300+ TOP Theory of Machines MCQs and Answers Quiz

Theory of Machines Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following disciplines provides study of inertia forces arising from the combined effect of the mass and the motion of the parts
A. theory of machines
B. applied mechanics
C. mechanisms
D. kinetics
E. kinematics.
Answer: D

2. Which of the following disciplines provides study of relative motion between the parts of a machine
A. theory of machines
B. applied mechanics
C. mechanisms
D. kinetics
E. kinematics.
Answer: E

3. Which of the following disciplines provides study of the relative motion between the parts of a machine and the forces acting on the parts
A. theory of machines
B. applied mechanics
C. mechanisms
D. kinetics
E. kinematics.
Answer: A

4. The type of pair formed by two elements which are so connected that one is constrained to turn or revolve about a fixed axis of another element is known as
A. turning pair
B. rolling pair
C. sliding pair
D. spherical pair
E. lower pair,
Answer: A

5. Which of the following is a lower pair
A. ball and socket i
B. piston and cylinder
C. cam and follower
D. A. and B. above
E. belt drive.
Answer: D

6. If two moving elements have surface contact in motion, such pair is known as
A. sliding pair
B. rolling pair
C. surface pair
D. lower pair
E. higher pair.
Answer: E

7. The example of lower pair is
A. shaft revolving in a bearing
B. straight line motion mechanisms
C. automobile steering gear
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

8. Pulley in a belt drive acts as
A. cylindrical pair
B. turning pair
C. rolling pair
D. sliding pair
E. surface pair.
Answer: C

9. The example of rolling pair is
A. bolt and nut
B. lead screw of a lathe
C. ball and socket joint
D. ball bearing and roller bearing
E. all of the above.
Answer: D

10. Any point on a link connecting double slider crank chain will trace a
A. straight line
B. circle
C. ellipse
D. parabola
E. hyperbola.
Answer: C

Theory of Machines MCQs

11. The purpose of a link is to
A. transmit motion
B. guide other links
C. act as a support
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

12. A universal joint is an example of
A. higher pair
B. lower pair
C. rolling pair
D. sliding pair
E. turning pair.
Answer: B

13. Rectilinear motion of piston is converted into rotary by
A. cross head
B. slider crank
C. connecting rod
D. gudgeon pin
E. four bar chain mechanism.
Answer: B

14. Pitch point on a cam is
A. any point on pitch curve
B. the point on cam pitch curve having the maximum pressure angle
C. any point on pitch circle
D. the point on cam pitch curve having the minimum pressure angle
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

15. The values of velocity and acceleration of piston at near dead center for a slider-crank mechanism will be
A. 0, and more than co2r
B. 0, and less than coV
C. 0, 0
D. cor, 0
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

16. The example of spherical pair is
A. bolt and nut
B. lead screw of a lathe
C. ball and socket joint
D. ball bearing and roller bearing
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

17. Cross head and guides form a
A. lower pair
B. higher pair
C. turning pair
D. rolling pair
E. sliding pair.
Answer: E

19. A circular bar moving in a round hole is an example of
A. incompletely constrained motion
B. partially constrained motion
C. completely constrained motion
D. successfully constrained motion
E. none of the above
Answer: A

20. If some links are connected such that motion between them can take place in more than one direction, it is called
A. incompletely constrained motion
B. partially constrained motion
C. completely constrained motion
D. successfully constrained motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

21. If there are L number of links in a mechanism then number of possible inversions is equal to
A. L + 1
B. L – 1
C. L
D. L + 2
E. L – 2.
Answer: C

22. Kinematic pairs are those which have two elements that
A. have line contact
B. have surface contact
C. permit relative motion
D. are held together
E. have dynamic forces.
Answer: C

24. The lower pair is a
A. open pair
B. closed pair
C. sliding pair
D. point contact pair
E. does not exist.
Answer: B

25. Automobile steering gear is an example of
A. higher pair
B. sliding pair
C. turning pair
D. rotary pair
E. lower pair.
Answer: E

26. In higher pair, the relative motion is
A. purely turning
B. purely sliding
C. purely rotary
D. purely surface contact
E. combination of sliding and turning.
Answer: E

27. Which of the following has sliding motion
A. crank
B. connecting rod
C. crank pin
D. cross-head
E. cross head guide.
Answer: D

28. The example of higher pair is
A. belt, rope and chain drives
B. gears, cams
C. ball and roller bearings
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

29. Which of the following mechanism is obtained from lower pair
A. gyroscope
B. pantograph
C. valve and valve gears
D. generated straight line motions
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

30. Which of the following would constitute a link
A. piston, piston rings and gudgeon pin
B. piston, and piston rod
C. piston rod and cross head
D. piston, crank pin and crank shaft
E. piston, piston-rod and cross head.
Answer: E

31. The Scott-Russell mechanism consists of
A. sliding and turning pairs
B. sliding and rotary pairs
C. turning and rotary pairs
D. sliding pairs only
E. turning pairs only.
Answer: A

32. Davis steering gear consists of
A. sliding pairs
B. turning pairs
C. rolling pairs
D. higher pairs
E. lower pairs.
Answer: A

33. Ackermann steering gear consists of
A. sliding pairs
B. turning pairs
C. rolling pairs
D. higher pairs
E. lower pairs.
Answer: B

34. A completely constrained motion can be transmitted with .
A. 1 link with pin joints
B. 2 links with pin joints
C. 3 links with pin joints
D. 4 links with pin joints
E. all of the above.
Answer: D

36. Oldham’s coupling is the
A. second inversion of double slider crank chain
B. third inversion of double slider crank chain
C. second inversion of single slider crank chain
D. third inversion of slider crank chain
E. fourth inversion of double slider crank chain.
Answer: B

37. Sense of tangential acceleration of a link
A. is same as that of velocity
B. is opposite to that of velocity
C. could be either same or opposite to velocity
D. is perpendicular to that of velocity
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

38. A mechanism is an assemblage of
A. two links
B. three links
C. four links or more than four links
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

39. The number of links in pantograph mechanism is equal to
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6.
Answer: C

40. Elements of pairs held together mechanically is known as
A. closed pair
B. open pair
C. mechanical pair
D. rolling pair
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

41. Shaft revolving in a bearing is the following type of pair
A. lower pair
B. higher pair
C. spherical pair,
D. cylindrical pair
E. bearing pair.
Answer: A

42. Rectangular bar in a rectangular hole is the following type of pair
A. completely constrained motion
B. partially constrained motion
C. incompletely constrained motion
D. freely constrained motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

43. A foot step bearing and rotor of a vertical turbine form examples of
A. incompletely constrained motion
B. partially constrained motion
C. completely constrained motion
D. successfully constrained motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

44. A slider crank chain consists of following numbers of turning and sliding pairs
A. I, 3
B. 2, 2
C. 3, 1
D. 4, 0
E. 0, 4.
Answer: C

45. Relationship between the number of links (L) and number of pairs (P) is
A. P = 2L-4
B. P = 2L + 4
C. P = 2L+2
D. P = 2L-2
E. P = L-4.
Answer: C

46. In problem 47, the chain is unconstrained when
A. L.H.S. = R.H.S.
B. L.H.S. > R.H.S.
C. L.H.S. < R.H.S.
D. there is no such criterion for checking above requirement
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

47. Angle of descent of cam is defined as the angle
A. during which the follower returns to its initial position
B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position
D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
E. moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to the termination of descent.
Answer: A

48. Angle of action of cam is defined as the angle
A. during which the follower returns to its initial position
B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position
D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
E. moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to the termination of descent.
Answer: E

49. Angle of dwell of cam is defined as the angle
A. during which the follower returns to its initial position
B. of rotation of the cam for definite dis¬placement of the follower
C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position
D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
E. moved by the cam from a beginning of ascent to the termination of descent.
Answer: C

50. In problem 47, the chain is constrained when
A. L.H.S. = R.H.S.
B. L.H.S. < R.H.S.
C. L.H.S. > R.H.S.
D. there is no such criterion for checking above requirement
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

51. The tendency of a body to resist change from rest or motion is known as
A. mass
B. friction
C. inertia
D. resisting force
E. resisting torque.
Answer: C

52. Angle of ascent of cam is defined as the angle
A. during which the follower returns to its initial position
B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in highest position
D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
E. moved by the cam from beginning oi ascent to the termination of descent.
Answer: D

53. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect is
A. flexible coupling
B. universal coupling
C. chain coupling
D. Oldham’s coupling
E. American coupling.
Answer: B

54. The advantage of the piston valve over D-slide valve is that in the former case
A. wear is less
B. power absorbed is less
C. both wear and power absorbed are low
D. the pressure developed being high provides tight sealing
E. there is overall economy of initial cost, maintenance and operation.
Answer: C

55. Flexible coupling is used because
A. it is easy to disassemble
B. it is easy to engage and disengage
C. it transmits shocks gradually
D. it prevents shock transmission and eliminates stress reversals
E. it increases shaft life.
Answer: D

56. With single Hooke’s joint it is possible to connect two shafts, the axes of which have an angular misalignment up to
A. 10°
B. 20°
C. 30°
D. 40°
E. 60°.
Answer: D

57. The Hooke’s joint consists of :
A. two forks
B. one fork
C. three forks
D. four forks
E. five forks.
Answer: A

58. The Klein’s method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism
A. is based on acceleration diagram
B. is a simplified form of instantaneous center method
C. utilises a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine
D. enables determination of Corioli’s component
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

59. It is required to connect two parallel shafts, the distance between whose axes is small and variable. The shafts are coupled by
A. universal joint
B. knuckle joint
C. Oldham’s coupling
D. flexible coupling
E. electromagnetic coupling.
Answer: C

60. The e.g. of a link in any mechanism would experience
A. no acceleration
B. linear acceleration
C. angular acceleration
D. both angular and linear accelerations
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

61. In elliptical trammels
A. all four pairs are turning
B. three pairs turning and one pair sliding
C. two pairs turning and two pairs sliding
D. one pair turning and three pairs sliding
E. all four pairs sliding.
Answer: C

62. In automobiles the power is transmitted from gear box to differential through
A. bevel gear
B. universal joint
C. Hooke’s joint
D. Knuckle joint
E. Oldham’s coupling.
Answer: C

63. The indicator using Watt mechanism is known as
A. Thompson indicator
B. Richard indicator
C. Simplex indicator
D. Thomson indicator
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

64. The Ackermann steering mechanism is preferred to the Davis type in automobiles because
A. the former is mathematically accurate
B. the former is having turning pair
C. the former is most economical
D. the former is most rigid
E. none of thfr above.
Answer: B

65. Transmission of power from the engine to the rear axle of an automobile is by means of
A. compound gears
B. worm and wheel method
C. Hooke’s joint
D. crown gear
E. bevel gears.
Answer: C

66. When a ship travels in a sea, which of the effect is more dangerous
A. steering
B. pitching
C. rolling
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

67. In an ideal machine, the output as compared to input is
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. may be less or more depending on efficiency
E. always less.
Answer: C

68. Governor is used in automobile to
A. decrease the variation of speed
B. to control
C. to control SN
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

69. In gramophones for adjusting the speed of the turntable, the following type of governor is commonly employed
A. Hartung governor
B. Wilson Hartnell governor
C. Pickering governor
D. Inertia governor
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

70. For fluctuating loads, welsuited bearing is
A. ball bearing
B. roller bearing
C. needle roller bearing
D. thrust bearing
E. sleeve bearing.
Answer: C

71. Crowning on pulleys helps
A. in increasing velocity ratio
B. in decreasing the slip of the belt
C. for automatic adjustment of belt posi-tion so that belt runs centrally
D. increase belt and pulley life
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

72. Idler pulley is used
A. for changing the direction of motion of the belt
B. for applying tension
C. for increasing -velocity ratio
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

73. In multi-V-belt transmission, if one of the belt is broken, we have to change the
A. broken belt
B. broken belt and its adjacent belts
C. all the belts
D. there is no need of changing any one as remaining belts can take care of transmission of load
E. all the weak belts.
Answer: C

74. The moment on the pulley which produces rotation is called
A. inertia
B. momentum
C. moment of momentum
D. work
E. torque.
Answer: E

75. Creep in belt drive is due to
A. material of the pulley
B. material of the belt
C. larger size of the driver pulley
D. uneven extensions and contractions due to varying tension
E. expansion of belt.
Answer: D

76. TJie horse power transmitted by a belt is dependent upon
A. tension on tight side of belt
B. tension on slack side of belt
C. radius of pulley
D. speed of pulley
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

77. The locus of a point on a thread unwound from a cylinder will be
A. a straight line
B. a circle
C. involute
D. cycloidal
E. helix.
Answer: C

78. To transmit power from one rotating shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use
A. spur gear
B. spiral gear
C. bevel gear
D. worm gear
E. crown gear.
Answer: D

79. For S.H.M. cam, the acceleration of the follower at the ends of the stroke and aimidstroke respectively, is
A. maximum and zero
B. zero and maximum
C. minimum and maximum
D. zero and minimum
E. maximum and minimum.
Answer: A

80. Throw of a cam is the maximum distance of the follower from
A. base circle
B. pitch circle
C. root circle
D. prime circle
E. inner circle.
Answer: A

81. To obviate axial thrust, following gear drive is used
A. double helical gears having opposite teeth
B. double helical gears having identical teeth
C. single helical gear in which one of the teeth of helix angle a is more
D. mutter gears
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

82. Which of the following is false statement in respect of differences between machine and structure
A. Machines transmit mechanical work, whereas structures transmit forces
B. In machines, relative motion exists be-tween its members, whereas same does hot exist in case of structures
C. Machines modify movement and work, whereas structures modify forces
D. Efficiency of machines as well as structures is below 100%
E. Machines are run by electric motors, but structures are not.
Answer: D

83. If D1 and D2 be the diameters of driver and driven pulleys, then belt speed is proportional to
A. D1/D2
B. D2/D1
C. D1-D2.
D. D1
E. D1+D2.
Answer: D

84. Typewriter constitutes
A. machine
B. structure
C. mechanism
D. inversion
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

85. Lower pairs are those which have
A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
B. surface contact between the two elements when in motion
C. elements of pairs not -held together mechanically
D. two elements that permit relative motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

86. A point on a link connecting double slider crank chain traces a
A. straight line
B. circle
C. parabola
D. hyperbola
E. ellipse.
Answer: E

87. A pantograph is a mechanism with
A. lower pairs
B. higher pairs
C. rolling pairs
D. turning pairs
E. spherical pairs.
Answer: A

88. Kinematic pairs are those which have
A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
B. surface contact between the two ele-ments when in motion
C. elements of pairs not held together mechanically
D. two elements that permit relative mo-tion
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

89. If the opposite links of a four bar linkage are equal, the links will always form a
A. triangle
B. rectangle
C. parallelogram
D. pentagon
E. trapezoid.
Answer: C

90. Higher pairs are those which have
A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
B. surface contact between the two ele-ments when in motion
C. elements of pairs not held together mechanically
D. two elements that permit relative motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

91. A cam mechanism imparts following motion
A. rotating
B. oscillating
C. reciprocating
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

92. A cam with a roller follower would con stitute following type of pair
A. lower pair
B. higher pair
C. open pair
D. close pair
E. cam pair.
Answer: B

93. The approximate straight line mechanism is a
A. four bar linkage
B. 6 bar linkage
C. 8 bar linkage
D. 3 bar linkage
E. 5 bar linkage.
Answer: A

94. “Open pairs are those which have
A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
B. surface contact between the two ele-ments when in motion
C. elements of pairs not held together mechanically
D. two elements that permit relative motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

95. Peaucellier mechanism has
A. eight links
B. six links
C. four links
D. twelve links
E. five links.
Answer: A

96. Hart mechanism has
A. eight links
B. six links
C. four links
D. twelve links
E. five links.
Answer: B

97. A chain comprises of 5 links having 5 joints. Is it kinematic chain ?
A. yes
B. no
C. it is a marginal case
D. data are insufficient to determine it
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B

99. The main disadvantage of the sliding pair is that it is
A. bulky
B. wears rapidly
C. difficult to manufacture
D. A. and B. above
E. A. and C. above.
Answer: D

100. For a kinematic chain to be considered as mechanism
A. two links should be fixed
B. one link should be fixed
C. none of the links should be fixed
D. there is no such criterion
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

101. An eccentric sheave pivoted at one point rotates and transmits oscillatory motion to a link whose one end is pivoted and other end is connected to it. This mechanism has
A. 2 links
B. 3 links
C. 4 links
D. 5 links
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

102. Whitworth quick return mechanism is obtained by inversion of
A. slider crank mechanism
B. kinematic chain
C. five link mechanism
D. roller cam mechanism
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

103. In its simplest form, a cam mechanism consists of following number of links
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. none.
Answer: C

104. Which of the following mechanisms produces mathematically an exact straight line motion
A. Grasshopper mechanism
B. Watt mechanism
C. Peaucellier’s mechanism
D. Tchabichiff mechanism
E. Ackermann mechanism.
Answer: C

105. In a mechanism, usually one link is fixed.
If the fixed link is changed in a kinematic chain, then relative motion of other links
A. will remain same
B. will change
C. could change or remain unaltered depending oh which link is fixed
D. will not occur
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

106. A kinematic chain requires at least
A. 2 links and 3 turning pairs
B. 3 links and 4 turning pairs
C. 4 links and 4 turning pairs
D. 5 links and 4 turning pairs
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

107. In a darg link quick return mechanism, the shortest link is always fixed. The sum of the shortest and longest link is
A. equal to sum of other two
B. greater than sum of other two
C. less than sum of other two
D. there is no such relationship
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

108. The following is the inversion of slider crank chain mechanism
A. Whitworth quick return mechanism
B. hand pump
C. oscillating cylinder engine
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

109. Kinematic pairs are those which have
A. two elements held together mechani-cally
B. two elements having relative motion
C. two elements having Coroili’s com-ponent
D. minimum of two instantaneous centres
E. all of the above.
Answer: B

110 A typewriter mechanism has 7 number of binary joints, six links and none of higher pairs. The mechanism is
A. kinematically sound
B. not sound
C. soundness would depend upon which link is kept fixed
D. data is not sufficient to determine same
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

111. In a four-bar chain it is required to give an oscillatory motion to the follower for a continuous rotation of the crank. For the lengths of 50 mm of crank and 70 mm of the follower, determine theoretical maximum length of coupler. The distance between fixed pivots of crank and followers is
A. 95 mm
B. slightly less than 95 mm
C. slightly more than 95 mm
D. 45 mm
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

112. In above example, the minimum length of the coupler will be
A. 45 mm
B. slightly less than 45 mm
C. slightly more than 45 mm
D. 95 mm
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

113. In S.H.M., acceleration is proportional to
A. velocity
B. displacement
C. rate of change of velocity
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

114. For simple harmonic motion of the of follower, a cosine curve represents
A. displacement diagram
B. velocity diagram
C. acceleration diagram
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

115. In S.H.M., the velocity vector w.r.t. displacement vector
A. leads by 90°
B. lags by 90°
C. leads by 180°
D. are in phase
E. could be anywhere.
Answer: A

116. A body having moment of inertia o:m2 is rotating at 210 RPM and r with another body at rest having I 40 kg m2. The resultant speed after ing will be
A. 90 RPM
B. 100 RPM
C. 80 RPM
D. data are insufficient
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

117. Inertia force acts
A. perpendicular to the accel< force
B. along the direction of accel* force
C. opposite to the direction of ace ing force
D. in any direction w.r.t. accel* force depending on the magnit two
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

118. The frequency of oscillation at compared to earth will be
A. 6 times more
B. 6 times less
C. 2.44 times more
D. 2.44 times,less
E. 36 times less.
Answer: D

119. Polar moment of inertia (IP) of ac disc is to ht determined by suspen by a wire and noting the frequei
oscillations (/)
A. Ipocf
B. Ipocf
C. Ip oc j
D. Ipoc-
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

120. If the radius of gyration of a compound pendulum about an axis through e.g. is more, then its frequency of oscillation will be
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. data are insufficient to determine same
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

121. The Bifilar suspension method is used to determine
A. natural frequency of vibration
B. position of balancing weights
C. moment of inertia
D. centripetal acceleration’
E. angular acceleration of a body.
Answer: C

122. Which is the false statement about the properties of instantaneous centre
A. at the instantaneous center of rotation, one rigid link rotates instantaneously relative to another for the configuration of mechanism considered
B. the two rigid links have no linear velocities relative to each other at the instantaneous centre
C. the two rigid links which have no linear velocity relative to each other at this center have the same linear velocity to the third rigid link
D. the double centre can be denoted either by 02 or Ol2, but proper selection should be made
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

123. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar mechanism lies on
A. right side pivot of this link
B. lift side pivot of this link
C. a point obtained by intersection on extending adjoining links
D. can’t occur
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

124. The number of links and instantaneous centers in a reciprocating engine mechanism are
A. 4, 4
B. 4, 5
C. 5, 4
D. 6, 4
E. 4, 6.
Answer: E

125. According to Kennedy’s theorem, if three bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous centers lie on
A. a triangle
B. a point
C. two lines
D. a straight line
E. a curve.
Answer: D

126. In a rigid link OA, velocity of A w.r.t. will be
A. parallel to OA
B. perpendicular to OA
C. at 45° to OA
D. along AO
E. along OA.
Answer: B

127. Two systems shall be dynamically equivalent when
A. the mass of two are same
B. e.g. of two coincides
C. M.I. of two about an axis through e.g. is equal
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

128. The velocity of any point in mechanism relative to any other point on the mechanism on velocity polygon is represented by the line
A. joining the corresponding points
B. perpendicular to line as per A.
C. not possible to determine with these data
D. at 45° to line as per A.
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

129. The absolute acceleration of any point P in a link about center of rotation 0 is
A. along PO
B. perpendicular to PO
C. at 45° to PO
D. along OP
E. none of the above.
Answer: E

130. Angular acceleration of a link can be determined by dividing the
A. centripetal component of acceleration with length of link
B. tangential component of acceleration with length of link
C. resultant acceleration with length of link
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

131. Corioli’s component of acceleration exists whenever a point moves along a path that has
A. linear displacement
B. rotational motion
C. tangential acceleration
D. centripetal acceleration
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

132. The direction of Corioli’s component of acceleration is the direction
A. of relative velocity vector for the two coincident points rotated by 90° in the direction of the angular velocity of the rotation of the link
B. along the centripetal acceleration
C. along tangential acceleration
D. along perpendicular to angular velocity
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

133. In a shaper mechanism, the Corioli’s component of acceleration will
A. not exist
B. exist
C. depend on position of crank
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

134. The magnitude of tangential acceleration is equal to
A. velocity2 x crank radius
B. velocityvcrankradius
C. (velocity/crankradius)
D. velocity x crank radius2
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

135. Tangential acceleration direction is
A. along the angular velocity
B. opposite to angular velocity
C. may be any one of these
D. perpendicular to angular velocity
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

136. Corioli’s component is encountered in
A. quick return mechanism of shaper
B. four bar chain mechanism
C. slider crank mechanism
D. A. and C. above
E. all of the above.
Answer: A

137. Klein’s construction gives a graphica construction for
A. slider-crank mechanism
B. velocity polygon
C. acceleration polygon
D. four bar chain mechanism
E. angular acceleration.
Answer: C

138. Klein’s construction can be used to determine acceleration of various parts when the crank is at
A. inner dead centre
B. outer dead centre
C. right angles to the link of the stroke
D. at 45° to the line of the stroke
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

139. The number of centers in a crank driven slider crank mechanism are
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. may be any number depending upon position of mechanism.
Answer: B

140. Corioli’s component acts
A. perpendicular to sliding surfaces
B. along sliding surfaces
C. somewhere in between above two
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

141. The sense of Corioli’s component is such that it
A. leads the sliding velocity vector by 90°
B. lags the sliding velocity vector by 90°
C. is along the sliding velocity vector
D. leads the sliding velocity vector by 180°
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

142. Klein’s construction can be used when
A. crank has a uniform angular velocity
B. crank has non-uniform velocity
C. crank has uniform angular acceleration
D. crank has uniform angular velocity and angular acceleration
E. there is no such criterion.
Answer: A

143. Klein’s construction is useful to determine
A. velocity of various parts
B. acceleration of various parts
C. displacement of various parts
D. angular acceleration of various parts
E. all of the above.
Answer: B

144. A circle passing through the pitch point with its center at the center of cam axis is known as
A. pitch circle
B. base circle
C. prime circle
D. outer circle
E. cam circle.
Answer: C

145. The pressure angle of a cam depends upon
A. offset between centre lines of cam and follower
B. lift of follower
C. angle of ascent
D. sum of radii of base circle and roller follower
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

146. Cam size depends upon
A. base circle
B. pitch circle
C. prime circle
D. outer circle
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

147. Cylindrical cams can be classified as
A. circular
B. tangent
C. reciprocating
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: E

148. The maximum value of the pressure angle in case of cam is kept as
A. 10°
B. 14°
C. 20°
D. 30°
E. 25°.
Answer: D

149. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a smaller base circle will give
A. a small value of pressure angle
B. a large value of pressure angle
C. there is no such relation with pressure angle
D. something else
E. none of the above is true.
Answer: B

150. Cam angle is defined as the angle
A. during which the follower returns to its initial position
B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
C. through which, the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position
D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
E. moved by the can from beginning of i ascent to the termination of descent.
Answer: B

Theory of Machines objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

[PDF Notes] Essay on Relevance of Theory of Comparative Cost

Despite the arguments against the comparative cost theory in solving the growth problems of the under­developed countries, the theory still has relevance for these countries:

(i) For the underdeveloped countries which are small and which possess sufficient and suitable natural resources and for which stable demand conditions prevail in the world market, international trade, according to the comparative cost principle, provides an ideal path of economic development.

(ii) For the large, overpopulated countries with meager natural resources and with unfavourable world demand for exports, domestic demand is necessary. But, such nations too cannot afford to ignore the opportunities of economic growth provided by the expansion of export of those commodities in which it has comparative advantage.

(iii) The static nature of comparative cost should not render it inapplicable in the developing countries and restrict it from adopting a policy of protection. By definition, an underdeveloped country is that which has not been able to gain from its potential comparative cost advantage.

The policy of protection, by reallocating the domestic resources, enables the country to specialise in the long run in those fields of production where it has potential comparative cost advantage. Thus, the theory of protection, far from being contradictory to the theory of comparative cost, actually strengthens it by dynamiting its character.

300+ TOP Industrial Engineering MCQs and Answers Quiz

Industrial Engineering Multiple choice Questions

1. A graphical device used to determine the break-even point and profit potential under varying conditions of output and costs, is known as
A. Gnatt chart
B. flow chart
C. break-even chart
D. PERT chart
E. Taylor chart.

Answer: C

2. Break-even analysis consists of
A. fixed cost
B. variable cost
C. fixed and variable costs
D. operation costs
E. none of the above.

Answer: C

3. Break-even analysis shows profit when
A. sales revenue > total cost
B. sales revenue = total cost
C. sales revenue < total cost
D. variable cost < fixed cost
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

4. In braek-even analysis, total cost consists of
A. fixed cost
B. variable cost
C. fixed cost + variable cost
D. fixed cost + variable cost + over-heads
E. fixed cost + sales revenue.

Answer: A

5. The break-even point represents
A. the most economical level of operation of any industry
B. the time when unit can run without i loss and profit
C. time when industry will undergo loss
D. the time when company can make maximum profits
E. time for overhauling a plant.

Answer: C

6. Depreciation of machines is categorized under the head
A. direct expenses
B. indirect expenses
C. receipts
D. administrative expenses
E. indirect material costs.

7. Depreciation of machines, according to income tax regulations is calculated on the basis of following method
A. straight line
B. sinking fund
C. machine hour
D. rate of return
E. declining balance.

8. In project appraisal analysis, shadow prices are
A. used for lost items
B. used to convert inputs into cost and output into benefits
C. used to determine feasibility of project
D. taken as the basis for determining value of all the assets
E. none of the above,

9. Cash discounts are reduction in price of goods
A. sold on credit
B. which depends on assurance of payment
C. which depends on prompt cash payment
D. obtainable on bad debt loans
E. which have good bargaining capacity of seller.

9. In the cost structure of a product, the selling price is determined by the factors such as1
A. sales turn over
B. lowest competitive price
C. various elements of the cost
D. buyers’ capability to pay
E. all of the above.

Answer: E

10. Work study is concerned with
A. improving present method and finding standard time
B. motivation of workers
C. improving production capability
D. improving production planning and control
E. all of the above.

Answer: A

Industrial Engineering MCQs

11. Basic tool in work study is
A. graph paper
B. process chart
C. planning chart
D. stop watch
E. analytical mind.

Answer: D

12. What does symbol ‘O’ imply in work study
A. operation
B. inspection
C. transport
D. delay temporary storage
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

13. In project appraisal studies ‘intangibles’ are those items which can
A. be quantified in terms of money
B. be quantified but can’t be converted into money terms
C. neither be quantified nor translated in money terms
D. not be considered and are usually ignored
E. receive highest priority.

14. Simplex method is used for
A. linear programming
B. queuing theory
C. network analysis
D. value engineering
E. all of the above.

15. What does symbol ‘D’ imply in work study
A. inspection
B. transport
C. delay temporary storage
D. permanent storage
E. none of the above.

Answer: C

16. In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its
A. minimum value
B. maximum value
C. average value
D. middle value
E. alarming value.

Answer: A

17. Material handling in automobile industry is done by
A. overhead crane
B. trolley
C. belt conveyor
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

18. String diagram is used when
A. team of workers is working at a place
B. material handling is to be done
C. idle time is to be reduced
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

19. For a project to be feasible, internal rate of return should be greater than
A. zero
B. 1
C. rate of interest for loan
D. expenses
E. losses likely to be incurred.

20. Work study is most useful
A. where production activities are involved
B. in judging the rating of machines
C. in improving industrial relations
D. in judging the output of a man and improving it
E. where men are biggest contributor to success of a project.

Answer: A

21. Micromotion study is
A. enlarged view of motion study
B. analysis of one stage of motion study
C. minute and detailed motion study
D. subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
E. motion study of small components upto mircoseconds.

Answer: D

22. In micromotion study, therblig is described by
A. a symbol
B. an event
C. an activity
D. micro motions
E. standard symbol and colour.

Answer: E

23. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus
A. policy allowance
B. interference allowance
C. process allowance
D. learning allowance
E. unforeseen allowance.

Answer: A

24. Micromotion study involves following number of fundamental hand motions
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 20
E. 24.

Answer: C

25. The standard time for a job is
A. total work content
B. basic time + relaxation time
C. total work content + basic time
D. total work content + delay contigency allowance
E. total work content + relaxation time.

Answer: D

26. Internal rate of return is that discount rate which makes the value of net present value equal to
A. zero
B. 1
C. infinity D. some + ve value
E. some – ve value.

27. Work study is done with the help of
A. process chart
B. material handling
C. stop watch
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: C

28. Scheduling gives information about
A. when work should start and how much work should be completed during a certain period
B. when work should complete
C. that how idle time can be minimised
D. prcper utilisation of machines
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

29. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on
A. operator’s activity
B. flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble
C. minimising the delays
D. making efficient despatching
E. none of the above.

Answer: B

30. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to
A. determine overhead expenses
B. provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages
C. determine standard costs
D. determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines
E. compare alternative methods.

Answer: A

31. Job evaluation is the method-of determining the
A. relative worth of jobs
B. skills required by a worker
C. contribution of a worker
D. contribution of a job
E. effectiveness of various alternatives.

Answer: A

32. Micromotion study is
A. analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera with a timing device in the field of view
B. motion study observed on enhanced time intervals
C. motion study of a sequence of operations conducted systematically
D. study of man and machine conducted simultaneously
E. scientific, analytical procedure for determining optimum work method.

Answer: A

33. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by
A. work sampling
B. time study
C. method study
D. work study
E. ABC analysis.

Answer: A

34. TMU in method time measurement stands for
A. time motion unit
B. time measurement unit
C. time movement unit
D. technique measurement unit
E. time method unit.

Answer: B

35. Time study is
A. the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving human effort
B. machine setting time
C. time taken by workers to do a job
D. method of fixing time for workers
E. method of determining the personnel Requirement.

Answer: A

36. Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of
A. detailed calculations
B. convenience
C. table of random numbers
D. past experience
E. fixed percentage of daily production.

Answer: C

38. One time measurement unit(TMU) in method time measurement system equals
A. 0.0001 minute
B. 0.0006 minute
C. 0.006 minute
D. 0.001 minute
E. 0.06 minute.

Answer: B

39. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of
A. second
B. minute
C. hour
D. day
E. none of the above.

Answer: B

40. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for
A. improving a work method
B. improvising a work method
C. designing a work method
D. providing a schematic framework
E. reducing inventory costs.

Answer: E

41. Gnatt chart provides information about the
A. material handling
B. proper utilisation of manpower
C. production schedule
D. efficient working of machine
E. all of the above.

Answer: C

42. ABC analysis deals with
A. analysis of process chart
B. flow of material
C. ordering schedule of job
D. controlling inventory costs money
E. all of the above.

Answer: D

43. Process layout is employed for
A. batch production
B. continuous type of product
C. effective utilisation of machines
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

44. For a product layout the material handling equipment must
A. have full flexibility
B. employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
C. be a general purpose type
D. be designed as special purpose for a particular application
E. arranging shops according to specialisation of duties.

Answer: D

45. Travel charts provide
A. an idea of the flow of materials at various stages
B. a compact estimate of the handling which must be done between various work sections
C. the information for changes required in rearranging material handling equipment
D. an approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a particular station
E. solution to handling techniques to achieve most optimum results.

Answer: B

46. Product layout is employed for
A. batch production
B. continuous production1
C. effective utilization of machine
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: B

48. The process layout is best suited where
A. specialisation exists
B. machines are arranged according to sequence of operation
C. few number of nonstandardised units are to be produced
D. mass production is envisaged
E. bought out items are more.

Answer: C

49. A low unit cost can be obtained by following
A. product layout
B. functional layout
C. automatic material handling equipment
D. specialization of operation
E. minimum travel time plan and compact layout.

Answer: A

50. Military organisation is known as
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

51. The main disadvantage of line organisation is
A. top level executives have to do excessive work
B. structure is rigid
C. communication delays occur
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: D

52. The main advantage of line organisation is its
A. effective command and control
B. defined responsibilities at all levels
C. rigid discipline in the organisation
D. ability of quick decision at all levels
E. all of the above.

Answer: E

53. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. effective organisation
E. none of the above.

Answer: C

54. The salient feature of functional organisation is
A. strict adherence to specification
B. separation of planning and design part
C. each individual maintains functional efficiency
D. work is properly planned and distributed
E. all of the above.

Answer: E

55. The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. effective organisation
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

56. Templates are used for
A. a planning layout
B. flow of material
C. advancing a programme in automatic machines
D. copying complicated profiles
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

57. In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is
A. conveyors
B. cranes and hoists
C. trucks
D. locos
E. none of the above.

Answer: D

58. Routing prescribes the
A. flow of material in the plant
B. proper utilization of man power
C. proper utilization of machines
D. inspection of final product
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

59. Queuing theory deals with problems of
A. material handling
B. reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme
C. better utilization of man services
D. effective use of machines
E. none of the above.

Answer: B

60. Standard time is defined as
A. normal time + allowances
B. normal time + idle time + allowances
C. normal time + idle time
D. only normal time for an operation
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

61. Father of industrial engineering is
A. Jeck Gilberth
B. Gnatt
C. Taylor
D. Newton
E. none of the above.

Answer: B

62. The grouping of activities into organisational units is called
A. corporate plans
B. higher level management
C. functional authority
D. departmentatidn
E. company policy.

Answer: D

63. Which of the following organisation is preferred in automobile industry
A. functional organisation
B. line organisation
C. staff organisation
D. line and staff organisations
E. scalar organisation.

Answer: D

64. Which of the following organisations is best suited for steel plants
A. functional organisation
B. line organisation
C. staff organisation
D. line, staff and functional organisations
E. scalar organisation.

Answer: A

65. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following method in the evaluation of the material issued from the store
A. inflated system
B. primary cost method
C. current value method
D. fixed price method
E. variable price method.

Answer: A

66. Which of the following is independent of sales forecast
A. productivity
B. inventory control
C. production planning
D. production control
E. capital budgeting.

Answer: A

67. Gnatt charts are used for
A. forecasting sales
B. production schedule
C. scheduling and routing
D. linear programming
E. none of the above.

Answer: B

68. Inventory management consists of
A. effective running of stores
B. state of merchandise methods of strong and maintenance etc.
C. stock control system
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: D

69. Gnatt charts provide information about
A. break even point analysis
B. production schedule
C. material handling layout
D. determining selling price
E. value analysis.

Answer: B

70. Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at
A. achieving optimisation
B. ensuring against market fluctuations
C. acceptable customer service at low capital investment in inventory
D. discounts allowed in bulk purchase
E. regulate supply and demand.

Answer: C

71. In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the
A. optimum lot size
B. highest level of inventory
C. lot corresponding to break-even point
D. capability of a plant to produce
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

72. Statistical quality control techniques are based on the theory of
A. quality
B. statistics
C. probability
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: C

73. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is
A. management
B. labour court
C. high court/supreme court
D. board of directors
E. president.

Answer: C

74. Under the Apprenticeship Act
A. all industries have to necessarily train the apprentices
B. industries have to train apprentices ac-cording to their requirement
C. all industries employing more than 100 workers have to recruit apprentices
D. only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit apprentices
E. all industries other than small scale industries have to train apprentices.

Answer: D

75. Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to
A. all industries
B. all process industries and thermal power plants
C. only major industries
D. only key industries
E. all industries employing more than 100 workers.

Answer: E

76. Acceptance sampling is widely used in
A. batch production
B. job production
C. mass production
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: C

77. The technique of value analysis can be applied to
A. complicated items only
B. simple items only
C. crash-programme items only
D. cost consciousness items only
E. any item.

Answer: E

78. The term ‘value’ in value engineering refers to
A. total cost of the product
B. selling price of the product
C. utility of the product
D. manufactured cost of the product
E. depreciation value.

Answer: C

79. Value engineering aims at finding out the
A. depreciation value of a product
B. resale value of a product
C. major function of the item and accomplishing the same at least cost without change in quality
D. break even point when machine re-quires change
E. selling price of an item.

Answer: C

80. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches its
A. minimum value
B. maximum value
C. average value
D. alarming value
E. original value.

Answer: A

81. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new one when
A. CAM < DAM
B. CAM > DAM
C. CAM = DAM
D. there is no such criterion
E. none of the above.
(CAM = Challenger’s Adverse minimum DAM = Defender’s Adverse minimum)

Answer: A

82. Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of
A. a job
B. an individual employee
C. a particular division in workshop
D. machine
E. overall quality.

Answer: B

83. Material handling and plant location is analysed by
A. Gnatt chart
B. bin chart
C. Emerson chart
D. travel chart
E. activity chart.

Answer: D

84. Works cost implies
A. primary cost
B. factory cost
C. factory expenses
D. primary cost + factory expenses
E. none of the above.

Answer: D

85. Motion study involves analysis of
A. actions of operator
B. layout of work place
C. tooling and equipment
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

86. Standard time as compared to normal time is
A. greater
B. smaller
C. equal
D. there is no such correlation
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

87. Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work sampling
A. permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays
B. simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single observer
C. calculations are easier, method is economical and less time consuming
D. no time measuring devices are generally needed
E. as operators are not watched for long periods, chances of obtaining misleading results are less.

Answer: A

88. In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.

Answer: B

89. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.

Answer: B

90. Which of the following layouts is suited to job production
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.

Answer: A

91. The employees provident fund act is applicable to
A. all industries
B. all industries other than small and medium industries
C. volunteers
D. the industries notified by Government
E. all major industries.

Answer: D

92. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is
A. credited into reserves of company
B. deposited in nationalised bank
C. deposited in post office
D. deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India
E. deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.

Answer: E

93. The deductions for, employees provident fund start
A. immediately on joining the service
B. after 60 days of joining the service
C. after 100 days of joining the service
D. after 240 days of joining the service
E. after one year of joining the service.

Answer: D

94. Father of time study was
A. F.W. Taylor
B. H.L. Gantt
C. F.B. Gilberfh
D. R.M. Barnes
E. H.B. Maynord.

Answer: A

95. Tick the odd man out
A. Taylor
B. Drucker
C. McGregor
D. Galileo
E. Parkinson.

Answer: D

96. Current assets include
A. manufacturing plant
B. manufacturing plant and equipment
C. inventories
D. common stock held by the firm
E. all of the above.

Answer: A

97. The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by
A. fast worker
B. average worker
C. slow worker
D. new entrant
E. any one of the above.

Answer: B

98. Job enrichment technique is applied to
A. reduce labour monotony
B. overcome boring and demotivating work
C. make people happy
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: D

99. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.

Answer: C

100. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are established
A. by time study
B. from previous production records
C. from one’s judgement
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: B

101. Routing is essential in the following type of industry
A. assembly industry
B. process industry
C. job order industry
D. mass production industry
E. steel industry.

Answer: A

102. An optimum project schedule implies
A. optimum utilisation of men, machines and materials
B. lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project
C. timely execution of project
D. to produce best results under given constraints
E. realistic execution time, minimum cost and maximum profits.

Answer: B

103. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with
A. break-even analysis
B. value analysis
C. linear programming
D. queing theory
E. tnaterial handling.

Answer: C

104. In crash program for a project
A. both direct and indirect costs, increase
B. indirect costs increase and direct costs decrease
C. direct costs increase and indirect costs decrease
D. cost is no criterion
E. none of the above.

Answer: C

106. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?
A. Scanlon Plan
B. Rowan Plan
C. Bedaux Plan
D. Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
E. Halsey Premium Plan.

Answer: A

107. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
A. past good workers
B. past poor workers
C. past average workers
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: B

108. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is
A. paid as per efficiency
B. ensured of minimum wages
C. not paid any bonus till his efficiency 2 reaches 66 %
D. never a loser
E. induced to do more work.

Answer: B

109. ‘Value’ for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as
A. purchase value
B. saleable value
C. depreciated value
D. present worth
E. function/cost.

Answer: E

110. Break-even analysis can be used for
A. short run analysis
B. long run analysis
C. average of above two run analysis
D. there is no such criterion
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

111. CPM has following time estimate
A. one time estimate
B. two time estimate
C. three time estimate
D. four time estimate
E. nil time estimate.

Answer: A

112. PERT has following time estimate
A. one time estimate
B. two time estimate
C. three time estimate
D. four time estimate
E. nil time estimate.

Answer: C

113. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an .employee receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on :
A. a standard rating system
B. a merit rating system
C. a job evaluation system
D. his individual performance
E. all of the above.

Answer: B

114. Which of the following incentive plansrensures a part of the swing to the worker and rest to the employer
A. Emerson efficiency plan
B. Taylor plan
C. Halsey premium plan
D. Piece rate system
E. Gilberth plan.

Answer: C

115. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan
A. differential piece rate system
B. Rowan plan
C. Emerson plan
D. Taylor plan
E. Halsey plan.

Answer: D

117. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time saved by workers
A. Halsey plan
B. Rowan plan
C. Haynes plan
D. Emerson’s plan
E. Taylor’s plan.

Answer: C

118. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the worker for every hour he saves from the established time required. This type of incentive plan is known as
A. Rowan Plan
B. Bedaux Plan
C. Taylor Differential Piece rate system
D. Halsey Premium plan
E. Day work plan.

Answer: D

119. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that
A. a differential piece rate system should exist
B. minimum wages should be guaranteed
C. provide incentive to group efficiency performance
D. all standards should be based on optimum standards of production
E. all standards should be based on time studies.

Answer: E

120. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid till his efficiency reaches
A. 50%
B. 661%
C. 75%
D. 80%
E. 90%.

Answer: B

121. According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard time, then wages will be
A. HA
B. HA + (S~A) HA
C. HA + ^^-H
D. HA + ^^-H
E. HA + ^^-HA.

Answer: B

122. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his maximum daily earnings can be
A. 2 HA
B. 1.33 HA
C. 1.5 HA
D. 1.15 HA
E. 2.5 HA.

Answer: A

123. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to
A. those items which consume money
B. those items which are not readily available
C. thosex items which are in more demand
D. those items which consume more money
E. proper quality assurance program-mes.

Answer: D

124. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?
A. Halsey Premium Plan
B. Bedaux Plan
C. Lincoln Plan
D. Rowan Plan
E. Taylor Plan.

Answer: C

125. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an optimum manner is known as
A. operation research
B. linear programming
C. network analysis
D. queuing theory
E. break-even analysis.

Answer: B

126. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results
A. relations between factors must be linear (positive)
B. relations between factors must be linear (negative)
C. A. or (b)
D. only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant
E. none of the above.

Answer: C

127. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like
A. iron and steel
B. food processing
C. oil and chemical
D. banking
E. all of the above.

Answer: E

128. The simplex method is the basic method for
A. value analysis
B. operation research
C. linear programming
D. model analysis
E. none of the above.

Answer: C

129. The two-bin system is concerned with
A. ordering procedure
B. forecasting sales
C. production planning
D. despatching and expediting
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

130. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the worker based on the exact % of time saved. This type of incentive plan is known as
A. Dry work Plan
B. Halsey Premium Plan
C. Taylor Plan
D. Bedaux Plan
E. Rowan Plan.

Answer: E

131. Replacement studies are made on the fol-lowing basis:
A. annual cost method
B. rate of return method
C. total life average method
D. present worth method
E. any one of the above.

Answer: E

132. String diagram is used
A. for checking the relative values of various layouts
B. when a group of workers are working at a place
C. where processes require the operator to be moved from one place to another
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: D

133. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged on the cost of machine asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation every year remains constant
A. sinking fund method
B. straight line method
C. A-B-C charging method
D. annuity charging method
E. diminishing balance method.

Answer: D

134. Bin card is used in
A. administrative wing
B. workshop
C. foundary shop
D. stores
E. assembly shop.

Answer: D

135. Slack represents the difference between the
A. latest allowable time and the normal expected time
B. latest allowable time and the earliest expected time
C. proposed allowable time and the ear-liest expected time
D. normal allowable time and the latest expected time
E. project initiation tune and actual starting time.

Answer: B

136. PERT and CPM are
A. techniques to determine project status
B. decision making techniques
C. charts which increase aesthetic ap-pearance of rooms
D. aids to determine cost implications of project
E. aids to the decision maker.

Answer: E

137. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case
A. activities and events are clearly shown
B. early start and late finish of an ac¬tivity are clearly marked
C. activity times are clear
D. critical path can be easily determined
E. inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown.

Answer: E

138. CPM is the
A. time oriented technique
B. event oriented technique
C. activity oriented technique
D. target oriented technique
E. work oriented technique.

Answer: C

139. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include
A. MTM (method time measurement)
B. WFS (work factor systems)
C. BNTS (basic motion time study)
D. all of the above
E. none of the abbvev

Answer: D

140. Work study comprises following main techniques
A. method study and work measurement
B. method study and time study
C. time study and work measurement
D. method study and job evaluation
E. value analysis and work measurement.

Answer: A

141. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with others
A. organisation performance x motivation = profits
B. knowledge x skill = ability
C. ability x motivation = performance
D. attitude x situation = motivation
E. performance x resources = organisation performance.

Answer: A

142. PERT is the
A. time oriented technique
B. event oriented technique
C. activity oriented technique
D. target oriented technique
E. work oriented technique.

Answer: B

143. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that
A. PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
B. critical path is determined in PERT only
C. costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT
D. guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM
E. PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.

Answer: D

145. Queing theory is used for
A. inventory problems
B. traffic congestion studies
C. job-shop scheduling
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: D

146. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analysed mathematically if
A. complete details’of items in, waiting line are known
B. arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line model
C. all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation
D. the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the arriving units are taken into source are known
E. all of the above.

Answer: D

147. Queing theory is associated with
A. sales
B. inspection time
C. waiting time
D. production time
E. inventory.

Answer: C

148. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should be that
A. the average service rate HHess than the average arrival rate
B. output rate is linearly proportional to input
C. output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: D

149. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing problems
A. that can’t be analysed mathematically
B. involving multistage queuing
C. to verify mathematical results
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Answer: A

151. A milestone chart
A. shows the interdependence of various jobs
B. depicts the delay of jobs, if any
C. points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

152. Bar charts are suitable for
A. minor works
B. major works
C. large projects
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

153. The first method invented for planning projects was
A. bar chart method
B. milestone chart
C. critical path method (CPM)
D. programme evaluation and review technique (PERT)
E. none of the above.

154. Pick up the correct statement from the following
A. programme evaluation and review technique is event oriented
B. programme evaluation and review technique is not event oriented
C. critical path method is event oriented
D. critical.path method is not activity oriented
E. none of the above.
155. Pick up the correct statement from the
following
A. critical path method is an improvement upon bar chart method
B. critical path method provides a realistic approach to the daily problems
C. critical path method avoids delays which are very common in bar chart
D. critical path method was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot and James E. Kelley of Remington U.S.A in 1957
E. all of the above.

156. Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a project by C.P.M.
A. a project is divided into various activities
B. required time for each activity is established
C. sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events
E. all of the above.

157. The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by following time of the critical activity meeting at the final episode
A. early finish
B. early start
C. late start
D. late finish
E. none of the above.

158. The disadvantage of product layout is
A. high initial investment for the specialized facilities
B. skilled labour to operate machines
C. production time is longer, requiring more goods in inventory
D. high cost of inspection
E. costly and complex production control.

159. Emergency rush order can be pushed more effectively in
A. job production
B. automatic production
C. continuous production
D. intermittent production
E. none of the above.

160. Routing assists engineers in deciding in advance
A. the flow of material in the plant
B. the methods of proper utilization of manpower
C. the methods of proper utilization of machines
D. the layout of factory facilities
E. normal route of workers through the plant.

161. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as
A. dummy
B. event
C. activity D. contract
E. none of the above.

162. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
A. an activity of the project is denoted by an arrow on the net work
B. the tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity
C. the head of the arrow indicates the end of,the activity!
D. the arrows are drawn (to scale from) left to right
E. each activity consumes a given time

163. The artificial activity; which indicates that an activity following it cannot be started unless, the preceding activity is complete, is known as
A. event
B. free float
C. artificial
D. constraint
E. dummy.

164. A dummy activity
A. is artificially introduced
B. is represented by a dotted line
C. does not require any time
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

165. If E> is the duration, ES and EF are die earliest start and finish times, LS and LF are latest start and finish times, then the following relation holds good
A. EF=ES+D
(b)LS=LF-D
C. LF = LS + D
D. D = EF-ES
E. all of the above.

166. The difference between the time available to do the job and the time required to do the job, is known as
A. event
B. float
C. duration
D. constraint
E. none of the above.

167. The probability distribution of activity times in PERT follows following distribution
A. normal
B. binomial
C. beta
D. exponential
E. Gaussian.

168. The probability distribution of project completion in PERT follows following distribution
A. normal
B. binominal
C. beta
D. exponential
E. Gaussian.

169. If TL is the largest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack (s) is equal to
A. latest start time – earliest start time
B. latest finish time – earliest finish time (EFT)
C. TL-EFT
{d) all the above
E. none of the above.

170. The critical activity has
A. maximum float
(p) minimum float
C. zero float,
D. average float
E. none of these.

171. The time by which the activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the
start of succeeding activities, is Known as
A. duration
B. total float
C. free float
D. interfering float
E. none of the above.

172. The critical path of a network represents
A. the minimum time required for completion of project
B. the maximum time required for completion of project
C. maximum cost required for completion of project
D. minimum cost required for completion of project
E. none of the above.

173. Pick up the correct statement from the following
A. the float may be positive, zero or negative
B. if the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its total float, the completion of project in not delayed
C. if the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is bound to delay the completion of project
D. if the float of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay the whole project
E. all of the above.

174. Critical path moves along the activities having total float of
A. positive value
B. negative value
C. zero value
D. same value
E. none of the above.

175. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer
A. to concentrate his attention on critical activities
B. to divert the resources from noncritical advanced activities to critical activities
C. to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to avoid delay of the whole project
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

177. The time which results in the least possible direct cost of an activity is known as
A. normal time
B. slow time
C. crash time
D. standard time
E. none of the above.

178. The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs
of any project is known as
A. event flow scheduling technique
B. critical ratio scheduling
C. slotting technique for scheduling
D. short interval scheduling
E. none of the above.

179. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. A critical ratio scheduling
A. establishes the relative priorities among various activities on a common basis
B. determines the status of each activity
C. adjusts automatically changes in activity progress
D. is a dynamic system
E. none of the above.

181. PERT is
A. an analytic tool in concept ‘ B. limit up of event oriented diagrams
C. used for research and development projects
D. based on three time estimates for activities linking up two events
E. all of the above.

182. CPM is _____.
A. synthesising in concepts
B. is built of activities oriented program-mes
C. is, based on one time eytimate
D. is used for repetitive works
E. all of the above.

183. A CPM family includes
A. CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
B. CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
C. MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure)
D. CPS (Critical Path Scheduling)
E. all of the above.

184. PERT/CPM, techniques can be used for following applications
A. once through project
B. maintenance jobs
C. research and development
D. all non-technical jobs
E. all of the above.

185. PERT analysis is based on
A. optimistic time
B. pessimistic time
C. most likely time
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

186. Discrepancies of bar chart techniques are
A. consequential effects of lack in one activity on omer
B. consequential effects of lack in one activity on the finish date
C. free time available for an activity can’t be predicted
D. effective monitoring/controlling can’t be done
E. all of the above.

187. O on a PERT/CPM chart represents
A. an ordinary event
B. a significant event representing some mile-stone
C. an event to be transferred to other network chart
D. dangling event
E. dummy event.

188. [ ] on a PERT/CPM chart represents
A. an ordinary event
B. a significant event representing some mile-stone
C. an event to be transferred to other network chart
D. dangling event
E. dummy event.

190. Pick up the correct statement. Dummy activity on a PERT/CPM chart means, it
A. consumes time, but no resources
B. consumes resources but no time
C. consumes neither time nor resources
D. is a dangling event
E. consumes both resources and time.

191. Criticalpath on PERT/CPM chart is obtained by joining the events having
A. maximum slack
B. minimum slack
C. average slack
D. no slack
E. judgement and experience.

192. Slack of various events on the critical path in PERT/CPM chart
A. increases continuously
B. decreases continuously
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on various factors
E. unpredictable.

193. The assumption in PERT is
A. a project will always be behind schedule, if left uncorrected
B. cost of project will always be more than the estimated cost, if no timely corrections are taken
C. a project can be subdivided into a set of predictable, independent activities
D. activities are fixed and can’t be changed ,
E. commissioning time can be changed, if activities are behind schedule.

194. Activity s,lack or float of any event on a PERT/CPM chart is represented by
A. latest start time of succeeding event -earliest finish time of preceding event activity time
B. latest start time of the event – earliest start time of the event
C. latest finish time of event – earliest finish time of the event
D. anyone of the above
E. none of the above.

195. The important file in making a PERT is
A. an event can’t be accomplished until activities leading to it are completed
B. no activity from any event can be started from preceding event till it is completed
C. length of arrow has nothing to do with time
D. every activity must be completed before end point is reached
E. all of the above.

196. An event is indicated on the network by
A. a straight line
B. a number enclosed in a circle or a square
C. a straight line with circles at the ends
D. a dotted line
E. an arrow.

197. In a PERT chart
A. all activities should be numbered
B. only important activities should be numbered
C. only critical activities are numbered
D. only selected activities are numbered
E. no activity is numbered.

198. Positive slack on a PERT indicates that project is
A. ahead of schedule
B. beyond schedule
C. as per schedule
D. on critical path
E. none of the above.

199. Pessimistic time is
A. the maximum time which an activity might require
B. the average time required for a job
C. the most probable time considering all conditions
D. the minimum time in which an activity can possibly be accomplished
E. the earliest finish.

200. In PERT analysis, critical path is obtained by joining events having
A. +ve slack
B. – ve slack
C. zero slack
D. dummy activities
E. critical activities.

201. The slack on various events at critical path will be
A. same as at the end point
B. decreasing proportional to that at the end point
C. increasing proportional to that at the end point
D. maximum compared to other events
E. none of the above.

202. A critical path on a PERT chart
A. starts from start point and ends at end point
B. starts from start point and may end anywhere
C. may start from any where but ends at end point
D. may start and end at any point
E. none of the above.

203. Capital expenditure means
A. expenses incurred in acquiring capital
B. main expenditure
C. recurring expenditure
D. expenditure on procurement of fixed assets
E. expenditure on property.

205. A rupee received one year hence is not the equivalent of a rupee received today, because the use of money has a value. This is the principle under
A. pay-back method
B. average return on investment method
C. present value method
D. discounted cash flow method
E. cost accounting method.

206. The equal payment series sinking fund factor for a given number of years (n) is used to calculate
A. equal payments to be made at the end of each year when compound amount after n years is given
B. .compound amount after n years when payments to be made each year are given
C. present net worth when payments to be made each year are given
D. equal payments to be made at the end of each year when present, net worth is given
E. present net worth when the com¬pound amount after n years is given.

207. All financial decisions on any project appraisal are based on the
A. future value of money
B. present value of money
C. opportunity cost of money
D. anyone of the above
E. none of the above.

208. The capital and running costs of similar machines having unequal service life can be compared by
A. present net worth method
B. rate of return method
C. equivalent annual cost method
D. capitalised cost method
E. depreciation method.

212. In Project appraisal, the term ‘externalities’ refers to
A. extraneous elements
B. unknown factors
C. unforeseen factors
D. indirect benefits and indirect costs
E. items over which there is no control.

213. The criterion to decide between various alternatives in project appraisal is
A. net present value criterion
B. benefit/cost ratio criterion
C. internal rate of return criterion
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.

214. The benefit/cost ratio criterion is used to decide between various alternatives in a project appraisal for comparing
A. identical projects
B. similar projects
C. dissimilar projects
D. all projects
E. none of the above.

215. Capitalized cost comparison method is used for comparing alternatives having
A. high initial cost
B. high maintenance cost
C. high service life
D. high electricity consuming devices
E. high running cost.

Industrial Engineering objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

[PDF Notes] What are the essential features of the infant industry argument?

Infant industry argument is one of the important valid arguments given in favour of protection. The credit of advancing this argument goes to List in Germany, Hamilton in America and J.S. Mill in England.

According to this argument, infant industries (i.e, newly or late starting industries) during the initial stages of their development are not strong enough to compete with the long-established foreign industries.

The operational cost of the infant industries is very high. Such an industry needs to be fully protected by the government from foreign competition. By imposing a tariff on imports, the government raises the domestic price and helps the home producers to cover their high costs and thus grow under protection.

The essential features of infant industry argument are as follows:

(i) The basic idea behind the infant industry argument is to bring a country in the same stage of development as its trading partner. Free trade among unequals is neither possible nor desirable. As List writes, “A child or a boy in wrestling with a strong man can scarcely be victorious or even offer steady resistance.”

(ii) Protection should be given temporarily only in the initial stages. It should be withdrawn once the industry becomes mature enough to compete internationally. According to List, “baby is to be nursed; child is to be protected; and the grown up young one is to be left free.”

Similarly, J.S. Mill writes that “It is essential that the protection should be confined to such cases in which there is good ground of assurance that the industry which it fosters will after a time be able to dispense with it.”

(iii) The infant industry arguments is not against free trade policy. It favours free trade based on potential (or long run), and not present, comparative advantage.

A country might have potential comparative advantage in the development of certain industry, but, at present, it is not able to realise its true comparative advantage under free trade because other countries have already well-established that industry.

Such a country must give protection to this industry in the early stages so as to make it fully competitive under free trade in future.

(iv) The infant industry argument is based on the realistic conditions of unrealised internal and external economies of scale. Protection tends to equalise competitive conditions and make available to the new firm the unrealised internal and external economies.

It helps the firm to grow up to its optimum level (i.e., realisation of internal economies); it helps to reduce costs of all firms by creating a trained labour force or by spreading knowledge of production techniques (i.e., realisation af external economies).

(v) List advocates discriminating protection. Protection should be given only to those selected industries which are potentially capable of becoming economically viable units.

(vi) Infant industry argument can be developed into the generalised form of ‘infant country arguments’. Industrialisation requires the creation of necessary infrastructure, growth of sizable labour force with the requisite attitudes and skills, and increase in the quantity and quality of scarce resources. Protection helps the infant or newly developing country to industrialise itself.

(vii) Infant industry argument, and particularly the more general infant country argument, is frequently used to speed up the process of industrialisation in less developed countries through protection.

The infant industry argument has been criticised on the following grounds:

(i) It is difficult to determine which particular industry has the potential comparative advantage and deserves protection.

(ii) Once protection is given, vested interests are created and it becomes impossible to withdraw it.

(iii) Protection may lead to political corruption. All types of industries, whether economically justified or not, start claiming for protecting.

(iv) Under protection, an infant industry tends to remain infant. Protected industries generally become negligent and develop a tendency to depend more and more on government assistance.

(v) Protection weakens the efficiency of the firm and results in higher price and poor quality of the product.

Despite these defects, infant industry argument for protection has wide scope of application, particularly in the less developed countries. What is needed is to grant discriminating protection and ensure maximum efficiency in the protected industries.

300+ TOP Production Technology MCQs and Answers Quiz

Production Technology Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. Work study is concerned with
A. improving present method and finding standard time
B. motivation of workers
C. improving production capability
D. improving production planning and control
E. all of the above.
Answer: A

2. Basic tool in work study is
A. graph paper
B. process chart
C. planning chart
D. stop watch
E. analytical mind.
Answer: D

3. What does symbol ‘O’ imply in work study
A. operation
B. inspection
C. transport
D. delay/temporary storage
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

4. What does symbol ‘D’ imply in work study
A. inspection
B. transport
C. delay/temporary storage
D. permanent storage
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

5. What does symbol ‘V’ employ in work study
A. operation
B. inspection
C. delay/ temporary Storage
D. permanent storage
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

6. Material handling in automobile industry is done by
A. overhead crane
B. trolley
C. belt conveyor
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

7. String diagram is used when
A. team of workers is working at a place
B. material handling is to be done
C. idle time is to be reduced
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

8. Work study is most useful
A. where production activities are involved
B. in judging the rating of machines
C. in improving industrial relations
D. in judging the output of a man and improving it
E. where men are biggest contributor to success of a project.
Answer: A

9. Micromotion study is
A. enlarged view of motion study
B. analysis of one stage of motion study
C. minute and detailed motion study
D. subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
E. motion study of small components upto mirco-seconds.
Answer: D

10. In micromotion study, therblig is described by
A. a symbol
B. an event
C. an activity
D. micro motions
E. standard symbol and colour.
Answer: E

11. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus
A. policy allowance
B. interference allowance
C. process allowance
D. learning allowance
E. unforeseen allowance.
Answer: A

12. Micromotion study involves following number of fundamental hand motions
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 20
E. 24
Answer: C

13. The standard time for a job is
A. total work content
B. base time + relaxation time
C. total work content + basic time
D. total work content + delay contingency allowance
E. total work content + relaxation time.
Answer: D

14. Work study is done with the help of
A. process chart
B. material handling
C. stop watch
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

15. Scheduling gives information about
A. when work should start and how much work should be completed during a certain period
B. when work should complete
C. that how idle time can be minimized
D. proper utilisation of machines
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

16. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on
A. operator’s activity
B. flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble
C. minimising the delays
D. making efficient despatching
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

17. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to
A. determine overhead expenses
B. provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages
C. determine standard costs
D. determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines
E. compare alternative methods.
Answer: A

18. Job evaluation is the method-of determining the
A. relative worth of jobs
B. skills required by a worker
C. contribution of a worker
D. contribution of a job
E. effectiveness of various alternatives.
Answer: A

19. Micro motion study is
A. analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera with a timing device in the field of view
B. motion study* observed on enhanced time intervals
C. motion study of a sequence of operations conducted systematically
D. study of man and machine conducted simultaneously
E. scientific, analytically procedure for determining optimum work method.
Answer: A

20. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by
A. work sampling
B. time study
C. method study
D. work study
E. ABC analysis.
Answer: A

21. TMU in method time measurement stands for
A. time motion unit
B. time measurement unit
C. time movement unit
D. technique measurement unit
E. time method unit.
Answer: B

22. Time study is
A. the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving human effort
B. machine setting time
C. time taken by workers to do a job
D. method of fixing time for workers
E. method of determining the personnel Requirement.
Answer: A

23. Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of
A. detailed calculations
B. convenience
C. table of random numbers
D. past experience
E. fixed percentage of daily production.
Answer: C

24. One time measurement unit (TMU) in method time measurement system equals
A. 0.0001 minute
B. 0.0006 minute
C. 0.006 minute
D. 0.001 minute
E. 0.06 minute.
Answer: B

25. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of
A. second
B. minute
C. hour
D. day
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

26. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for
A. improving a work method
B. improvising a work method
C. designing a work method
D. providing a schematic framework
E. reducing inventory costs.
Answer: E

27. Gnat chart provides information about the
A. material handling
B. proper utilization of manpower
C. production schedule
D. efficient working of machine
E. all of the above.
Answer: C

28. ABC analysis deals with
A. analysis of process chart
B. flow of material
C. ordering schedule of job
D. controlling inventory costs money
E. all of the above.
Answer: D

29. Process layout is employed for
A. batch production
B. continuous type of product
C. effective utilisation of machines
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

30. For a product layout the material handling equipment must
A. have full flexibility
B. employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
C. be a general purpose type
D. be designed as special purpose for a particular application
E. arranging shops according to specialization of duties.
Answer: D

31. Travel charts provide
A. an idea of the flow of materials at various stages
B. a compact estimate of the handling which must be done between various work sections
C. the information for changes required in rearranging material handling equipment
D. an approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a particular station
(g) solution to handling techniques to achieve most optimum^ results.
Answer: B

32. Product layout is employed for
A. batch production
B. continuous production
C. effective utilization of machine
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

33. The most important objective behind plant layout is
A. overall simplification, safety of integration
B. economy in space
C. maximum travel time in plant
D. to provide conveniently located shops
E. to avoid any bottlenecks.
Answer: A

34. The process layout is best suited where
A. specialisation exists
B. machines are arranged according to sequence of operation
C. few number of non-standardised units are to be produced
D. mass production is envisaged
E. bought out items are more.
Answer: C

35. A low unit cost can be obtained by following
A. product layout
B. functional layout
C. automatic material handling equipment
D. specialisation of operation
E. minimum travel time plan and com¬pact layout.
Answer: A

36. Military organisation is known as
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

37. The main disadvantage of line organisation is
A. top level executives have to do excessive work
B. structure is rigid
C. communication delays occur
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

38. The main advantage of line organisation is its
A. effective command and control
B. defined responsibilities at all levels
C. rigid discipline in the organisation
D. ability of quick decision at all levels
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

39. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. effective organisation
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

40. The salient feature of functional organisation is
A. strict adherence to specification
B. separation of planning and design part
C. each individual maintains functional efficiency
D. work is properly planned and distributed
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

41. The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. effective organisation
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

42. Templates are used for
A. a planning layout
B. flow of material
C. advancing a programme in automatic machines
D. copying complicated profiles
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

43. In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is
A. conveyors
B. cranes and hoists
C. trucks
D. locos
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

44. Routing prescribes the
A. flow of material in the plant
B. proper utilization of man power
C. proper utilization of machines
D. inspection of final product
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

45. Queuing theory deals with problems of
A. material handling
B. reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme
C. better utilization of man services
D. effective use of machines
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

46. Standard time is defined as
A. normal time + allowances
B. normal time + idle time + allowances
C. normal time + idle time
D. only normal time for an operation
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

47. Father of industrial engineering is
A. Jeck Gilberth
B. Gnatt
C. Taylor
D. Newton
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

48. The grouping of activities into organisational units is called
A. corporate plans
B. higher level management
C. functional authority
D. departmentatidn
E. company policy.
Answer: D

49. Which of the following organisation is preferred in automobile industry
A. functional organisation
B. line organisation
C. staff organisation
D. line and staff organisations
E. scalar organisation.
Answer: D

50. Which of the following organisations is best suited for steel plants
A. functional organisation
B. line organisation
C. staff organisation
D. line, staff and functional organisations
E. scalar organisation.
Answer: D

51. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following method in the evaluation of the material issued from the store
A. inflated system
B. primary cost method
C. current value method
D. fixed price method
E. variable price method.
Answer: A

52. Which of the following is independent of sales forecast
A. productivity
B. inventory control
C. production planning
D. production control
E. capital budgeting.
Answer: A

53. Gnatt charts are used for
A. forecasting sales
B. production schedule
C. scheduling and routing
D. linear programming
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

54. Inventory management consists of
A. effective running of stores
B. state of merchandise methods of stroing and maintenance etc.
C. stock control system
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

55. Gnatt charts provide information about
A. break even point analysis
B. production schedule
C. material handling layout
D. determining selling price
E. value analysis.
Answer: B

56. Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at
A. achieving optimisation
B. ensuring against market fluctuations
C. acceptable customer service at low capital investment in inventory
D. discounts allowed in bulk purchase
E. regulate supply and demand.
Answer: C

57. In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the
A. optimum lot size
B. highest level of inventory
C. lot corresponding to break-even point
D. capability of a plant to produce
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

58. Statistical quality control techniques are based on the theory of
A. quality
B. statistics
C. probability
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

59. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is
A. management
B. labour court
C. high court/supreme court
D. board of directors
E. president.
Answer: C

60. Under the Apprenticeship Act
A. all industries have to necessarily train the apprentices
B. industries have to train apprentices ac-cording to their requirement
C. all industries employing more than 100 workers have to recruit apprentices
D. only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit apprentices
E. all industries other than small scale industries have to train apprentices.
Answer: D

61. Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to
A. all industries
B. all process industries and thermal power plants
C. only major industries
D. only key industries
E. all industries employing more than 100 workers.
Answer: E

62. Acceptance sampling is widely used in
A. batch production
B. job production
C. mass production
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

63. The technique of value analysis can be applied to
A. complicated items only
B. simple items only
C. crash programmer items only
D. cost consciousness items only
E. any item.
Answer: E

64. The term ‘value’ in value engineering refers to
A. total cost of the product
B. selling price of the product
C. utility of the product
D. manufactured cost of the product
E. depreciation value.
Answer: C

65. Value engineering aims at finding out the
A. depreciation value of a product
B. resale value of a product
C. major function of the item and accomplishing the same at least cost without change in quality
D. break even point when machine re-quires change
E. selling price of an item.
Answer: C

66. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches its
A. minimum value
B. maximum value
C. average value
D. alarming value
E. original value.
Answer: A

67. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new one when
A. CAM < DAM
B. CAM > DAM
C. CAM = DAM
D. there is no such criterion
E. none of the above.
(CAM = Challenger’s Adverse minimum DAM = Defender’s Adverse minimum)
Answer: A

68. Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of
A. a job
B. an individual employee
C. a particular division in workshop
D. machine
E. overall quality.
Answer: B

69. Material handling and plant location is analysed by
A. Gnatt chart
B. bin chart
C. Emerson chart
D. travel chart
E. activity chart.
Answer: D

70. Works cost implies
A. primary cost
B. factory cost
C. factory expenses
D. primary cost + factory expenses
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

71. Motion study involves analysis of
A. actions of operator
B. layout of work place
C. tooling and equipment
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

72. Standard time as compared to normal time is
A. greater
B. smaller
C. equal
D. there is no such correlation
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

73. Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work sampling
A. permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays
B. simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single observer
C. calculations are easier, method is economical and less time consuming
D. no time measuring devices are generally needed
E. as operators are not watched for long periods, chances of obtaining misleading results are less.
Answer: A

74. In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.
Answer: B

75. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.
Answer: B

76. Which of the following layouts is suited to job production
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.
Answer: A

77. The employees provident fund act is applicable to
A. all industries
B. all industries other than small and medium industries
C. volunteers
D. the industries notified by Government
E. all major industries.
Answer: D

78. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is
A. credited into reserves of company
B. deposited in nationalised bank
C. deposited in post office
D. deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India
E. deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
Answer: E

79. The deductions for, employees provident fund start
A. immediately on joining the service
B. after 60 days of joining the service
C. after 100 days of joining the service
D. after 240 days of joining the service
E. after one year of joining the service.
Answer: D

80. Father of time study was
A. F.W. Taylor
B. H.L. Gantt
C. F.B. Gilberfh
D. R.M. Barnes
E. H.B. Maynord.
Answer: A

81. Tick the odd man out
A. Taylor
B. Drucker
C. McGregor
D. Galileo
E. Parkinson.
Answer: D

82. Current assets include
A. manufacturing plant
B. manufacturing plant and equipment
C. inventories
D. common stock held by the firm
E. all of the above.
Answer: A

83. The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by
A. fast worker
B. average worker
C. slow worker
D. new entrant
E. any one of the above.
Answer: B

84. Job enrichment technique is applied to
A. reduce labour monotony
B. overcome boring and demotivating work
C. make people happy
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

85. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.
Answer: C

86. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are established
A. by time study
B. from previous production records
C. from one’s judgement
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

87. Routing is essential in the following type of industry
A. assembly industry
B. process industry
C. job order industry
D. mass production industry
E. steel industry.
Answer: A

88. An optimum project schedule implies
A. optimum utilization of men, machines and materials
B. lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project
C. timely execution of project
D. to produce best results under given constraints
E. realistic execution time, minimum cost and maximum profits.
Answer: B

89. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with
A. break-even analysis
B. value analysis
C. linear programming
D. queing theory
E. tnaterial handling.
Answer: C

90. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?
A. Scanlon Plan
B. Rowan Plan
C. Bedaux Plan
D. Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
E. Halsey Premium Plan.
Answer: A

PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY Objective Questions with Answers

91. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
A. past good workers
B. past poor workers
C. past average workers
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

92. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is
A. paid as per efficiency
B. ensured of minimum wages
C. not paid any bonus till his efficiency
D. never a loser
E. induced to do more work.
Answer: B

93. ‘Value’ for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as
A. purchase value
B. saleable value
C. depreciated value
D. present worth
E. function/cost.
Answer: E

94. Break-even analysis can be used for
A. short run analysis
B. long run analysis
C. average of above two run analysis
D. there is no such criterion
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

95. CPM has following time estimate
A. one time estimate
B. two time estimate
C. three time estimate
D. four time estimate
E. nil time estimate.
Answer: A

96. PERT has following time estimate
A. one time estimate
B. two time estimate
C. three time estimate
D. four time estimate
E. nil time estimate.
Answer: C

97. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an .employee receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on :
A. a standard rating system
B. a merit rating system
C. a job evaluation system
D. his individual performance
E. all of the above.
Answer: B

98. Which of the following incentive plansrensures a part of the swing to the worker and rest to the employer
A. Emerson efficiency plan
B. Taylor plan
C. Halsey premium plan
E. Gilberth plan.
Answer: C

99. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan
A. differential piece rate system
B. Rowan plan
C. Emerson plan
D. Taylor plan
E. Halsey plan.
Answer: D

100. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time saved by workers
A. Halsey plan
B. Rowan plan
C. Haynes plan
D. Emerson’s plan
E. Taylor’s plan.
Answer: C

101. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the worker for every hour he saves from the established time required. This type of incentive plan is known as
A. Rowan Plan
B. Bedaux Plan
C. Taylor Differential Piece rate system
D. Halsey Premium plan
E. Day work plan.
Answer: D

102. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that
A. a differential piece rate system should exist
B. minimum wages should be guaranteed
C. provide incentive to group efficiency performance
D. all standards should be based on optimum standards of production
E. all standards should be based on time studies.
Answer: E

103. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid till his efficiency reaches
A. 50%
B. 661%
C. 75%
D. 80%
E. 90%.
Answer: B

104. According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard time, then wages will be
A. HA
B. HA + (S~A) HA
C. HA + ^^-H
D. HA + ^^-H
E. HA + ^^-HA.
Answer: B

105. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his maximum daily earnings can be
A. 2 HA
B. 1.33 HA
C. 1.5 HA
D. 1.15 HA
E. 2.5 HA.
Answer: A

106. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to
A. those items which consume money
B. those items which are not readily available
C. those x items which are in more demand
D. those items which consume more money
E. proper quality assurance program-mes.
Answer: D

107. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?
A. Halsey Premium Plan
B. Bedaux Plan
C. Lincoln Plan
D. Rowan Plan
E. Taylor Plan.
Answer: C

108. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an optimum manner is known as
A. operation research
B. linear programming
C. network analysis
D. queuing theory
E. break-even analysis.
Answer: B

109. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results
A. relations between factors must be linear (positive)
B. relations between factors must be linear (negative)
C. A. or (b)
D. only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

110. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like
A. iron and steel
B. food processing
C. oil and chemical
D. banking
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

111. The simplex method is the basic method for
A. value analysis
B. operation research
C. linear programming
D. model analysis
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

112. The two-bin system is concerned with
A. ordering procedure
B. forecasting sales
C. production planning
D. despatching and expediting
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

113. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the worker based on the exact % of time saved. This type of incentive plan is known as
A. Dry work Plan
B. Halsey Premium Plan
C. Taylor Plan
D. Bedaux Plan
E. Rowan Plan.
Answer: E

114. Replacement studies are made on the fol-lowing basis:
A. annual cost method
B. rate of return method
C. total life average method
D. present worth method
E. any one of the above.
Answer: E

115. String diagram is used
A. for checking the relative values of various layouts
B. when a group of workers are working at a place
C. where processes require the operator to be moved from one place to another
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

116. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged on the cost of machine asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation every year remains constant
A. sinking fund method
B. straight line method
C. A-B-C charging method
D. annuity charging method
E. diminishing balance method.
Answer: D

117. Bin card is used in
A. administrative wing
B. workshop
C. foundry shop
D. stores
E. assembly shop.
Answer: D

118. Slack represents the difference between the
A. latest allowable time and the normal expected time
B. latest allowable time and the earliest expected time
C. proposed allowable time and the earliest expected time
D. normal allowable time and the latest expected time
E. project initiation tune and actual starting time.
Answer: B

119. PERT and CPM are
A. techniques to determine project status
B. decision making techniques
C. charts which increase aesthetic appearance of rooms
D. aids to determine cost implications of project
E. aids to the decision maker.
Answer: E

120. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case
A. activities and events are clearly shown
B. early start and late finish of an activity are clearly marked
C. activity times are clear
D. critical path can be easily determined
E. inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown.
Answer: E

121. CPM is the
A. time oriented technique
B. event oriented technique
C. activity oriented technique
D. target oriented technique
E. work oriented technique.
Answer: C

122. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include
A. MTM (method time measurement)
B. WFS (work factor systems)
C. BNTS (basic motion time study)
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Answer: D

123. Work study comprises following main techniques
A. method study and work measurement
B. method study and time study
C. time study and work measurement
D. method study and job evaluation
E. value analysis and work measurement.
Answer: A

124. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with others
A. organisation performance x motivation = profits
B. knowledge x skill = ability
C. ability x motivation = performance
D. attitude x situation = motivation
E. performance x resources
Answer: A

125. PERT is the
A. time oriented technique
B. event oriented technique
C. activity oriented technique
D. target oriented technique
E. work oriented technique.
Answer: B

126. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that
A. PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
B. critical path is determined in PERT only
C. costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT
D. guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM
E. PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.
Answer: D

127. PERT stands for k (fit) project evaluation and review technique
B. project examination and review technique
C. project evaluation and reporting technique
D. process execution and reporting technology
E. project execution and results technique.
Answer: A

128. Queuing theory is used for
A. inventory problems
B. traffic congestion studies
C. job-shop scheduling
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

129. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analysed mathematically if
A. complete details’of items in, waiting line are known
B. arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line model
C. all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation
D. the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the arriving units are taken into source are known
E. all of the above.
Answer: D

130. Queuing theory is associated with
A. sales
B. inspection time
C. waiting time
D. production time
E. inventory.
Answer: C

131. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should be that
A. the average service rate Hess than the average arrival rate
B. output rate is linearly proportional to input
C. output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

132. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing problems
A. that can’t be analysed mathematically
B. involving multistage queuing
C. to verify mathematical results
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

133. In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its
A. minimum value
B. maximum value
C. average value
D. middle value
E. alarming value.
Answer: A

134. A milestone chart
A. shows the inter dependences of various jobs
B. depicts the delay of jobs, if any
C. points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: E

135. Bar charts are suitable for
A. minor works
B. major works
C. large projects
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

136. The first method invented for planning projects was
A. bar chart method
B. milestone chart
C. critical path method (CPM)
D. programme evaluation and review technique (PERT)
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

137. Pick up the correct statement from the following
A. programmer evaluation and review technique is event oriented
B. programmer evaluation and review technique is not event oriented
C. critical path method is event oriented
D. critical.path method is not activity oriented
E. none of the above.
Answer: E

138. Pick up the correct statement from the following
A. critical path method is an improvement upon bar chart method
B. critical path method provides a realistic approach to the daily problems
C. critical path method avoids delays which are very common in bar chart
D. critical path method was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot and James E. Kelley of Remington U.S.A in 1957
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

139. Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a project by C.P.M.
A. a project is divided into various activities
B. required time for each activity is established
C. sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

140. The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by following time of the critical activity meeting at the finalitiode
A. early finish
B. early start
C. late start
D. late finish
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

141. The disadvantage of product layout is
A. high initial investment for the specialized facilities
B. skilled labour to operate machines
C. production time is longer, requiring more goods in inventory
D. high cost of inspection
E. costly and complex production control.
Answer: A

142. Emergency rush order can be pushed more effectively in
A. job production
B. automatic production
C. continuous production
D. intermittent production
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

143. Routing assists engineers in deciding in advance
A. the flow of material in the plant
B. the methods of proper utilization of manpower
C. the methods of proper utilization of machines
D. the layout of factory facilities
E. normal route of workers through the plant.
Answer: C

144. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as
A. dummy
B. event
C. activity
D. contract
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

145. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
A. an activity of the project is denoted by an arrow on the net work
B. the tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity
C. the head of the arrow indicates the end of,the activity!
D. the arrows are drawn (to scale from) left to right
E. each activity consumes a given time
Answer: D

146. The artificial activity; which indicates that an activity following it cannot be started unless, the preceding activity is complete, is known as
A. event
B. free float
C. artificial
D. constraint
E. dummy.
Answer: E

147. A dummy activity
A. is artificially introduced
B. is represented by a dotted line
C. does not require any time
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

148. If E is the duration, ES and EF are die earliest start and finish times, LS and LF are latest start and finish times, then the following relation holds good
A. EF=ES+D
B. LS=LF-D
C. LF = LS + D
D. D = EF-ES
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

149. The difference between the time available to do the job and the time required to do the job, is known as
A. event
B. float
C. duration
D. constraint
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

150. The probability distribution of activity times in PERT follows following distribution
A. normal
B. binomial
C. beta
D. exponential
E. Gaussian.
Answer: C

151. The probability distribution of project completion in PERT follows following distribution
A. normal
B. binomial
C. beta
D. exponential
E. Gaussian.
Answer: E

152. If TL is the largest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack (s) is equal to
A. latest start time – earliest start time
B. latest finish time – earliest finish time (EFT)
C. TL-EFT
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

153. The critical activity has
A. maximum float
(p) minimum float
C. zero float,
D. average float
E. none of these.
Answer: C

154. The time by which the activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of succeeding activities, is Known as
A. duration
B. total float
C. free float
D. interfering float
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

155. The critical path of a network represents
A. the minimum time required for completion of project
B. the maximum time required for completion of project
C. maximum cost required for completion of project
D. minimum cost required for completion of project
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

156. Pick up the correct statement from the following
A. the float may be positive, zero or negative
B. if the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its total float, the completion of project in not delayed
C. if the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is bound to delay the completion of project
D. if the float of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay the whole project
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

157. Critical path moves along the activities having total float of
A. positive value
B. negative value
C. zero value
D. same value
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

158. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer
A. to concentrate his attention on critical activities
B. to divert the resources from non-critical advanced activities to critical activities
C. to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to avoid delay of the whole project
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

159. Pick up the correct statement about relationship between various floats
A. free float = total float
B. independent float = total float
C. independent float > free float
D. free float > total float
E. independent float < free float.
Answer: E

160. The time which results in the least possible direct cost of an activity is known as
A. normal time
B. slow time
C. crash time
D. standard time
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

161. The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of any project is known as
A. event flow scheduling technique
B. critical ratio scheduling
C. slotting technique for scheduling
D. short interval scheduling
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

162. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. A critical ratio scheduling
A. establishes the relative priorities among various activities on a common basis
B. determines the status of each activity
C. adjusts automatically changes in activity progress
D. is a dynamic system
E. none of the above.
Answer: E

163. PERT is
A. an analytic tool in concept
B. limit up of event oriented diagrams
C. used for research and development projects
D. based on three time estimates for activities linking up two events
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

164. CPMis
A. synthesising in concepts
B. is built of activities oriented program-mes
C. is, based on one time eytimate
D. is used for repetitive works
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

165. A CPM family includes
A. CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
B. CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
C. MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure)
D. CPS (Critical Path Scheduling)
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

166. PERT/CPM, techniques can be used for following applications
A. once through project
B. maintenance jobs
C. research and development
D. all non-technical jobs
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

167. PERT analysis is based on
A. optimistic time
B. pessimistic time
C. most likely time
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

168. Descripancies of bar chart techniques are
A. consequential effects of lack in one activity on omer
B. consequential effects of lack in one activity on the finish date
C. free time available for an activity can’t be predicted
D. effective monitoring/controlling can’t be done
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

169. O on a PERT/CPM chart represents
A. an ordinary event
B. a significant event representing some mile-stone
C. an event to be transferred to other network chart
D. dangling event
E. dummy event.
Answer: A

170. Pick up the correct statement. Dummy activity on a PERT/CPM chart means, it
A. consumes time, but no resources
B. consumes resources but no time
C. consumes neither time nor resources
D. is a dangling event
E. consumes both resources and time.
Answer: C

171. Criticalpath on PERT/CPM chart is obtained by joining the events having
A. maximum slack
B. minimum slack
C. average slack
D. no slack
E. judgement and experience.
Answer: B

172. Slack of various events on the critical path in PERT/CPM chart
A. increases continuously
B. decreases continuously
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on various factors
E. unpredictable.
Answer: C

173. The assumption in PERT is
A. a project will always be behind schedule, if left uncorrected
B. cost of project will always be more than the estimated cost, if no timely corrections are taken
C. a project can be subdivided into a set of predictable, independent activities
D. activities are fixed and can’t be changed ,
E. commissioning time can be changed, if activities are behind schedule.
Answer: C

174. Activity s,lack or float of any event on a PERT/CPM chart is represented by
A. latest start time of succeeding event -earliest finish time of preceding event activity time
B. latest start time of the event – earliest start time of the event
C. latest finish time of event – earliest finish time of the event
D. anyone of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

175. The important file in making a PERT is
A. an event can’t be accomplished until activities leading to it are completed
B. no activity from any event can be started from preceding event till it is completed
C. length of arrow has nothing to do with time
D. every activity must be completed before end point is reached
E. all of the above.
Answer: E

176. An event is indicated on the network by
A. a straight line
B. a number enclosed in a circle or a square
C. a straight line with circles at the ends
D. a dotted line
E. an arrow.
Answer: B

177. In a PERT chart
A. all activities should be numbered
B. only important activities should be numbered
C. only critical activities are numbered
D. only selected activities are numbered
E. no activity is numbered.
Answer: A

178. Positive slack on a PERT indicates that project is
A. ahead of schedule
B. beyond schedule
C. as per schedule
D. on critical path
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

179. Pessimistic time is
A. the maximum time which an activity might require
B. the average time required for a job
C. the most probable time considering all conditions
D. the minimum time in which an activity can possibly be accomplished
E. the earliest finish.
Answer: A

180. In PERT analysis, critical path is obtained by joining events having
A. +ve slack
B. -ve slack
C. zero sldck
D. dummy activities
E. critical activities.
Answer: C

PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

[PDF Notes] What are the limitations of the employment generation argument?

Protection reduces imports, stimulates economic activity and increases employ­ment. This argument was very popular during 1930’s (i.e., the period of Great Depression).

Expansion of employment occurs through two effects, i.e., the multiplier effect and the acceleration effect;

(a) Imports form a leakage in the domestic income stream. When imports are reduced through protective measures and exports are maintained, foreign trade multiplier operates which leads to an increase in income and employment by a multiple of reduced import expenditures,

(b) There will be expansion of employment and income in other sectors. The overall increase in employment and income needs more capital. Hence investments in capital goods will rise which will further stimulate investment, income and employment through acceleration effect.

The employment generation argument has the following limitations:

(i) The employment expansion argument is based on the assumption that there exists excess capacity in the economy.

(ii) Protection can be an effective device for expanding employment only if exports can be maintained at the previous level and there is no reduction in exports through retaliation by other countries. But the assumption of no retaliation is highly unrealistic in practice.

(iii) Since imports pay for exports, therefore curtailment of imports through tariff will lead to an equal reduction in exports. Thus, additional employment created in the protected industries will be neutralised by the reduction in employment in export industries due to fall in exports.

(iv) If the demand for imports is highly inelastic, protection will not be able to reduce imports appreciably and thus will fail to have the desired employment expansion effect.

(v) Less developed countries face widespread disguised unemployment which cannot be removed through protection.