. Lower value

D. Lower/higher depending on steam flow

Answer: B

78. Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of

A. Heat drop in fixed blades to the heat drop in moving blades

B. Heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades

C. Heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades

D. Heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in moving blades

Answer: C

79. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. A horizontal steam engine requires less floor area than a vertical steam engine

B. The steam pressure in the cylinder is not allowed to fall below the atmospheric pressure

C. The compound steam engines are generally non-condensing steam engines

D. All of the above

Answer: B

80. A nozzle is said to be a convergent nozzle

A. When the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit

B. When the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit

C. When the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then increases from its throat to exit

D. None of the above

Answer: B

81. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler

B. Water tube boilers are internally fired

C. Lamont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler

D. All of the above

Answer: D

82. Film boiling occurs at

A. Very low pressure

B. Atmospheric pressures

C. Medium pressures

D. Very high pressures

Answer: D

83. The discharge is __________ at critical pressure.

A. Zero

B. Minimum

C. Maximum

D. None of these

Answer: C

84. An air preheater is installed

A. Before the economiser

B. Before the superheater

C. Between the economiser and chimney

D. None of these

Answer: D

85. Coke is produced by

A. Pulverizing coal in inert atmosphere

B. Heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300°C

C. Strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel

D. Enriching carbon in the coal

Answer: C

86. The variation of steam pressure in the nozzle depends upon

A. Velocity of steam

B. Specific volume of steam

C. Dryness fraction of steam

D. All of these

Answer: D

87. A safety valve mainly used with locomotive and marine boilers is

A. Lever safety valve

B. Dead weight safety valve

C. High steam and low water safety valve

D. Spring loaded safety valve

Answer: D

88. In a throttling process

A. Steam temperature remains constant

B. Steam pressure remains constant

C. Steam enthalpy remains constant

D. Steam entropy remains constant

Answer: C

89. De-Laval turbine is a

A. Simple impulse turbine

B. Simple reaction turbine

C. Impulse-reaction turbine

D. None of these

Answer: A

90. When steam after doing work in the cylinder passes into a condenser, the engine is said to be a

A. Slow speed engine

B. Vertical steam engine

C. Condensing steam engine

D. Non-condensing steam engine

Answer: C

91. Efficiency of Rankine cycle can be increased by

A. Decreasing initial steam pressure and temperature

B. Increasing exhaust pressure

C. Decreasing exhausts pressure

D. Increasing the expansion ratio

Answer: A

92. In an impulse turbine

A. The steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop and heat drop

B. The steam is expanded both in fixed and moving blades continuously

C. The steam is expanded in moving blades only

D. The pressure and temperature of steam remains constant

Answer: A

93. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler has ________ heating surface as compared to fire tube boiler.

A. More

B. Less

C. Equal

D. None of these

Answer: A

94. Which of the following is a water tube boiler?

A. Locomotive boiler

B. Cochran boiler

C. Cornish boiler

D. Babcock and Wilcox boiler

Answer: D

95. In a reaction turbine

A. The steam is allowed to expand in the nozzle, where it gives a high velocity before it enters the moving blades

B. The expansion of steam takes place partly in the fixed blades and partly in the moving blades

C. The steam is expanded from a high pressure to a condenser pressure in one or more nozzles

D. The pressure and temperature of steam remains constant

Answer: B

96. The selection of type and size of a steam boiler depends upon

A. The power required and working pressure

B. The geographical position of the power house

C. The fuel and water available

D. All of the above

Answer: D

97. In natural circulation type boiler,

A. Heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum

B. Water is supplied in drum and through down comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam

C. Feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace

D. Water is converted into steam in one. Pass without any recirculation

Answer: A

98. The maximum efficiency of a De-Laval turbine is (where α = Nozzle angle)

A. sin²α

B. cos²α

C. tan²α

D. cot²α

Answer: B

99. A _________ in a boiler is used to put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit.

A. Blow off cock

B. Fusible plug

C. Stop valve

D. Safety valve

Answer: B

100. The ratio of heat utilized to produce steam and the heat liberated in furnace is known as

A. Boiler effectiveness

B. Boiler evaporative capacity

C. Factor of evaporation

D. Boiler efficiency

Answer: D

101. The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces the velocity of steam by __________ while it passes over the blades.

A. 10 to 15%

B. 15 to 20%

C. 20 to 30%

D. 30 to 40%

Answer: A

102. For the same length of stroke and speed of crankshaft, the piston speed for a double acting steam engine is _________ the piston speed of single acting steam engine.

A. Equal to

B. Twice

C. Three times

D. Four times

Answer: B

103. The height of chimney in a power plant is governed by

A. The draft to be created

B. Limitation of construction facilities

C. Control of pollution

D. Quantity of flue gases to be handled

Answer: C

104. In impulse turbines, when friction is neglected, the relative velocity of steam at outlet tip of the blade is _________ the relative velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: A

105. The fittings mounted on the boiler for its proper and safe functioning is a

A. Water level indicator

B. Pressure gauge

C. Safety valve

D. All of these

Answer: D

106. Presence of moisture in fuel oil would

A. Keep the burner tips cool

B. Aid in proper combustion

C. Because sputtering, possibly extinguishing flame

D. Clean the nozzles

Answer: C

107. In a steam condenser, the partial pressure of steam and air are 0.06 bar and 0.007 bar respectively. The condenser pressure is

A. 0.007 bar

B. 0.053 bar

C. 0.06 bar

D. 0.067 bar

Answer: D

108. Which is not correct statement about effect of sulphur in fuel?

A. It has heating value

B. It helps in electrostatic precipitation of ash in flue gases

C. It leads to corrosion of air heaters, ducting, etc. if flue gas exit temperature is low

D. It erodes furnace walls

Answer: D

109. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-third of the isentropic enthalpy drop in fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be

A. 0.4

B. 0.56

C. 0.67

D. 1.67

Answer: A

110. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at _________ to the direction of the blade motion.

A. 60°

B. 90°

C. 180°

D. 270°

Answer: B

111. The principal function of a stop valve is to

A. Control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam completely when required

B. Empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments which are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler

C. Put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit

D. Increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure

Answer: A

112. Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum design working pressure of

A. 1 kg/cm

B. 6 kg/cm

C. 17 kg/cm²

D. 100 kg/cm²

Answer: C

113. The critical pressure ratio (p₂/p₁) is given by

A. (p₂/p₁) = [2/(n – 1)] n/(n + 1)

B. (p₂/p₁) = [2/(n + 1)] n/(n-1)

C. (p₂/p₁) = [(n – 1)/2] n + (1/n)

D. (p₂/p₁) = [(n + 1)/2] n – (1/n)

Answer: B

114. Water tube boilers are

A. Internally fired

B. Externally fired

C. Internally as well as externally fired

D. None of these

Answer: B

115. The bituminous coal is no caking if its carbon content is

A. 78-81%

B. 81-85%

C. 85-90%

D. 90-95%

Answer: A

116. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as

A. Constant volume flow

B. Constant pressure flow

C. Isothermal flow

D. Isentropic flow

Answer: D

117. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure, is called

A. Blow off cock

B. Fusible plug

C. Superheater

D. Stop valve

Answer: C

118.  Orsat meter is used for

A. Gravimetric analysis of the flue gases

B. Volumetric analysis of the flue gases

C. Mass flow of the flue gases

D. Measuring smoke density of flue gases

Answer: B

119. The Parsons’ reaction turbine has

A. Only moving blades

B. Only fixed blades

C. Identical fixed and moving blades

D. Fixed and moving blades of different shape

Answer: C

120. A single acting steam engine produces __________ power than that of double acting steam engine.

A. Equal

B. Half

C. Double

D. Four times

Answer: B

121. Which of the following substance will have same percentage in both proximate and ultimate analysis?

A. Ash

B. Volatile matter

C. Moisture

D. Hydrogen

Answer: A

122. The steam enters the nozzle at a

A. High pressure and a low velocity

B. High pressure and a high velocity

C. Low pressure and a low velocity

D. Low pressure and a high velocity

Answer: A

123. By compounding the expansion of steam in two or more cylinders, the length of stroke

A. Does not change

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: C

124. The diameters of fire tubes and superheater tubes in locomotive boiler are

A. 47.5 mm, 130 mm

B. 32.5 mm, 180 mm

C. 65.5 mm, 210 mm

D. 24.5 mm, 65 mm

Answer: A

125. The effect of friction on the flow of steam through a nozzle is to

A. Decrease the mass flow rate and to increase the wetness of steam

B. Increase the mass flow rate and to increase the exit temperature

C. Decrease the mass flow rate and to decrease the wetness of steam

D. Increase the exit temperature without any effect on mass flow rate

Answer: C

126. Throttle governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the engine output by varying

A. Volume of intake steam

B. Pressure of intake steam

C. Temperature of intake steam

D. All of these

Answer: B

127. With increase in load, convection superheater has

A. Drooping characteristic

B. Linear characteristic

C. Rising characteristic

D. Flat characteristic

Answer: C

128. In order to reduce the rotor speed of an impulse turbine, the method employed is

A. Velocity compounding

B. Pressure compounding

C. Pressure-velocity compounding

D. All of these

Answer: D

129. In case of condensing steam engines, the pressure of steam in the cylinder during exhaust stroke is _________ the atmospheric pressure.

A. Equal to

B. Lower than

C. Higher than

D. None of these

Answer: C

130. Ultimate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of

A. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture

B. Fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture

C. Higher calorific value

D. Lower calorific value

Answer: A

131. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The efficiency of steam turbines is greater than steam engines

B. A flywheel is a must for steam turbine

C. The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle

D. The pressure of steam, in reaction turbines, is increased in fixed blades as well as in moving blades

Answer: A

132. By compounding the expansion of steam in two or more cylinders, the ratio of expansion

A. Does not change

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: C

133. The proximate analysis of fuel lists

A. Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as percents by volume

B. Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as percents by weight

C. Fuel constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash

D. Fuel constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash

Answer: D

134. A steam turbine, in which a part of the steam after partial expansion, is used for process heating and the remaining steam is further expanded for power generation, is known as

A. Back pressure turbine

B. Pass out turbine

C. Low pressure turbine

D. Impulse turbine

Answer: B

135. Willian’s law states that the steam consumption per hour provided with a throttled governor is proportional to (where I.P. = Indicated power)

A. 1/(I.P)

B. 1/(I.P)²

C. I.P.

D. (I.P.)²

Answer: C

136. Which is not the correct statement about moisture in coal?

A. Inherent moisture and surface moisture are different things

B. In some coals moisture may be present up to 40%

C. Some moisture in coal helps in better burning which is not possible with completely dry coal

D. It increases thermal efficiency

Answer: D

137. The friction present between the steam and the nozzle surfaces reduces the heat drop by

A. 10 to 15%

B. 15 to 25%

C. 25 to 40%

D. 40 to 60%

Answer: A

138. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a

A. Chimney

B. Centrifugal fan

C. Steam jet

D. None of these

Answer: C

139. Stoichiometric quantity of air is the

A. Air present in atmosphere at NTP conditions

B. Air required for complete combustion of fuel with no excess air

C. Air required for optimum combustion so as to have reasonable excess air

D. Air required to convert CO into CO₂

Answer: B

140. The impulse reaction turbine has its driving force

A. As an impulsive force

B. As a reaction force

C. Partly as an impulsive force and partly as a reaction force

D. None of the above

Answer: C

141. The average operating pressure of Benson boiler is

A. 100 bar

B. 150 bar

C. 200 bar

D. 250 bar

Answer: D

142. Pick up the wrong statement about critical condition of steam

A. Latent heat is zero

B. Liquid directly becomes steam

C. Specific volume of steam and liquid is same

D. This is the maximum pressure limit

Answer: D

143. In reaction turbines, the axial thrust is due to

A. Pressure drop across the rotor

B. Change in axial velocity

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of these

Answer: C

144. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the chimney is called

A. Induced steam jet draught

B. Chimney draught

C. Forced steam jet draught

D. None of these

Answer: A

145. A packaged boiler is one in which various parts like firing equipment, fans, feed pumps and automatic controls are

A. Supplied by same manufacturer loose and assembled at site

B. Supplied mounted on a single base

C. Purchased from several parties and packed together at site

D. Packaged boiler does not exist

Answer: B

146. The impulse turbine rotor efficiency will have a maximum value of 0.5 cos 2α, where α is the nozzle exit flow angle, if the

A. Blades are equiangular

B. Blade velocity coefficient is unity

C. Blades are equiangular and frictionless

D. Blade solidity is 0.65

Answer: C

147. Lancashire boiler is used where working pressure and power required are

A. Low

B. Moderate

C. High

D. None of these

Answer: B

148. Fusible plug for boilers is made of fusible metal containing tin, lead, and

A. Bismuth

B. Copper

C. Aluminium

D. Nickel

Answer: A

149. Which of the following statement is correct for steam turbines as compared to reciprocating steam engines?

A. A steam turbine develops higher speeds

B. The efficiency of steam turbine is higher

C. The steam consumption is less

D. All of these

Answer: D

150. Which of the following is not a boiler mounting?

A. Blow off cock

B. Feed check valve

C. Economiser

D. Fusible plug

Answer: C

151. In recuperative air preheaters, the heat is transferred

A. From a metal wall from one medium to another

B. From heating an intermediate material and then heating the air from this material

C. By direct mixing

D. Heat is transferred by bleeding some gases from furnace

Answer: A

152. The process of draining steam from the turbine, at certain points during its expansion and using this steam for heating the feed water in feed water heaters and then supplying it to the boiler is known as

A. Regenerative heating

B. Reheating of steam

C. Bleeding

D. None of these

Answer: C

153. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. The mechanical draught reduces the height of chimney

B. The natural draught reduces the fuel consumption

C. A balanced draught is a combination of induced and forced draught

D. All of the above

Answer: B

154. Sulphur content of fuels is very important to the plant operators because it

A. Has high heating value

B. Retards electric precipitation

C. Promotes complete combustion

D. Has highly corrosive effect

Answer: D

155. Stage efficiency is also known as

A. Diagram efficiency

B. Nozzle efficiency

C. Gross efficiency

D. None of these

Answer: C

156. A device used to heat feed water by utilizing the heat in me exhaust flue gases before leaving through the chimney, is known as

A. Economizer

B. Fusible plug

C. Superheater

D. Stop valve

Answer: A

157. Which is not correct statement about the function of furnace?

A. To provide proper conditions for continuous complete combustion

B. Mix fuel with air and ignite

C. Separate ash from coal

D. Maintain heat supply to prepare and ignite the incoming fuel

Answer: C

158. In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur between

A. Inlet and throat

B. Inlet and outlet

C. Throat and exit

D. All of these

Answer: C

159. The working pressure range for a LaMont boiler is

A. 0.5 to 10 MN/m²

B. 1 to 15 MN/m²

C. 2.5 to 15 MN/m²

D. 3.5 to 20 MN/m²

Answer: D

160. The basic job of feed water treatment in boilers is to overcome the problem of

A. Corrosion

B. Scale

C. Carryover

D. All of the above

Answer: D

161. In a De-Laval nozzle expanding superheated steam from 10 bar to 0.1 bar, the pressure at the minimum cross-section (i. e. pressure at throat, p₂) will be

A. 3.3 bar

B. 5.46 bar

C. 8.2 bar

D. 9.9 bar

Answer: B

162. In a glass tube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water space and the other end is connected to

A. Water space also

B. Chimney

C. Steam space

D. Superheater

Answer: C

163. At very low temperature, the melting and boiling temperatures become equal. This temperature is

A. 373°K

B. 273.16°K

C. 303°K

D. 0°K

Answer: B

164. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called

A. Condenser efficiency

B. Nozzle efficiency

C. Boiler efficiency

D. Vacuum efficiency

Answer: B

165. The fire tubes in a Scotch marine boiler are

A. Horizontal

B. Vertical

C. Inclined

D. None of these

Answer: A

166. On Millier chart, the constant pressure lines

A. Diverge from left to right

B. Diverge from right to left

C. Are equally spaced throughout

D. First rise up and then fall

Answer: A

167. The reheat factor depends upon

A. Initial pressure and superheat

B. Exit pressure

C. Turbine stage efficiency

D. All of these

Answer: D

168. In a boiler, feed water supplied per hour is 205 kg while coal fired per hour is 23 kg. The net enthalpy rise per kg of water is 145 kJ. If the calorific valve of the coal is 2050 kJ/kg, then the boiler efficiency will be

A. 56 %

B. 63 %

C. 74 %

D. 78 %

Answer: B

169. The state of vapor under saturation condition is described by

A. Pressure alone

B. Temperature alone

C. Pressure and temperature

D. Pressure and dryness fraction

Answer: D

170. The diagram efficiency is the ratio of

A. Workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades

B. Workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam

C. Energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam

D. None of the above

Answer: A

171. Locomotive boiler is a

A. Single tube, horizontal, internally fired and stationary boiler

B. Single tube, vertical, externally fired and stationary boiler

C. Multi-tubular, horizontal, internally fired and mobile boiler

D. Multi-tubular, horizontal, externally fired and stationary boiler

Answer: C

172. 100% efficiency of a thermal cycle cannot be achieved because of

A. Frictional losses

B. It is not possible to achieve 0°K temperature

C. Leakage

D. Non availability of ideal substance

Answer: B

173. In a velocity compounded impulse turbine, when steam flows through the second row of moving blades,

A. Velocity increases

B. Velocity decreases

C. Velocity remains constant

D. Pressure remains constant

Answer: B

174. Cut-off governing as compared to throttle governing is

A. Less efficient and less economical

B. Less efficient and more economical

C. More efficient and less economical

D. More efficient and more economical

Answer: D

175. Which of the following coals has the highest calorific value?

A. Anthracite coal

B. Bituminous coal

C. Lignite

D. Peat

Answer: A

176. In a Parson’s turbine stage, blade velocity is 320 m/s at the mean radius and rotor blade exit angle is 30°. For minimum kinetic energy of the steam leaving the stage, the steam velocity at the exit of the rotor will be

A. 160/3 m/s

B. 320/3 m/s

C. 640/3 m/s

D. 640 m/s

Answer: C

177. The main object of a boiler trial is

A. To determine the generating capacity of the boiler

B. To determine the thermal efficiency of the boiler when working at a definite pressure

C. To prepare heat balance sheet for the boiler

D. All of the above

Answer: D

178. Hard coke is used in

A. Cement industry

B. Thermal power plant

C. Blast furnace

D. Domestic use

Answer: C

179. The velocity of whirl at outlet for an axial discharge turbine is

A. Minimum

B. Maximum

C. Zero

D. None of these

Answer: C

180. The ratio of the volume at cut-off to the swept volume is called

A. Cut-off ratio

B. Expansion ratio

C. Clearance ratio

D. None of these

Answer: A

181. The effect of friction in the nozzle __________ dryness fraction of steam.

A. Has no effect on

B. Decreases

C. Increases

D. None of these

Answer: C

182. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is

A. Boiler efficiency, turbine efficiency, generator efficiency

B. All the three above plus gas cycle efficiency

C. Carnot cycle efficiency

D. Regenerative cycle efficiency

Answer: A

183. A compound steam engine in which piston rods of high pressure and low pressure cylinders are attached to two different cranks set at 90° to each other, is called

A. Receiver type compound engine

B. Tandem type compound engine

C. Woolf type compound engine

D. BothA. andB.

Answer: A

184. In locomotives, the draught is produced by

A. Chimney

B. Induced draft fan

C. Both combinedA. andB.

D. Steam jet draught

Answer: D

185. The efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when (where Vb = Blade speed, V = Absolute velocity of steam entering the blade, and α = Nozzle angle)

A. Vb = 0.5 V cosα

B. Vb = V cosα

C. Vb = 0.5 V² cosα

D. Vb = V² cosα

Answer: A

186. The draught (in mm of water), for maximum discharge of flue gases through the chimney, is given by (where H = Height of the chimney in meters, and T1 = Absolute temperature of air outside the chimney in K)

A. T1 /88.25H

B. 88.25H/T1

C. T1 /176.5H

D. 176.5H/T1

Answer: D

187. The behavior of coal in a furnace is determined by

A. The content of sulphur

B. The content of ash and heating value

C. The proximate analysis

D. The exact analysis

Answer: C

188. The efficiency of a pressure-velocity compounded impulse turbine is __________ as compared to pressure compounded impulse turbine.

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. None of these

Answer: B

189. An economiser is generally placed between

A. Last superheater or reheater and air preheater

B. Induced draft fan and forced draft fan

C. Air preheater and chimney

D. None of the above

Answer: A

190. In order to obtain superheated steam, a superheater is added in an existing boiler. As as result, furnace vacuum will

A. Remain unaffected

B. Improve

C. Worsen

D. May improve/worsen depending on size

Answer: C

191. The maximum discharge of steam through a convergent-divergent nozzle depends upon

A. Area of nozzle at throat

B. Initial pressure and volume of steam

C. Final pressure of steam leaving the nozzle

D. BothA. andB.

Answer: D

192. In a boiler, the heat is lost

A. To dry flue gases

B. In moisture present in the fuel

C. To steam formed by combustion of hydrogen per kg of fuel

D. All of the above

Answer: D

193. The critical pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation is zero is

A. 225.65 kgf/ cm²

B. 273 kgf/ cm²

C. 100 kgf/ cm²

D. 1 kgf/ cm²

Answer: A

194. The effect of bleeding is that

A. It increases the thermodynamic efficiency of the turbine

B. Boiler is supplied with hot water

C. It decreases the power developed by the turbine

D. All of the above

Answer: D

195. Which of the following statement is correct for a compound steam engine?

A. The cost of the engine, for the same power and economy, is more than that of a simple steam engine

B. The forces in the working parts are increased as the forces are distributed over more parts

C. The ratio of expansion is reduced, thus reducing the length of stroke

D. The temperature range per cylinder is increased, with corresponding increase in condensation

Answer: C

196. One kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; Its dryness fraction is

A. 0.2

B. 0.8

C. 1.0

D. 0.6

Answer: B

197. The velocity of steam leaving the nozzle (V) is given by (where K = Nozzle coefficient or nozzle efficiency, and hd = Enthalpy or heat drop during expansion of steam in a nozzle)

A. V = 44.72 hd K

B. V = 44.72 K hd

C. V = 44.72 K hd

D. V = 44.72 K hd

Answer: C

198. The power of a boiler may be defined as

A. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace

B. The amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt

C. The amount of water evaporated from and at 100° C into dry and saturated steam

D. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100° C

Answer: B

199. Heating wet steam at constant temperature is heating it at constant

A. Volume

B. Pressure

C. Entropy

D. Enthalpy

Answer: B

200. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the available heat drop

A. Remains the same

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. Is unpredictable

Answer: C

201. The velocity of flue gases (V) through the chimney under a static draught of (H’) metres is given by

A. V = 2g H’

B. V = 2g/H’

C. V = H’/2g

D. V = 2gH’

Answer: A

202. Efficiency of a thermal cycle increases by

A. Regeneration

B. Reheating of steam

C. BothA. andB.

D. Cooling of steam

Answer: C

203. Parson’s turbine is a

A. Simple impulse turbine

B. Simple reaction turbine

C. Impulse-reaction turbine

D. None of these

Answer: B

204. The diameter of a cylindrical shell of a Scotch marine boiler varies from

A. 1.5 to 2 m

B. 2.5 to 3.5 m

C. 3.5 to 4.5 m

D. None of these

Answer: B

205. The crown of the fire box is made hemispherical in order to

A. Give maximum space

B. Give maximum strength

C. Withstand pressure inside boiler

D. Resist intense heat in fire box

Answer: D

206. The velocity of steam at throat of the nozzle is __________ the velocity of sound.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: A

207. The cylinder condensation or missing quantity may be reduced by

A. The efficient steam jacketing of the cylinder walls

B. Superheating the steam supplied to the engine cylinder

C. Keeping the expansion ratio small in each cylinder

D. All of the above

Answer: D

208. The Locomotive boiler has

A. 137 fire tubes and 44 superheated tubes

B. 147 fire tubes and 34 superheated tubes

C. 157 fire tubes and 24 superheated tubes

D. 167 fire tubes and 14 superheated tubes

Answer: C

209. Which of the following varieties of coals is mostly used in steam boilers?

A. Non-coking bituminous coal

B. Brown coal

C. Peat

D. None of the above

Answer: D

210. The compounding of turbines is done in order to

A. Reduce speed of rotor

B. Improve efficiency

C. Reduce exit losses

D. All of these

Answer: D

211. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler?

A. Lancashire boiler

B. Babcock and Wilcox boiler

C. Yarrow boiler

D. None of these

Answer: A

212. In forced recirculation type boiler,

A. Heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum

B. Water is supplied in drum and through down comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam

C. Feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace

D. Water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation

Answer: C

213. When the nozzle operates with the maximum mass flow, the nozzle is said to be

A. Choked

B. Under-damping

C. Over-damping

D. None of these

Answer: A

214. The average value of diagram factor lies between

A. 0.2 to 0.5

B. 0.5 to 0.65

C. 0.65 to 0.9

D. 0.8 to 1.2

Answer: C

215. A safety valve in a locomotive starts leaking. The leaking medium will be

A. Water

B. Dry steam

C. Wet steam

D. Super heated steam

Answer: D

216. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal to the velocity of sound

B. The flow in the convergent portion of the nozzle is subsonic

C. The flow in the divergent portion of the nozzle is supersonic

D. To increase the velocity of steam above sonic velocity (supersonic) by expanding steam below the critical pressure, the divergent portion for the nozzle is not necessary

Answer: D

217. The ratio of the energy required to produce the artificial draught (expressed in meters head or J/kg of flue gas) to the mechanical equivalent of extra heat carried away per kg of flue gases due to natural draught, is known as

A. Efficiency of the boiler

B. Efficiency of the chimney

C. Efficiency of the fan

D. Power of the boiler

Answer: B

218. Which device is used in thermal power plants to reduce level of pollution?

A. Induced draft fan

B. Smoke meter

C. Chimney

D. Precipitator

Answer: D

219. The expansion of steam, as it flows over the blades in reaction turbine, represents

A. Isothermal process

B. Isentropic process

C. Throttling process

D. Free expansion process

Answer: B

220. Clearance ratio is the ratio of

A. Clearance volume to the swept volume

B. Clearance volume to the volume at cut-off

C. Volume at cut-off to the swept volume

D. Swept volume to the clearance volume

Answer: A

221. The ultimate analysis of fuel lists

A. Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as percents by volume

B. Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as percents by weight

C. Fuel constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash

D. Fuel constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash

Answer: B

222. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows Rankine cycle

B. The friction in the nozzle increases the dryness fraction of steam

C. The pressure of steam at throat is called critical pressure

D. All of the above

Answer: D

223. The heat balance sheet for the boiler shows the

A. Complete account of heat supplied by 1 kg of dry fuel and the heat consumed

B. Moisture present in the fuel

C. Steam formed by combustion of hydrogen per kg of fuel

D. All of the above

Answer: A

224. A supercritical boiler is one that operates above the pressure and temperature of following values

A. 100 kg/cm² and 540°C

B. 1 kg/cm² and 100°C

C. 218 kg/cm² abs and 373°C

D. 218 kg/cm² abs and 540°C

Answer: C

225. Curtis turbine is a

A. Simple reaction turbine

B. Velocity compounded turbine

C. Pressure compounded turbine

D. Pressure-velocity compounded turbine

Answer: D

226. The air pressure at the fuel bed is reduced below that of atmosphere by means of a fan placed at or near the bottom of the chimney to produce a draught. Such a draught is called

A. Natural draught

B. Induced draught

C. Forced draught

D. Balanced draught

Answer: B

227. The dry saturated steam at very low pressure, (510 kg/cm²) when throttled to atmosphere will become

A. Wet

B. Superheated

C. Remain dry saturated

D. Dry

Answer: B

228. The nozzle efficiency is the ratio of

A. Workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades

B. Workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam

C. Energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam

D. None of the above

Answer: C

229. All steam engines work on

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics

C. Second law of thermodynamics

D. None of these

Answer: C

230. The increase in pressure

A. Lowers the boiling point of a liquid

B. Raises the boiling point of a liquid

C. Does not affects the boiling point of a liquid

D. Reduces its volume

Answer: B

231.  If the critical pressure ratio for steam is 0.546, then the steam is initially

A. Wet steam

B. Dry saturated steam

C. Superheated steam

D. None of these

Answer: C

232. The amount of water evaporated from feed water at _________ into dry and saturated steam at 100° C at normal atmospheric pressure is called equivalent evaporation from and at 100° C.

A. 0°C

B. 40°C

C. 60°C

D. 100°C

Answer: D

233. The high pressure boiler is one, which produces steam at a pressure more than

A. Atmospheric pressure

B. 5 kg/cm²

C. 10 kg/cm²

D. 7580 kg/cm²

Answer: D

234. The critical pressure ratio for gases is

A. 0.528

B. 0.546

C. 0.577

D. 0.582

Answer: A

235. Which of the following is correct? (Where pa = Actual mean effective pressure, pm = Theoretical mean effective pressure, and K = Diagram factor)

A. pa = pm/K

B. pa = pm × K

C. pa = K/pm

D. pa = pm + K

Answer: B

236. A stage, in reaction turbine, is represented by

A. Number of casing

B. Number of entries of steam

C. Number of exits of steam

D. Each row of blades

Answer: D

237. In a steam engine, superheated steam from the boiler is fed into the steam chest at a pressure of

A. 10 atmospheres

B. 20 atmospheres

C. 30 atmospheres

D. 40 atmospheres

Answer: B

238. The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled circulation boilers is

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. Could be more or less depending on other factors

Answer: A

239. When the inlet pressure of steam is equal to the exit pressure, then

A. There is a pressure drop in the nozzle

B. Fluid flows through the nozzle

C. Pressure drops and fluid flows through the nozzle

D. There is no pressure drop and fluid does not flow through the nozzle

Answer: D

240. In water tube boilers

A. Water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases

B. The flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water

C. Forced circulation takes place

D. None of these

Answer: A

241. The temperature of flue gases at air heater outlet should be

A. 100°C

B. Above dew point temperature of flue gases

C. Below dew point temperature of flue gases

D. Less than wet bulb temperature of flue gases

Answer: B

242. The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is

A. 0.546

B. 0.577

C. 0.582

D. 0.601

Answer: C

243. The function of a cross-head is to guide motion of the _________ and to prevent it from bending.

A. Piston rod

B. Connecting rod

C. Eccentric rod

D. Valve rod

Answer: A

244. An economiser in a boiler

A. Increases steam pressure

B. Increases steam flow

C. Decreases fuel consumption

D. Decreases steam pressure

Answer: C

245. Multi-stage steam turbines are of the

A. Velocity compounded type

B. Reaction type

C. Pressure compounded type

D. All of these

Answer: D

246. A double acting steam engine with a cylinder diameter of 190 mm and a stroke of 300 mm has a cut-off of 0.35. The expansion ratio for this engine is nearly

A. 1.05

B. 2.86

C. 6.65

D. 10.05

Answer: B

247. Which is not correct statement about pulverized fuel firing?

A. High burning rate is possible

B. Heat release can be easily controlled

C. Fuel burns economically

D. It is the best technique for burning high ash content fuel having low fusion ash

Answer: D

248. The flow of steam is supersonic

A. At the entrance to the nozzle

B. At the throat of the nozzle

C. In the convergent portion of the nozzle

D. In the divergent portion of the nozzle

Answer: D

249. The diagram factor is the ratio of the

A. Area of the actual indicator diagram to the area of theoretical indicator diagram

B. Actual workdone per stroke to the theoretical workdone per stroke

C. Actual mean effective pressure to the theoretical mean effective pressure

D. Any one of the above

Answer: D

250. Relative percentage of heat absorbed through the heat transfer of
(i) Furnace water wall
(ii) Boiler tank
(iii) Superheater
(iv) Economizer
(v) Air-heater of a typical boiler of 200 MW capacity would be of the order of

A. 48 : 20 : 15 : 7 : 10

B. 10 : 7 : 15 : 20 : 48

C. 20 : 48 : 7 : 15 : 10

D. 7 : 15 : 20 : 10 : 48

Answer: A

251. The process of maintaining the speed of the turbine constant for various load conditions, is known as

A. Bleeding

B. Reheating

C. Governing

D. None of these

Answer: C

252. Expansion ratio is the ratio of

A. Swept volume to the volume at cut-off

B. Clearance volume to the swept volume

C. Volume at cut-off to the swept volume

D. Swept volume to the clearance volume

Answer: A

253. Superheating of steam is done at

A. Constant volume

B. Constant temperature

C. Constant pressure

D. Constant entropy

Answer: C

254. When the cross-section of a nozzle __________ continuously from entrance to exit, it is called a convergent nozzle.

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remain same

D. None of these

Answer: B

255. In a receiver type compound engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinders

A. Have common piston rod

B. Are set at 90°

C. Have separate piston rods

D. Are set in V-arrangement

Answer: C

256. Latent heat of dry steam at atmospheric pressure is equal to

A. 539 kcal/ kg

B. 539 BTU/ lb

C. 427 kcal/ kg

D. 100 kcal/ kg

Answer: A

257 The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop, is called

A. Stage efficiency

B. Internal efficiency

C. Rankine efficiency

D. None of these

Answer: B

258. The pressure of feed water has to be raised before its entry into the boiler. The pressure is raised by a device known as

A. Feed pump

B. Injector

C. Feed check valve

D. Pressure gauge

Answer: A

259. For burning 1 kg of carbon to CO as per chemically correct combustion, amount of air required is

A. 1 kg

B. 4/3 kg

C. 8/3 kg

D. 2 kg

Answer: B

260. A binary vapor plant consists of

A. Steam turbine

B. Steam condenser

C. Mercury boiler

D. All of these

Answer: D

261. The draught may be produced by a

A. Mechanical fan

B. Chimney

C. A steam jet

D. All of these

Answer: D

262. Which of the following is steam dial?

A. Non-coking bituminous coal

B. Brown coal

C. Pulverized coal

D. Coking bituminous coal

Answer: A

263. The maximum efficiency of a reaction turbine is

A. 2 sin²α/(1 + sin²α)

B. 2 cos²α/(1 + cos²α)

C. (1 + sin²α)/2 sin²α

D. (1 + cos²α)/2 cos²α

Answer: B

264. In order to compare the capacity of boilers, the feed water temperature and working pressure are taken as

A. 50°C and normal atmospheric pressure

B. 50°C and 1.1 bar pressure

C. 100°C and normal atmospheric pressure

D. 100°C and 1.1 bar pressure

Answer: C

265. In accelerated circulation type boiler

A. Heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum

B. Water is supplied in drum and through down comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam

C. Feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace

D. Water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation

Answer: B

266. The pressure of steam __________ while flowing through a nozzle.

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains constant

D. None of these

Answer: B

267. The indicated thermal efficiency is defined as the

A. Ratio of thermal efficiency to the Rankine efficiency

B. Ratio of brake power to the indicated power

C. Ratio of heat equivalent to indicated power to the energy supplied in steam

D. Product of thermal efficiency and Rankine efficiency

Answer: C

268. The major axis of elliptical manholes on the shell should be provided

A. Longitudinally

B. Circumferentially

C. On dished end

D. Anywhere

Answer: B

269. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the moving blades,

A. Pressure increases while velocity decreases

B. Pressure decreases while velocity increases

C. Pressure and velocity both decreases

D. Pressure and velocity both increases

Answer: C

270. The device attached to the steam chest for preventing explosions due to excessive internal pressure of steam is called

A. Safety valve

B. Water level indicator

C. Pressure gauge

D. Fusible plug

Answer: A

271. The economiser is used in boilers to

A. Increase thermal efficiency of boiler

B. Economize on fuel

C. Extract heat from the exhaust flue gases

D. Increase flue gas temperature

Answer: A

272. The reheat factor is the ratio of the

A. Cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop

B. Isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied

C. Total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop

D. None of the above

Answer: A

273. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. A fire tube boiler occupies less space than a water tube boiler, for a given power

B. Steam at a high pressure and in large quantities can be produced with a simple vertical boiler

C. A simple vertical boiler has one fire tube

D. All of the above

Answer: C

274. The three “Ts” for good combustion are

A. Temperature, time, and turbulence

B. Total air, true fuel, and turbulence

C. Thorough mixing, total air and temperature

D. Total air, time, and temperature

Answer: A

275. The value of the reheat factor varies from

A. 1.02 to 1.06

B. 1.08 to 1.10

C. 1.2 to 1.6

D. 1.6 to 2

Answer: A

276. Cut-off governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the engine output by varying

A. Volume of intake steam

B. Pressure of intake steam

C. Temperature of intake steam

D. All of these

Answer: A

277. The size of a boiler drum in pulverized fuel fired boiler, as its size and capacity, (steam pressure and flow ratings) increase

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains unchanged

D. Increases/decreases depending on steam temperature requirements

Answer: B

278. A nozzle is said to be a divergent nozzle

A. When the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit

B. When the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit

C. When the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then increases from its throat to exit

D. None of the above

Answer: A

279. The theoretical indicator diagram of a simple steam engine is based upon the assumption that

A. There is no pressure drop due to condensation

B. Steam is admitted at boiler pressure and exhausted at condenser pressure

C. The expansion (or compression) of the steam is hyperbolic

D. All of the above

Answer: D

280. If partial pressure of air and steam be ‘pa’ and ‘ps’ respectively in a condenser, then according to Dalton’s law, the pressure in condenser is equal to

A. ps – pa

B. pa – ps

C. pa + ps

D. None of these

Answer: C

281. In turbines, the fluid undergoes a continuous steady flow process and the speed of flow is

A. Low

B. Very low

C. High

D. Very high

Answer: D

282. The high steam and low water safety valve is used to blow off steam when the

A. Steam pressure exceeds the working pressure

B. Water level in the boiler becomes too low

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of the above

Answer: C

283. On Mollier chart, free expansion, or throttling process from high pressure to atmosphere is represented by

A. Horizontal straight line

B. Vertical straight line

C. Straight inclined line

D. Curved line

Answer: A

284. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat

A. Equal to the velocity of sound

B. Less than the velocity of sound

C. More than the velocity of sound

D. None of these

Answer: A

285. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a Woolf type compound engine are regarded as having cranks

A. 180° to each other

B. 90° to each other

C. 0° to each other

D. None of these

Answer: A

286. Mechanical equivalent of heat for 1 kcal or Joule’s equivalent is equal to

A. 421 kg.m

B. 421 kg.m

C. 539 kg.m

D. 102 kg.m

Answer: A

287. The effect of super-saturation is that the

A. Mass of the steam discharged increases

B. Entropy and specific volume of the steam increases

C. Exit velocity of steam reduces

D. All of these

Answer: D

288. The diameter of superheated tubes in a locomotive boiler is

A. 13 mm

B. 31 mm

C. 130 mm

D. 230 mm

Answer: C

289. The change in internal energy in steam engines equals to

A. Work done during the Rankine cycle

B. Work done during compression

C. Work done during adiabatic expansion

D. Change in enthalpy

Answer: A

290. The pressure velocity compounded impulse turbine allows a bigger pressure drop and hence __________ numbers of stages are required.

A. More

B. Less

C. Equal

D. None of these

Answer: B

291. In fire tube boilers

A. Water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases

B. The flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water

C. Forced circulation takes place

D. None of these

Answer: B

292. The shell diameter and length of locomotive boiler are

A. 1.5 m, 4 m

B. 1.5 m, 6 m

C. 1 m, 4 m

D. 2 m, 4 m

Answer: A

293. The ratio of the workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades, is called

A. Blading efficiency

B. Nozzle efficiency

C. Gross or stage efficiency

D. Mechanical efficiency

Answer: A

294. The numbers of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are

A. 75

B. 115

C. 165

D. 225

Answer: C

295. In forced circulation type boiler

A. Heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum

B. Water is supplied in drum and through down comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam

C. Feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace

D. Water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation

Answer: D

296. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is

A. 0.546

B. 0.577

C. 0.582

D. 0.601

Answer: B

297. In cross compounding, the cylinders are arranged

A. Side by side and each cylinder has common piston, connecting rod and crank

B. Side by side and each cylinder has separate piston, connecting rod and crank

C. At 90° and each cylinder has common piston, connecting rod and crank

D. At 90° and each cylinder has separate piston, connecting rod and crank

Answer: B

298. Vacuum for reciprocating steam engines compared to steam turbines is

A. More

B. Equal

C. Less

D. Could be more or less depending on the size of plant

Answer: C

299. In a nozzle, the effect of super-saturation is to

A. Decrease dryness fraction of steam

B. Decrease specific volume of steam

C. Increase the entropy

D. Increase the heat drop

Answer: C

300. The cylindrical shell of a Lancashire boiler has diameter from

A. 1 to 2 m

B. 1.25 to 2.25 m

C. 1.5 to 2.5 m

D. 1.75 to 2.75 m

Answer: D

301. Pour point of fuel oil is the

A. Lowest temperature at which oil will flow under set condition

B. Storage temperature

C. Temperature at which fuel is pumped through burners

D. Temperature at which oil is transported

Answer: A

302. The steam leaves the nozzle at a

A. High pressure and a low velocity

B. High pressure and a high velocity

C. Low pressure and a low velocity

D. Low pressure and a high velocity

Answer: D

303. A condenser where circulating water flows through tubes which are surrounded by steam, in known as

A. Surface condenser

B. Jet condenser

C. Barometric condenser

D. Evaporative condenser

Answer: A

304. Maximum energy loss in a boiler occurs due to

A. Unburnt carbon in ash

B. Incomplete combustion

C. Ash content

D. Flue gases

Answer: D

305. The friction in the nozzle __________ exit velocity of steam.

A. Has no effect on

B. Decreases

C. Increases

D. None of these

Answer: B

306. The function of an eccentric rod is

A. To provide reciprocating motion to the slide valve

B. To convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion of the crank

C. To convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod

D. To provide simple harmonic motion to the D-slide valve

Answer: C

307. In water wall furnace, the heat is transferred to the water walls by

A. Convection

B. Radiation

C. Conduction

D. Radiation and conduction

Answer: B

308. The efficiency of reaction turbine is maximum when (where α = Angle made by the absolute velocity ‘V’ at inlet)

A. Vb = 0.5 V cosα

B. Vb = V cos α

C. Vb = 0.5 V² cosα

D. Vb = V² cos α

Answer: B

309. When the speed of the crankshaft is between 100 r.p.m. and 250 r.p.m., the engine said to be a

A. Slow speed engine

B. Medium speed steam engine

C. High speed steam engine

D. None of these

Answer: B

310. The latent heat of steam at pressures greater than atmospheric in comparison to latent heat at atmospheric pressure is

A. Less

B. More

C. Equal

D. May be less or more depending on temperature

Answer: A

311. The efficiency of steam turbines may be improved by

A. Reheating of steam

B. Regenerative feed heating

C. Binary vapor plant

D. Any one of these

Answer: D

312. In a uniflow engine

A. Steam enters and exhausts through the same port

B. Steam enters at one end and exhausts at the centre

C. Steam enters at the centre and exhausts at the other end

D. None of the above

Answer: B

313. In an experiment to determine dryness fraction of steam, the mass of water separated was 1.2 kg in 15 mts. and the mass of steam passed out in same time was 4.8 kg. Dryness fraction is

A. 40 %

B. 25 %

C. 50 %

D. 80 %

Answer: D

314. The critical pressure ratio is given by (where p₁ = Initial pressure of steam, and p₂ = Pressure of steam at throat or critical pressure)

A. p₁. p₂

B. p₁/p₂

C. p₂/p₁

D. p₁ + p₂

Answer: C

315. Which of the following is a water tube boiler?

A. Lancashire boiler

B. Babcock and Wilcox boiler

C. Locomotive boiler

D. Cochran boiler

Answer: B

316. The diameter of Cornish boiler is of the order of

A. 12 m

B. 1.52.5 m

C. 23 m

D. 2.53.5 m

Answer: A

317. The stage efficiency (ηS) is given by (where ηB = Blading efficiency, and ηN = Nozzle efficiency)

A. ηS = ηB × ηN

B. ηS = ηB / ηN

C. ηS = ηN / ηB

D. None of these

Answer: A

318. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a Tandem type compound engine are regarded as having cranks

A. 180° to each other

B. 90° to each other

C. 0° to each other

D. None of these

Answer: C

319. The water tubes in a Babcock and Wilcox boiler are

A. Horizontal

B. Vertical

C. Inclined

D. Horizontal and inclined

Answer: C

320. In an impulse turbine, steam expands

A. Wholly in blades

B. Wholly in nozzle

C. Partly in the nozzle and partly in blades

D. None of these

Answer: B

321. There is always some steam left in the clearance space from the previous stroke. This steam left in the clearance space is called

A. Wet steam

B. Saturated steam

C. Superheated steam

D. Cushion steam

Answer: D

322. In which of the following boilers, the draught in furnace is increased by utilising exhaust steam from engine

A. Lancashire boiler

B. Locomotive boiler

C. Babcock and Wilcox boiler

D. Benson boiler

Answer: B

323. De-Laval turbine is a

A. Single rotor impulse turbine

B. Multi-rotor impulse turbine

C. Impulse reaction turbine

D. None of these

Answer: A

324. An air preheater

A. Increases evaporative capacity of the boiler

B. Increases the efficiency of the boiler

C. Enables low grade fuel to be burnt

D. All of the above

Answer: D

325. O₂ content in atmospheric air on weight basis is

A. 21 %

B. 23 %

C. 30 %

D. 40 %

Answer: B

326. Rateau turbine is

A. Simple reaction turbine

B. Velocity compounded turbine

C. Pressure compounded turbine

D. Pressure-velocity compounded turbine

Answer: C

327. The function of a valve rod is

A. To provide reciprocating motion to the slide valve

B. To convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion of the crank

C. To convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod

D. To provide simple harmonic motion to the D-slide valve

Answer: D

328. The condition of steam in boiler drum is always

A. Dry

B. Wet

C. Saturated

D. Supersaturated

Answer: B

329. The density of supersaturated steam is about __________ that of the ordinary saturated vapor at the corresponding pressure.

A. Same as

B. 2 times

C. 4 times

D. 8 times

Answer: D

330. The missing quantity per stroke is equal to

A. Cylinder feed indicated mass of steam

B. Cylinder feed + indicated mass of steam

C. Mass of cushion steam + indicated mass of steam

D. Mass of cushion steam + cylinder feed

Answer: A

331. The saturation temperature of steam with increase in pressure increases

A. Linearly

B. Rapidly first and then slowly

C. Slowly first and then rapidly

D. Inversely

Answer: B

332. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is

A. Isothermal

B. Isentropic

C. Hyperbolic

D. Polytropic

Answer: B

333. Willian’s line follows the law (where b = A constant representing the shape of the Willian’s line, a = Another constant i.e. no load consumption per hour, I.P. = Indicated power, and m = Steam consumption per hour)

A. I.P. = a × m + b

B. m = a + b × I.P.

C. I.P. = b × m + a

D. m = (b/I.P.) – a

Answer: B

334. Equivalent evaporation of water is the evaporation for a feed water supply at 100°C

A. And its corresponding conversion into dry saturated steam at 100°C and 1.033 kg/cm²

B. And its corresponding conversion into dry steam at desired boiler pressure

C. Conversion into steam at atmospheric condition

D. Conversion into steam at the same pressure at which feed water is supplied

Answer: A

335. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation temperature at that pressure is called

A. Degree of super-saturation

B. Degree of superheat

C. Degree of under-cooling

D. None of these

Answer: C

336. The diameter of internal flue tubes of a Lancashire boiler is about _________ that of its shell.

A. One-fourth

B. One-third

C. Two-fifth

D. One-half

Answer: C

337. The biggest size of thermal power unit operating in India is

A. 30 MW

B. 60 MW

C. 100 MW

D. 500 MW

Answer: D

338. The ratio of the isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied, is called

A. Reheat factor

B. Stage efficiency

C. Internal efficiency

D. Rankine efficiency

Answer: D

339. The ratio of the actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called

A. Condenser efficiency

B. Vacuum efficiency

C. Nozzle efficiency

D. Boiler efficiency

Answer: B

340. Pick up the wrong statement about water tube boiler in comparison to fire tube boilers

A. Former occupies less space for same power

B. Rate of steam flow is more in former case

C. Former is used for high installed capacity

D. Chances of explosion are less in former case

Answer: D

341. The turbine blades are

A. Straight

B. Circular

C. Curved

D. None of these

Answer: C

342. The ratio of the temperature rise of cooling water to the vacuum temperature minus inlet cooling water temperature is called

A. Condenser efficiency

B. Vacuum efficiency

C. Nozzle efficiency

D. Boiler efficiency

Answer: A

343. The heat loss in a boiler takes place in the form of

A. Heat carried away by flue gases

B. Heat carried away by ash

C. Moisture present in fuel and steam formed by combustion of hydrogen in fuel

D. All of the above

Answer: D

344. Steam exhaust from high pressure turbine is reheated in

A. Boiler drums

B. Superheater tubes

C. Economizer

D. A separate coil located in convection path

Answer: D

345. The value of diagram factor depends upon

A. Initial conditions of steam

B. Back pressure

C. Initial pressure of steam

D. All of these

Answer: D

346. Green coal, in order to be burnt, must be

A. Heated sufficiently

B. Burnt in excess air

C. Heated to its ignition point

D. Burnt as powder

Answer: C

347. A safety valve usually employed with stationary boilers is

A. Lever safety valve

B. Dead weight safety valve

C. High steam and low water safety valve

D. All of these

Answer: D

348. The relative heat absorption for successively added equal areas of boiler convection heating surfaces

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remain unaffected

D. First increases and then decreases

Answer: B

349. The pressure of steam in the engine cylinder at the beginning of the stroke is ________ the boiler pressure.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Higher than

D. None of these

Answer: B

350. Adiabatic process is

A. Essentially an isentropic process

B. Non-heat transfer process

C. Reversible process

D. Constant temperature process

Answer: B

351. Lancashire boiler is

A. Stationary fire tube boiler

B. Internally fired boiler

C. Horizontal boiler

D. All of these

Answer: D

352. Cochran boiler is a

A. Horizontal fire tube boiler

B. Horizontal water tube boiler

C. Vertical water tube boiler

D. Vertical fire tube boiler

Answer: D

353. Blow off cock in a boiler is used to

A. Control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam completely when required

B. Empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments which are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler

C. Put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit

D. Increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure

Answer: B

354. The diameter of internal flue tubes in a Lancashire boiler compared to its shell is

A. One-half

B. One-third

C. Two-fourth

D. Two-fifth

Answer: D

355. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by convection currents which are set up during the heating of water, then the boiler is known as

A. Internally fired boiler

B. Externally fired boiler

C. Natural circulation boiler

D. Forced circulation boiler

Answer: C

356. Thermal efficiency of a thermal power plant is of the order of

A. 15 %

B. 20 %

C. 30 %

D. 45 %

Answer: C

357. The high steam and low water safety valve is not used in

A. Cochran boiler

B. Cornish boiler

C. Lancashire boiler

D. Locomotive boiler

Answer: D

358. Expanding steam to a very low pressure (high vacuum) in steam engines is

A. Desirable

B. Economical

C. Essential

D. Uneconomical

Answer: D

359. The cylinder dimensions of a compound engine may be designed on the basis of

A. Equal power developed in each cylinder for uniform turning moment

B. Equal initial piston loads on all pistons for obtaining same size of piston rod, connecting rod etc. for all cylinders

C. Equal temperature drop in each cylinder for economy of steam

D. All of the above

Answer: D

360. One kilowatt-hour energy is equivalent to

A. 1000 J

B. 360 kJ

C. 3600 kJ

D. 3600 kW/sec

Answer: C

361. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam?

A. Locomotive boiler

B. Lancashire boiler

C. Cornish boiler

D. Babcock and Wilcox boiler

Answer: A

362. In locomotive boiler, maximum steam pressure is limited to

A. 1 kg/cm²

B. 5 kg/cm²

C. 10 kg/cm²

D. 18 kg/cm²

Answer: D

363. The fire tubes in a Cochran boiler usually have _________ diameter.

A. 6.25 mm

B. 62.5 mm

C. 72.5 mm

D. 92.5 mm

Answer: B

364. Boiler stays are used to

A. Prevent flat surfaces under pressure from tearing apart

B. Take care of failure in shear

C. Take care of failure in compression

D. Provide support for boiler

Answer: A

365. Which of the following is required for a steam condensing plant?

A. Condenser

B. Condensate pump

C. Air extraction pump

D. All of these

Answer: D

366. Spontaneous combustion is a phenomenon in which

A. All the fuel burns instantaneously producing high energy release

B. Fuel burns with less air

C. Coal bursts into flame without any external ignition source but by itself due to gradual increase in temperature as a result of heat released by combination of oxygen with coal

D. Explosion in furnace

Answer: C

367. Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum working pressure of

A. 0.17 MN/m²

B. 1.7 MN/m²

C. 17 MN/m²

D. 170 MN/m²

Answer: B

368. Tertiary air is the air used to

A. Provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion

B. Transport and dry the coal

C. Cool the scanners

D. Convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into CO₂ at higher zone

Answer: D

369. Desecration of feed water is carried out because it reduces

A. Cavitation of boiler feed pumps

B. Corrosion caused by oxygen

C. Heat transfer coefficient

D. pH value of water

Answer: B

370. The function of a safety valve is

A. To blow off steam when the pressure of steam inside the boiler exceeds the working pressure

B. To indicate the water level inside the boiler to an observer

C. To measure pressure of steam inside the steam boiler

D. None of the above

Answer: A

371. In a Woolf type compound engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinders

A. Have common piston rod

B. Are set at 90°

C. Have separate piston rod

D. Are set in V arrangement

Answer: C

372. Carbonization of coal is the process of

A. Pulverizing coal in inert atmosphere

B. Heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300°C

C. Strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel

D. Binding the pulverized coal into briquettes

Answer: C

373. Cut-off ratio is the ratio of

A. Swept volume to the volume at cut-off

B. Volume at cut-off to the clearance volume

C. Volume at cut-off to the swept volume

D. Clearance volume to the volume at cut-off

Answer: C

374. The pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation of water is zero, is

A. Below atmospheric pressure

B. 1 kg/cm²

C. 100 kg/cm²

D. 225.6 kg/cm²

Answer: D

375. A compound steam engine in which piston rods of high pressure and low pressure cylinders ‘ are attached to two different cranks set at 180° to each other, is called

A. Receiver type compound engine

B. Tandem type compound engine

C. Woolf type compound engine

D. BothA. andB.

Answer: C

376. Which of the following gases has the highest calorific value?

A. Producer gas

B. Coal gas

C. Water gas

D. Blast furnace gas

Answer: B

377. The maximum steam pressure in a Locomotive boiler is limited to

A. 0.18 MN/m²

B. 1.8 MN/m²

C. 18 MN/m²

D. 180 MN/m²

Answer: B

378. Fire tube boilers are those in which

A. Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it

B. Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it

C. Forced circulation takes place

D. Tubes are laid vertically

Answer: A

379. The ratio of heat equivalent to brake power to the energy supplied in steam is known as

A. Mechanical efficiency

B. Overall efficiency

C. Indicated thermal efficiency

D. Brake thermal efficiency

Answer: D

380. The difference between Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler is that

A. Former is fire tube type and latter is water tube type boiler

B. Former is water tube type and latter is fire tube type

C. Former contains one fire tube and latter contains two fire tubes

D. None of the above

Answer: C

381. The function of a piston in a steam engine is

A. To guide motion of the piston rod and to prevent it from bending

B. To transfer motion from the piston to the cross-head

C. To convert heat energy of the steam into mechanical work id) to exhaust steam from the cylinder at proper moment

D. None of these

Answer: C

382. The pressure of reheat steam after passing through reheater compared to inlet condition is

A. More

B. Less

C. Equal

D. May be more or less depending on capacity of reheater

Answer: B

383. Willian’s line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam consumption per hour and

A. Indicated power

B. Brake power

C. Efficiency

D. Pressure of steam

Answer: A

384. Secondary air is the air used to

A. Provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion

B. Transport and dry the coal

C. Convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into CO₂ at higher zone

D. Air delivered by induced draft fan

Answer: A

385. The function of a flywheel is

A. To convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion

B. To convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod

C. To prevent fluctuation of speed

D. To keep the engine speed uniform at all load conditions

Answer: C

386. During storage, the heating value of coal

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remain constant

D. May increase or decrease depending upon the method of storage

Answer: B

387. A closed vessel made of steel and used for the generation of steam is called a

A. Steam boiler

B. Steam turbine

C. Steam condenser

D. Steam injector

Answer: A

388. The shell of the Cochran boiler is made hemispherical

A. To give maximum space and strength

B. To withstand the pressure of steam inside the boiler

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of the above

Answer: C

389. Sublimation region is the region where

A. Solid and vapor phases are in equilibrium

B. Solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium

C. Liquid and vapor phases are in equilibrium

D. Solid, liquid and vapor phases are in equilibrium

Answer: A

390. The ratio of brake power to the indicated power is known as

A. Mechanical efficiency

B. Overall efficiency

C. Indicated thermal efficiency

D. Brake thermal efficiency

Answer: A

391. While steam expands in turbines, theoretically the entropy

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. Behaves unpredictably

Answer: A

392. A device used to put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit, is called

A. Blow off cock

B. Stop valve

C. Superheater

D. None of these

Answer: D

393. Water tube boilers are those in which

A. Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it

B. Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it

C. Work is done during adiabatic expansion

D. Change in enthalpy

Answer: C

394. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by a centrifugal pump, then the boiler is known as

A. Internally fired boiler

B. Externally fired boiler

C. Natural circulation boiler

D. Forced circulation boiler

Answer: D

395. Duplex feed pumps are used in small steam boilers. These operate on the principle of

A. Centrifugal pump

B. Axial flow pump

C. Gear pump

D. Reciprocating pump

Answer: D

396. An economiser is installed in a boiler primarily to

A. Superheat the steam

B. Reduce fuel consumption

C. Increase steam pressure

D. All of these

Answer: B

397. Which type of boiler can meet rapid changes of load?

A. Vertical fire tube type

B. Horizontal fire tube type

C. Horizontal water tube type

D. Forced circulation type

Answer: D

398. Besides mean effective pressure, the data required to determine the indicated power of an engine include

A. Piston diameter, length of stroke and calorific value of fuel

B. Piston diameter, specific fuel consumption and Calorific value of fuel

C. Piston diameter, length of stroke and speed of rotation

D. Specific fuel consumption, speed of rotation and torque

Answer: C

399. The basic purpose of drum in boiler is to

A. Serve as storage of steam

B. Serve as storage of feed water for water wall

C. Remove salts from water

D. Separate steam from water

Answer: D

400. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a receiver type compound engine are regarded as having cranks

A. 180° to each other

B. 90° to each other

C. 0° to each other

D. None of these

Answer: B

401. Steam in water tube boiler as compared to fire tube boiler

A. Can be raised rapidly

B. Is raised at slower rate

C. Is raised at same rate

D. Could be raised at fast/slow rate depending on design

Answer: A

402. When the speed of the engine is controlled by means of a valve in a steam pipe, which regulates the pressure of steam entering the engine, then the governing is known as

A. Throttle governing

B. Cut-off governing

C. By-pass governing

D. None of these

Answer: A

403. Proximate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of

A. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture

B. Fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture

C. Higher calorific value

D. Lower calorific value

Answer: B

404. A valve installed between the boiler and the feed pump is

A. Blow off cock

B. Feed check valve

C. Steam stop valve

D. None of these

Answer: B

405. Evaporative capacity of boiler is expressed as

A. kg of steam produced

B. Steam pressure produced

C. kg of fuel fired

D. kg of steam produced per kg of fuel fifed

Answer: D

406. A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is recovered to heat the air before it passes to the furnace for combustion purpose, is known as

A. Superheater

B. Air-preheater

C. Economizer

D. Injector

Answer: B

407. The specific volume of steam with increase in pressure decreases

A. Linearly

B. Slowly first and then rapidly

C. Rapidly first and then slowly

D. Inversely

Answer: C

408. When the total heat of steam is h kJ/kg and the sensible heat of feed water is hf1 kJ/kg, then the factor of evaporation is given by

A. (h – hf1)/2257

B. (h + hf1)/2257

C. (h × hf1)/2257

D. None of these

Answer: A

409. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C is called

A. Evaporative capacity

B. Factor of evaporation

C. Equivalent evaporation

D. One boiler h.p.

Answer: D

410. Which of the following are boiler accessories?

A. Economizer

B. Superheater

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of these

Answer: C

411. Lancashire boiler is of

A. Stationary < fire tube type

B. Horizontal type

C. Natural circulation type

D. All of the above

Answer: D

412. The actual power generated in the engine cylinder is called

A. Indicated power

B. Brake power

C. Frictional power

D. None of these

Answer: A

413. In regenerative air preheaters, the heat is transferred

A. From a metal wall from one medium to another

B. From heating an intermediate material and then heating the air from this material

C. By direct mixing

D. Heat is transferred by bleeding some gas from furnace

Answer: B

414. In case of non-condensing steam engines, the pressure of steam in the cylinder during exhaust stroke is _________ the condenser pressure.

A. Equal to

B. Lower than

C. Higher than

D. None of these

Answer: C

415. Alkaline pyrogallate is used in Orsat’s apparatus for absorption of

A. CO₂

B. CO

C. O₂

D. N₂

Answer: C

416. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ash-pit under the fire grate of the furnace is called

A. Induced steam jet draught

B. Chimney draught

C. Forced steam jet draught

D. None of these

Answer: C

417. Equivalent evaporation is the amount of water evaporated in a boiler from and at

A. 0°C

B. 100°C

C. Saturation temperature at given pressure

D. Room temperature

Answer: B

418. The diameter of Cornish boiler varies from

A. 0.5 to 1 m

B. 1 to 2 m

C. 1.25 to 2.5 m

D. 2 to 3 m

Answer: B

419. In a throttling process

A. Heat transfer takes place

B. Work is done by the expanding steam

C. Internal energy of steam changes

D. None of the above

Answer: D

420. A device used in a boiler to control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam completely when required, is known as

A. Blow off cock

B. Fusible plug

C. Superheater

D. Stop valve

Answer: D

421. A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is recovered to heat the air before it passes to the furnace for combustion purpose, is known as

A. Superheater

B. Air-preheater

C. Economizer

D. Injector

Answer: B

422. The specific volume of steam with increase in pressure decreases

A. Linearly

B. Slowly first and then rapidly

C. Rapidly first and then slowly

D. Inversely

Answer: C

423. When the total heat of steam is h kJ/kg and the sensible heat of feed water is hf1 kJ/kg, then the factor of evaporation is given by

A. (h – hf1)/2257

B. (h + hf1)/2257

C. (h × hf1)/2257

D. None of these

Answer: A

424. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C is called

A. Evaporative capacity

B. Factor of evaporation

C. Equivalent evaporation

D. One boiler h.p.

Answer: D

425. Which of the following are boiler accessories?

A. Economizer

B. Superheater

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of these

Answer: C

426. Lancashire boiler is of

A. Stationary < fire tube type

B. Horizontal type

C. Natural circulation type

D. All of the above

Answer: D

427. The actual power generated in the engine cylinder is called

A. Indicated power

B. Brake power

C. Frictional power

D. None of these

Answer: A

428. In regenerative air preheaters, the heat is transferred

A. From a metal wall from one medium to another

B. From heating an intermediate material and then heating the air from this material

C. By direct mixing

D. Heat is transferred by bleeding some gas from furnace

Answer: B

429. In case of non-condensing steam engines, the pressure of steam in the cylinder during exhaust stroke is _________ the condenser pressure.

A. Equal to

B. Lower than

C. Higher than

D. None of these

Answer: C

430. Alkaline pyrogallate is used in Orsat’s apparatus for absorption of

A. CO₂

B. CO

C. O₂

D. N₂

Answer: C

431. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ash-pit under the fire grate of the furnace is called

A. Induced steam jet draught

B. Chimney draught

C. Forced steam jet draught

D. None of these

Answer: C

432. Equivalent evaporation is the amount of water evaporated in a boiler from and at

A. 0°C

B. 100°C

C. Saturation temperature at given pressure

D. Room temperature

Answer: B

433. The diameter of Cornish boiler varies from

A. 0.5 to 1 m

B. 1 to 2 m

C. 1.25 to 2.5 m

D. 2 to 3 m

Answer: B

434. In a throttling process

A. Heat transfer takes place

B. Work is done by the expanding steam

C. Internal energy of steam changes

D. None of the above

Answer: D

435. A device used in a boiler to control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam completely when required, is known as

A. Blow off cock

B. Fusible plug

C. Superheater

D. Stop valve

Answer: D

436. The length of Cornish boiler is of the order of

A. 24 m

B. 35 m

C. 57.5 m

D. 79 m

Answer: C

437. The forced circulation of water does not take place in

A. LaMont boiler

B. Lancashire boiler

C. Velox boiler

D. Benson boiler

Answer: B

438. A fusible plug is fitted in small boilers in order to

A. Avoid excessive build up of pressure

B. Avoid explosion

C. Extinguish fire if water level in the boiler falls below alarming limit

D. Control steam dome

Answer: C

439. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always greater than unity

B. The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt is called equivalent evaporation from and at 100° C

C. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace is called boiler efficiency

D. None of the above

Answer: D

440. Sulphur in coal results in

A. Corroding air heaters

B. Spontaneous combustion during coal storage

C. Facilitating ash precipitation

D. All of the above

Answer: D

441. Lancashire boiler has __________ internal flue tubes.

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Answer: B

442. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler compared to a fire tube boiler has

A. More heating surface

B. Less heating surface

C. Equal heating surface

D. Heating surface depends on other parameters

Answer: A

443. The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt is called

A. Evaporative capacity of a boiler

B. Equivalent evaporation from and at 100° C

C. Boiler efficiency

D. None of these

Answer: A

444. Heating of dry steam above saturation temperature is known as

A. Enthalpy

B. Superheating

C. Super saturation

D. Latent heat

Answer: B

445. The function of a piston rod is

A. To guide motion of the piston rod and to prevent it from bending

B. To transfer motion from the piston to the cross head

C. To convert heat energy of the steam into mechanical work

D. To exhaust steam from the cylinder at proper moment

Answer: B

446. At which pressure the properties of water and steam become identical

A. 0.1 kg/cm²

B. 1 kg/cm²

C. 100 kg/cm²

D. 225.6 kg/cm²

Answer: D

447. The actual power supplied by the engine crankshaft is called

A. Indicated power

B. Brake power

C. Frictional power

D. None of these

Answer: B

448. The diameter of cylindrical shell of the Lancashire boiler is of the order of

A. 1 to 1.25 m

B. 1 to 1.75 m

C. 2 to 4 m

D. 1.75 to 2.75 m

Answer: D

449. The length of Lancashire boiler varies from

A. 5 to 6 m

B. 6 to 7 m

C. 7.25 to 9 m

D. 9 to 10 m

Answer: C

450. The radius of a dished head is taken approximately as

A. One fourth

B. Half

C. One

D. Two

Answer: C

451. Fire tube boilers are

A. Internally fired

B. Externally fired

C. Internally as well as externally fired

D. None of these

Answer: A

452. Bomb calorimeter is used to determine

A. Higher calorific value at constant volume

B. Lower calorific value at constant volume

C. Higher calorific value at constant pressure

D. Lower calorific value at constant pressure

Answer: A

453. The clearance in the engine cylinder

A. Increases the mean effective pressure

B. Increases the workdone

C. Decreases the efficiency of the engine

D. All of these

Answer: D

454. Over fire burning is the phenomenon of

A. Supply of excess, air

B. Supply of excess coal

C. Burning CO and unburnt in upper zone of furnace by supplying more air

D. Fuel bed firing

Answer: C

455. The length of Cornish boiler varies from

A. 2 to 4.5 m

B. 3 to 5 m

C. 5 to 7.5 m

D. 7 to 9 m

Answer: C

456. Hard coke is produced by carburization of coal at

A. Atmospheric temperature

B. 500-600°C

C. 700-850°C

D. 950-1100°C

Answer: D

457. The water tubes in a simple vertical boiler are

A. Horizontal

B. Vertical

C. Inclined

D. None of these

Answer: C

458. The dry saturated steam at very high pressure (150200 kg/cm²) when throttled to atmosphere will become

A. Wet

B. Superheated

C. Remain dry saturated

D. Dry

Answer: A

459. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler

B. Fire tube boilers are internally fired

C. Babcock and Wilcox boiler is a water tube boiler

D. All of the above

Answer: D

460. The best suited coal for chain or traveling grate stoker boiler is

A. Coking coal

B. Non-coking or free burning coal

C. Pulverized coal

D. High sulphur coal

Answer: B

461. The mechanical draught _________ with the amount of smoke.

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Does not effect

D. None of these

Answer: B

462. O₂ content in atmospheric air on volume basis is

A. 21 %

B. 23 %

C. 30 %

D. 40 %

Answer: A

463. The natural draught is produced by

A. Steam jet

B. Centrifugal fan

C. Chimney

D. BothA. andB.

Answer: C

464. Boiler parameters are expressed by

A. Tonnes/hr. of steam

B. Pressure of steam in kg/cm²

C. Temperature of steam in °C

D. All of the above

Answer: D

465. In forced circulation steam boilers, the force is applied

A. To draw water

B. To circulate water

C. To drain off the water

D. All of these

Answer: B

466. The coal requirement per kW hour generation in the thermal power plant is of the order of

A. 0.1 to 0.2 kg

B. 0.2 to 0.4 kg

C. 0.6 to 0.8 kg

D. 1.0 to 1.5 kg

Answer: C
467. The diameter of flue tube in a Cornish boiler is _________ that of the shell.

A. One-fourth

B. One-third

C. Two-fifth

D. Three-fifth

Answer: D

468. During polytropic process

A. Heat transfer takes place across cylinder walls

B. Work is done

C. Steam may be wet, dry or superheated after expansion

D. All of the above

Answer: D

469. The ratio of the clearance volume to the swept volume is called

A. Cut-off ratio

B. Expansion ratio

C. Clearance ratio

D. None of these

Answer: C

470. The fusible plug in small boilers is located

A. In the drum

B. In the fire tubes

C. Above steam dome

D. Over the combustion chamber

Answer: D

471. The rate of steam produced in Benson boiler is

A. 100 tonnes/h

B. 135 tonnes/h

C. 175 tonnes/h

D. 250 tonnes/h

Answer: B

472. Incomplete combustion can be best judged by

A. Smoky chimney exit

B. Excess air in flue gases

C. Measuring carbon monoxide in flue gases

D. Measuring temperature of flue gases at exit of furnace

Answer: C

473. Which of the following boiler works on a forced circulation of water?

A. Lamont boiler

B. Benson boiler

C. Loeffler boiler

D. All of these

Answer: D

474. Hygrometry deals with the

A. Hygroscopic substances

B. Water vapor in air

C. Temperature of air

D. Pressure of air

Answer: B

475. The length of shell of a Locomotive boiler is

A. 1 m

B. 2 m

C. 3 m

D. 4 m

Answer: D

476. The number of drums in Benson steam generator is

A. One

B. Two

C. One steam drum and one water drum

D. No drum

Answer: D

477. The chimney draught varies with

A. Climatic conditions

B. Temperature of furnace gases

C. Height of chimney

D. All of these

Answer: D

478. Pick up wrong statement about desired properties of a good fuel

A. High calorific value

B. Produce minimum smoke and gases

C. Ease in storing

D. High ignition point

Answer: D

479. Benson boiler requires

A. No drum

B. One drum

C. Two drums

D. Three drums

Answer: A

480. Natural water circulation, by convection in water tube boilers, with increase in pressure of boiler

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remain unaffected

D. First increases and then decreases

Answer: B

481. The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is

A. 1 m

B. 1.5 m

C. 2 m

D. 2.5 m

Answer: B

482. The equivalent evaporation of a boiler is a measure to compare

A. The given boiler with the model

B. The two different boilers of the same make

C. Two different makes of boilers operating under the same operating conditions

D. Any type of boilers operating under any conditions

Answer: D

483. Water at pressure of 4 kg/cm² and 160°C temperature when exposed to atmosphere will

A. Boil

B. Flash i.e. get converted into steam

C. Remain as it was

D. Cool down

Answer: B

484. Locomotive type’ boiler is

A. Horizontal multi-tubular water tube boiler

B. Water wall enclosed furnace type

C. Vertical tubular fire tube type

D. Horizontal multi-tubular fire tube type

Answer: D

485. The function of injector used in small steam plants is to

A. Create vacuum in furnace

B. Create vacuum at turbine exhaust

C. Pump feed water

D. Dose chemicals in feed water

Answer: C

486. The function of injector used in small capacity boilers is to

A. Create vacuum

B. Inject chemical solution in feed pump

C. Pump water, similar to boiler feed pump

D. Add make up water in the system

Answer: C

487. Caking coals are those which

A. Form lumps or masses of coke

B. Burn freely

C. Show little or no fusing action

D. Burn completely

Answer: A

488. The balanced draft furnace is one using

A. Induced draft fan and chimney

B. Induced draft fan and forced draft fan

C. Forced draft fan and chimney

D. Any one of the above

Answer: B

489. Reheating of steam under ideal conditions takes place at constant

A. Entropy

B. Enthalpy

C. Pressure

D. Temperature

Answer: D

490. If a steam sample is nearly in dry condition, then its dryness fraction can be most accurately determined by

A. Throttling calorimeter

B. Separating calorimeter

C. Combined separating and throttling calorimeter

D. Bucket calorimeter

Answer: A

491. The specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of the order of

A. 0.1

B. 0.3

C. 0.5

D. 0.8

Answer: C

492. On Mollier chart, flow through turbine is represented by

A. Horizontal straight line

B. Vertical straight line

C. Straight inclined line

D. Curved line

Answer: B

493. A wet vapor can be completely specified by

A. Pressure only

B. Temperature only

C. Dryness fraction only

D. Pressure and dryness fraction

Answer: D

494. Water boils when its vapor pressure

A. Equals that of the surroundings

B. Equals 760 mm of mercury

C. Equals to atmospheric pressure

D. Equals the pressure of water in the container

Answer: A

495. An ideal regenerative cycle is

A. Equal to Carnot cycle

B. Less than Carnot cycle

C. More than Carnot cycle

D. Could be anything

Answer: B

496. The diameter of fire tube of Cornish boiler compared to its shell is

A. One half

B. One third

C. One fourth

D. One fifth

Answer: A

497. The number of flue tubes in Lancashire boiler is

A. Zero

B. One

C. Two

D. Four

Answer: C

498. The fire tubes in, a Coarran and Scottish marine boiler are

A. Horizontal

B. Vertical

C. Inclined

D. Both horizontal and vertical

Answer: A

499. A boiler in India should conform to safety regulations of

A. DIN

B. BS

C. ASTM

D. IBR

Answer: D

500. Thermal efficiency of well maintained boiler will be of the order

A. 40 %

B. 50 %

C. 75 %

D. 90 %

Answer: D

501. Size of boiler tubes is specified by

A. Mean diameter and thickness

B. Inside diameter and thickness

C. Outside diameter and thickness

D. Outside diameter and inside diameter

Answer: C

502. The diameter of fire tubes in Cochran boiler is of the order of

A. 2 cm

B. 6 cm

C. 8 cm

D. 12 cm

Answer: B

503. Gusset stays in a boiler are provided to

A. Prevent the bulging of flat surfaces

B. Avoid explosion in furnace

C. Prevent leakage of hot flue gases

D. Support furnace freely from top

Answer: A

504. Pulverized fuel is used for

A. Better burning

B. More calorific value

C. Less radiation loss

D. Medium sized units

Answer: A

505. Calorific value of coal is of the order of

A. 200-400 kcal/ kg

B. 800-1200 kcal/ kg

C. 2000-4000 kcal/ kg

D. 5000-8000 kcal/ kg

Answer: C

Steam Boilers Engines Nozzles and Turbines objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test