200+ TOP Pharmacodynamics MCQs with Answers Pdf Quiz

Pharmacodynamics Multiple Choice Questions

Pharmacodynamics Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students Pharmacodynamics Multiple choice Questions.

1. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:

a) Biological and therapeutic effects of d–gs

b) Absorption and distribution of d–gs

c) Mechanisms of d–g action

d) d–g interactions

2. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?

a) Mechanisms of d–g action

b) Biotransformation of d–gs in the organism

c) Distribution of d–gs in the organism

d) Excretion of d–g from the organism

3. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?

a) Information about main mechanisms of d–g absorption

b) Information about unwanted effects

c) Information about biological barriers

d) Information about excretion of a d–g from the organism

4. Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”

a) All types of ion channels modulated by a d–g

b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a d–g

c) Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a d–g molecule has to combine with in order to elicit its specific effect

d) Carriers activated by a d–g

5. What does “affinity” mean?

a) A measure of how tightly a d–g binds to plasma proteins

b) A measure of how tightly a d–g binds to a receptor

c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a d–g

d) A measure of bioavailability of a d–g

6. Target proteins which a d–g molecule binds are:

a) Only receptors

b) Only ion channels

c) Only carriers

d) All of the above

7. An agonist is a substance that:

a) Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect

b) Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects

c) Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect

d) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect

8. If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:

a) Partial agonist

b) Antagonist

c) Agonist-antagonist

d) Full agonist

9. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:

a) Partial agonist

b) Antagonist

c) Agonist-antagonist

d) Full agonist

10. An antagonist is a substance that:

a) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing maximal effect

b) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing submaximal effect

c) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect

d) Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions

11. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:

a) Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect

b) Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response

c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue

d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist

12. The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist is called:

a) Competitive antagonist

b) Irreversible antagonist

c) Agonist-antagonist

d) Partial agonist

13. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to:

a) Ionic bonds

b) Hydrogen bonds

c) Covalent bonds

d) All of the above

14. Mechanisms of transmembrane signaling are the following EXCEPT:

a) Transmembrane receptors that bind and stimulate a protein tyrosine kinase

b) Gene replacement by the introduction of a therapeutic gene to correct a genetic effect

c) Ligand-gated ion channels that can be induced to open or close by binding a ligand

d) Transmembrane receptor protein that stimulates a GTP-binding signal transducer protein (G-protein) which in turn generates an intracellular second messenger

15. Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor:

a) Adenylyl cyclase

b) Sodium ions

c) Phospholipase C

d) cAMP

16. Tick the substance which changes the activity of an effector element but doesn’t belong to second messengers:

a) cAMP

b) cGMP

c) G–protein

d) Calcium ions

17. The increase of second messengers’ (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc.) concentration leads to:

a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation

b) Proteinkinases activation and protein phosphorylation

c) Blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector

d) Antagonism with endogenous ligands

18. Tick the substances whose mechanisms are based on interaction with ion channels

a) Sodium channel blockers

b) Calcium channel blockers

c) Potassium channels activators

d) All of the above

19. All of the following statements about efficacy and potency are true EXCEPT:

a) Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency

b) Efficacy is the maximum effect of a d–g

c) Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two d–gs that are needed to produce the same effect

d) The ED5 is a measure of d–g’s efficacy

20. Give the definition for a therapeutical dose:

a) The amount of a substance to produce the minimal biological effect

b) The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism

c) The amount of a substance to produce the required effect in most patients

d) The amount of a substance to accelerate an increase of concentration of medicine in an organism

21. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:

a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect

b) The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism

c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients

d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an organism

22. Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a d–g is taken continuously or repeatedly?

a) Refractoriness

b) Cumulative effect

c) Tolerance

d) Tachyphylaxis

23. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a d–g, taking days or weeks to develop?

a) Refractoriness

b) Cumulative effect

c) Tolerance

d) Tachyphylaxis

24. What term is used to describe a decrease in responsiveness to a d–g which develops in a few minutes?

a) Refractoriness

b) Cumulative effect

c) Tolerance

d) Tachyphylaxis

25. Tachyphylaxis is:

a) A d–g interaction between two similar types of d–gs

b) Very rapidly developing tolerance

c) A decrease in responsiveness to a d–g, taking days or weeks to develop

d) None of the above

26. d–g resistance is a term used to describe the loss of effectiveness of antimicrobial or antitumour d–gs. This consideration is:

a) True

b) False

27. Tolerance and d–g resistance can be a consequence of:

a) d–g dependence

b) Increased metabolic degradation

c) Depressed renal d–g excretion

d) Activation of a d–g after hepatic first-pass

28. Tolerance and d–g resistance can be a consequence of:

a) Change in receptors, loss of them or exhaustion of mediators

b) Increased receptor sensitivity

c) Decreased metabolic degradation

d) Decreased renal tubular secretion

29. Tolerance develops because of:

a) Diminished absorption

b) Rapid excretion of a d–g

c) Both of the above

d) None of the above

30. Dependence is often associated with tolerance to a d–g, a physical abstinence syndrome, and psychological dependence (craving). This consideration is:

a) True

b) False

31. The situation when failure to continue administering the d–g results in serious psychological and somatic disturbances is called?

a) Tachyphylaxis

b) Sensibilization

c) Abstinence syndrome

d) Idiosyncrasy

32. What is the type of d–g-to-d–g interaction which is connected with processes of absorption, biotransformation, distribution and excretion?

a) Pharmacodynamic interaction

b) Physical and chemical interaction

c) Pharmaceutical interaction

d) Pharmacokinetic interaction

33. What is the type of d–g-to-d–g interaction which is the result of interaction at receptor, cell, enzyme or organ level?

a) Pharmacodynamic interaction

b) Physical and chemical interaction

c) Pharmaceutical interaction

d) Pharmacokinetic interaction

34. What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of d–gs?

a) Tolerance

b) Tachyphylaxis

c) Accumulation

d) Synergism

35. If two d–gs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of the d–gs given individually, it is called as:

a) Antagonism

b) Potentiation

c) Additive effect

d) None of the above

36. What does the term “potentiation” mean?

a) Cumulative ability of a d–g

b) Hypersensitivity to a d–g

c) Fast tolerance developing

d) Intensive increase of d–g effects due to their combination

37. The types of antagonism are:

a) Summarized

b) Potentiated

c) Additive

d) Competitive

38. The term “chemical antagonism” means that:

a) two d–gs combine with one another to form an inactive compound

b) two d–gs combine with one another to form a more active compound

c) two d–gs combine with one another to form a more water soluble compound

d) two d–gs combine with one another to form a more fat soluble compound

39. A teratogenic action is:

a) Toxic action on the liver

b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation

c) Toxic action on blood system

d) Toxic action on kidneys

40. Characteristic unwanted reaction which isn’t related to a dose or to a pharmacodynamic property of a d–g is called:

a) Idiosyncrasy

b) Hypersensitivity

c) Tolerance

d) Teratogenic action

41. Idiosyncratic reaction of a d–g is:

a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction

b) A type of d–g antagonism

c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a d–g

d) Quantitatively exaggerated response

42. Therapeutic index (TI) is:

a) A ratio used to evaluate the safety and usefulness of a d–g for indication

b) A ratio used to evaluate the effectiveness of a d–g

c) A ratio used to evaluate the bioavailability of a d–g

d) A ratio used to evaluate the elimination of a d–g