Performance Management Multiple Choice Questions
1. ______ signifies a system of shared meaning held by the members that distinguish one organization from another organization
A. organizational change
B. organizational development
C. organizational culture
D. group dynamics
Answer: C. organizational culture
2. An organization emphasized that its employees should dress formally but did n not consider it to be absolutely essential for the firm. What are such norms termed as?
A. relevant norms
B. irrelevant norms
C. flexible norms
D. functional norms
Answer: C. flexible norms
3. Vijay was employed in the production department of a firm manufacturing textiles. He was well behaved and agreed to the norms of the organization. Vijay who accepts all theorganizational norms is a
A. assertive
B. conformist
C. rebel
D. perfectionist
Answer: B. conformist
4. Of the four approaches adopted by international operations, which approach tries to create value by emphasizing on local responsiveness
A. the multi domestic
B. the international
C. the global
D. the translational
Answer: A. the multi domestic
5. _________ council studies absenteeism at the workplace and recommends steps to reduce it at the lowest level of worker participation
A. shop council
B. plant council
C. unit council
D. joint council
Answer: C. unit council
6. The ______ council usually deals with matters pertaining to the operational, economic and financial, personnel, welfare and environment areas at a level above the shop/department level
A. shop council
B. plant council
C. unit council
D. joint council
Answer: B. plant council
7. Appraisal of an employee by supervisor, self, peers, subordinates and customers is termed as
A. team appraisal
B. balanced scorecard method
C. 360 degree appraisal
D. critical incident method
Answer: C. 360 degree appraisal
8. Rajan believes that all those from Xavier’s are arrogant and complacent. This is reflected inhis performance appraisal of Preethi, who is from Xaviers. This is an example of
A. halo effect
B. perceptual effect
C. stereotyping
D. stringency effect
Answer: C. stereotyping
9. If the appraiser allows a single characteristic of the appraisee to dominate his judgement of the employee performance, it is termed as
A. halo effect
B. stereotyping
C. perceptual set
D. primacy effect
Answer: A. halo effect
10. Hitesh is a good salesman and works for an IT company. But, his performance in 2001-02 was affected because of the slump in the IT market. However, his boss fails to acknowledge it and rates his performance as poor. This is an example of
A. stereotyping
B. primacy effect
C. fundamental attribution error
D. halo effect
Answer: C. fundamental attribution error
11. Veena always awards high ratings to all her subordinates irrespective of their performance levels. She is affected by
A. leniency effect
B. primacy effect
C. recency effect
D. tringency effect
Answer: A. leniency effect
12. One of the main reasons for the negative attitude of employees towards performanceappraisal is
A. it is associated with pay
B. it gives away how bad they are
C. it tends to become subjective because of poor implementation
D. it is not useful for any other organizational activity
Answer: C. it tends to become subjective because of poor implementation
13. Supratim has been promoted to the post of an Area Sales Manager just last week, but findshimself lacking in some areas. His performance can be improved by
A. reprimanding him
B. training him
C. linking his pay to performance
D. providing him with an assistant
Answer: B. training him
14. The performance appraisal method that channelises employee efforts with organizationalgoals is
A. bars
B. 360 degree appraisal
C. balanced scorecard
D. management by objectives
Answer: D. management by objectives
15. Psychology oriented factor of production is
A. land
B. finance
C. machine
D. labour
Answer: D. labour
16. A statement containing the details of works to be performed & responsibilities involved isknown as.
A. job analysis
B. job evaluation
C. job specification
D. job description
Answer: A. job analysis
17. Recruiting is ____________.
A. selecting people
B. offering job
C. appointing people
D. discovering of potential
Answer: B. offering job
18. A performance appraisal is a process of evaluating employees.
A. behaviour at job
B. contribution towards job
C. character
D. quantity of work done
Answer: B. contribution towards job
19. Man to Man comparison is one of the methods of
A. selection
B. grading
C. performance appraisal
D. merit rating
Answer: C. performance appraisal
20. ____________ is a strategy for acquisition, utilization, improvement & presentation of anorganizational human resources.
A. man power planning
B. personal administration
C. personal management
D. personal policy
Answer: A. man power planning
21. Job satisfaction is high when there is
A. low morale
B. high wage
C. low wage
D. high morale
Answer: D. high morale
22. Direct compensation towards the contribution of labour is
A. money
B. pay
C. reward
D. wages
Answer: A. money
23. Job analysis is a systematic exploration of the activities surrounding a job. It define thejobs.
A. responsibilities &duties
B. accountability & duties
C. responsibilities & accountability
D. responsibilities, accountability, duties.
Answer: D. responsibilities, accountability, duties.
24. On-the-job management development techniques include.
A. job rotation
B. sensitivity training
C. coaching
D. transactional analysis
Answer: C. coaching
25. ______ is a process of matching the qualification of applicants with the web requirements.
A. recruitment
B. promotion.
C. selection
D. training
Answer: A. recruitment
26. _______ is the ideal or target to achieve through higher productivity.
A. fair wages
B. minimum wages
C. livingwages
D. normal wages
Answer: A. fair wages
27. According to Tuckman and Jensen, the stage where the group resolves its conflict is called.
A. forming
B. norming
C. performing
D. adjourning
Answer: B. norming
28. . ____________is the tendency of highly cohesive groups to value consensus at the price ofdecision quality.
A. group thinks
B. group process
C. group norms
D. group development
Answer: A. group thinks
29. ________ are the rules of pattern and behaviour that are expected from all team members.
A. norms
B. policies
C. procedures
D. role
Answer: A. norms
30. Which of the following are not the features of team empowerment?
A. potency
B. autonomy
C. impact
D. role ambiguity
Answer: D. role ambiguity
31. The ability and willingness of group members to set goals and work towards theiraccomplishment is known as _______.
A. group maturity
B. team spirit
C. mbo
D. participation
Answer: A. group maturity
32. Recruitment and selection must be effective to ensure it.
A. offsets high labour turnover
B. delivers the highest caliber of individuals at optimum most
C. to have a surprise in case of sickness and absence
D. encourages new blood into the organization
Answer: B. delivers the highest caliber of individuals at optimum most
33. Too great a reliance on internal recruitment can result in.
A. reduced job performance
B. higher labour turnover
C. internal conflict
D. poor group dynamics
Answer: A. reduced job performance
34. Why can altruism as an approach to discipline be regarded as an essential element?
A. it is an essential requirement for survival
B. to maintain good employee relations
C. to demonstrate who’s boss
D. to re-establish a welfare approach to hr
Answer: B. to maintain good employee relations
35. What will make some organizations more successful and there more likely to survive andprosper then others?
A. creating cultures and system in which staff can use their talents
B. creating management system to ensure high performance from everyone
C. creating superior organizations
D. only recruiting talented people
Answer: B. creating management system to ensure high performance from everyone
36. A performance rating system is
A. a grade or score relating to overall performance
B. details of the extent to which work objectives were met
C. last year objectives
D. achievements during the year
Answer: A. a grade or score relating to overall performance
37. 360% feedback involves appraisals by.
A. line managers
B. subordinates
C. superiors.
D. superiors.
Answer: D. superiors.
38. The role in which a manager led his subordinates and motivating them for willingcooperation is called as.
A. monitoring role
B. disseminator role
C. entrepreneur role
D. leader role
Answer: D. leader role
39. Manager serves as a connecting link between his organization and outsiders is called as.
A. spokes person role
B. liaison role
C. disseminator role.
D. entrepreneur role
Answer: B. liaison role
40. Manager represents his organization or unit while interacting with outsiders is called as.
A. disseminator role
B. spokes person
C. resource allocator
D. entrepreneur role
Answer: B. spokes person
41. ‘psyche’ means.
A. physical
B. mind
C. behaviour
D. attitude
Answer: B. mind
42. “Soma” means
A. body
B. mind
C. behaviour
D. attitute
Answer: A. body
43. Which is the scientific method in accumulating knowledge about man’s social behavior
A. anthropology
B. social work
C. sociology
D. psychology
Answer: C. sociology
44. A person should get orders and instruction from only one superior is called as
A. power
B. unity of direction
C. unity of command
D. scalar chain
Answer: C. unity of command
45. Division of work to take the advantage of.
A. discipline
B. specialization
C. aptitude
D. productivity
Answer: B. specialization
46. Esprit de corps denotes
A. team work
B. union is strength
C. unity of command
D. communication
Answer: B. union is strength
47. Communication going up through each position in the line of authority
A. order
B. equity
C. scalar chain
D. formal communication
Answer: C. scalar chain
48. Organization which have objective of making profit are called.
A. economic organization
B. political organization
C. integrated organization
D. pattern or maintenance organization.
Answer: A. economic organization
49. Under which of the following organization industrial, commercial and trading concern areincluded.
A. political organization
B. integrated organization
C. economic organization
D. maintenance organization
Answer: C. economic organization
50. Balance theory was developed by.
A. osgood and tannenbaum
B. heider
C. rosenber
D. festinger
Answer: B. heider
51. A non-specific response of the body to a situation is known as ________.
A. stress
B. fatigue.
C. disease
D. heart attack
Answer: A. stress
52. Question at ________ stage of team building, cooperation and a sense of sharedresponsibility is developed amongst the team members.
A. storming
B. performing
C. forming
D. norming
Answer: D. norming
53. Discharge may or may not be punishment but dismissal certainly means.
A. promotion
B. punishment
C. transfer
D. demotion
Answer: B. punishment
54. A human relation seeks to emphasis ‘ employee’ aspects of work rather than
A. technical aspects
B. economic aspects
C. technical or economic aspects
D. workers aspects
Answer: C. technical or economic aspects
55. A person’s ability to perform a specific job means.
A. interest test.
B. proficiency test
C. psycho-motor or skill test
D. aptitude test
Answer: B. proficiency test
56. A person’s capacity to learn a particular type of mechanical work means.
A. mechanical aptitude test
B. intelligence test
C. personality test
D. interest test
Answer: D. interest test
57. When the organization gives option to its employees to retire even before superannuation itis called.
A. forced retirement
B. compulsory retirements
C. voluntary retirement
D. premature retirement
Answer: A. forced retirement
58. Voluntary retirement is also known as
A. silver hand shake
B. golden hand shake
C. diamond hand shake
D. crystal hand shake
Answer: C. diamond hand shake
59. All managers at various levels in the organization perform is called.
A. personnel management
B. specialized branch of management
C. human resource development
D. human resource management
Answer: B. specialized branch of management
60. Employees provident fund Act in.
A. 1950
B. 1952
C. 1960
D. 1962
Answer: C. 1960
61. Which test is conducted to know the skills & abilities possessed by the candidate?
A. vocational test
B. interest test.
C. dexterity test
D. proficiency test
Answer: A. vocational test
62. Which test is conducted to develop the skills & abilities of the candidate?
A. aptitude test
B. intelligence test
C. trade test
D. personality test
Answer: C. trade test
63. Which test is conducted to measure the method ability capacity & general awareness?
A. intelligence test
B. aptitude test
C. trade test
D. temperament test
Answer: A. intelligence test
64. Which test is conducted to measure the likes, dislikes & habits?
A. vocational test
B. temperament test
C. skills test
D. interest test
Answer: C. skills test
65. What deals with the contents & characteristics of each job?
A. job analysis
B. job rating
C. job evaluation
D. job description
Answer: A. job analysis
66. What helps for the exchange of ideas, facts, opinions or emotions between two or morepersons?
A. communication
B. written communication
C. upward communication
D. downward communication
Answer: A. communication
67. Employees general attitude is referred to as.
A. job satisfaction
B. job analysis
C. job description
D. job evaluation
Answer: A. job satisfaction
68. What creates advancement with an organization?
A. demotion
B. promotion
C. transfer
D. redemote
Answer: B. promotion
69. Man specification is called.
A. job description
B. job specification
C. job evaluation
D. job analysis
Answer: B. job specification
70. Co-operation is the key of all successes through.
A. principle of effective communication
B. principle of team spirit
C. principle of pair reward
D. principle of high morale
Answer: B. principle of team spirit
71. Sources of recruitment & methods, procedures, techniques for.
A. selection
B. promotion
C. transfer
D. training
Answer: A. selection
72. Principle of participation in management to make them realize the responsibilities of the.
A. organization
B. management
C. supervisor
D. worker
Answer: A. organization
73. Industrial revolution played an important role in the development of.
A. industries
B. production
C. sales
D. finished goods
Answer: A. industries
74. Businessmen could get an opportunity to earn huge profits as the cost of.
A. employer
B. employee
C. employee & employer
D. superior
Answer: B. employee
75. Education brought the changes in the attitude of labour towards their.
A. work.
B. interest
C. labour
D. job
Answer: A. work.
76. Population problem also had impact to the problem of.
A. personnel management
B. human resource management
C. personal management
D. industrial management
Answer: A. personnel management
77. The problem of active utilization of men arises most in the countries havinga vastpopulation like.
A. india & pakistan.
B. china &india
C. japan & india.
D. china & asia
Answer: B. china &india
78. Problems of unemployment & wage fixation had their direct link with the
A. population
B. value of labour
C. attitude of management
D. co-ordination
Answer: A. population
79. Federation of all India labour welfare officers in.
A. delhi
B. calcutta
C. bangalore
D. mangalore
Answer: A. delhi
80. The main objective of the personnel policy should be.
A. maximum use of human resources
B. maximum individual development
C. good industrial relations
D. individual satisfaction
Answer: C. good industrial relations
81. Good employer –employee relations are the backbone of all
A. personal activities
B. human activities
C. personnel activities
D. personnel policies.
Answer: C. personnel activities
82. This should cover responsibility for the maintenance of children duringthe entire period ofcontingency.
A. medical benefit
B. family benefit
C. old age benefit
D. survivors benefit
Answer: B. family benefit
83. ———– refers to the full range of activities involved in securing& utilizing employeesincluding hiring, promoting, compensating, disciplining,& retiring workers.
A. new public management
B. personnel management
C. civil service
D. bureaucracy
Answer: B. personnel management
84. The modern term for “personnel management” is
A. hrd
B. hrp
C. hrm
D. hsm.
Answer: C. hrm
85. The usual way of depicting a formal organizational by means of an.
A. organizational plan
B. organizational chart
C. organizational policy
D. organizational manual
Answer: B. organizational chart
86. The downward movement of employee in organizational hierarchy with lower pay statusresponsibilities means.
A. demotion
B. job change
C. promotion
D. transfer
Answer: A. demotion
87. To improve the wages& workingconditions of workers in one the aims of
A. factories act
B. trade unions
C. workers participation management
D. collective bargaining
Answer: B. trade unions
88. Identify the personnel management functions from the following.
A. advertisement
B. quality control
C. capital budgeting
D. compensation
Answer: D. compensation
89. Job—– is a statement of the minimum acceptable human qualities necessary to perform ajob satisfactorily.
A. evaluation
B. specification
C. description
D. analysis
Answer: B. specification
90. ——- test measure whether or not an individual has the capacity to learn a job.
A. knowledge
B. attitude
C. aptitude
D. proficiency
Answer: B. attitude
91. Performance appraisal refers to—– of an employee.
A. training
B. placement
C. assessment
D. induction
Answer: C. assessment
92. A—— takes place when an employee moves to a position higher than the one formerlyoccupied.
A. demotion
B. punishment
C. transfer.
D. promotion
Answer: D. promotion
93. Identify the retirement benefit form the following
A. wages
B. bonus
C. incentive
D. gratuity
Answer: D. gratuity
94. —–is defined as performing functions &producing desired results at the least possible costto tax payers.
A. effectiveness
B. productivity
C. efficiency
D. equity
Answer: B. productivity
95. ——- is defined as a system in which selection& promotion depend on demonstratedperformance.
A. administrative system
B. patronage system
C. bureaucratic system
D. merit system
Answer: D. merit system
96. A group which is established by it members is called _________.
A. social group
B. reference group
C. performing group
D. informal group
Answer: D. informal group
97. The stage at which emerging of leader and standards and roles are formed.
A. norming stage
B. forming stage
C. storming stage
D. performing stage
Answer: C. storming stage
98. The way of action which are accepted as legitimate by group members is called
A. values
B. norms
C. conformity
D. decision
Answer: B. norms
99. The degree of attachment of the members to their group is known as
A. group cohesiveness
B. group conformity
C. group attachment
D. group loyalty
Answer: A. group cohesiveness
100. A group of persons in an organization for making or recommending certain decisions istermed as.
A. committee
B. formal group
C. task group
D. performing group
Answer: A. committee
101. The process of giving employees the authority, skills and freedom to perform their task isknown as.
A. delegation of authority
B. empowerment
C. socialization
D. decentralization of power
Answer: B. empowerment
102. Organizational commitment is
A. employee’s involvement in the organization
B. employee’s involvement in the job
C. employee’s performance in the organization
D. employee’s continuity in the job
Answer: A. employee’s involvement in the organization
103. The anxiety a person experiences when two sets of knowledge are contradictory orincongruent lead to.
A. cognitive dissonance
B. negative attitude
C. stress
D. perception disorder
Answer: A. cognitive dissonance
104. Which of the following denotes the predisposition to respond in a positive or negativeway to someone to something in one’s environment?
A. attitude
B. stress
C. belief
D. personality
Answer: A. attitude
105. Control over expertise or more precisely, over information is called
A. authority
B. legitimate power
C. expert power
D. expert power
Answer: D. expert power
106. Power that has been legitimized within a specific special context.
A. power
B. authority
C. delegation
D. decentralization
Answer: A. power
107. A person’s motivation to gain power and control the behaviour of others.
A. authority
B. focus of control
C. machiavellianism
D. power
Answer: C. machiavellianism
108. Which theory hold the authority inherent in a managerial position is achieved bydelegation from the higher position?
A. classical theory
B. acceptance theory
C. competence authority
D. operant theory.
Answer: A. classical theory
109. A mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved cohesive in group, when the members’ strivings for unanimity override their motivation to realisticallyappraise alternative courses of action.
A. group think
B. group process
C. group shift
D. group loafing
Answer: B. group process
110. Group established by the organisation to do its work and usually identifiable on anorganisation chart.
A. task group
B. primary group
C. formal group
D. informal group
Answer: C. formal group
111. A technique for stimulating imaginative and novel ideas.
A. nominal group techniques
B. delphi technique
C. brain storming
D. dialectic decision method
Answer: C. brain storming
112. Dialectic decision method
A. organisational stressors
B. individual stressor
C. group stressor
D. role stressor
Answer: A. organisational stressors
113. The overall feeling of exhaustion a persons feels when simultaneously experiencing toomuch pressure is called.
A. job dissatisfaction
B. burnout.
C. absenteeism
D. role conflict
Answer: B. burnout.
114. The physical or psychological demands from the environments that cause stress areknown as.
A. burnout
B. emotional intelligent
C. negative attitude
D. stressors
Answer: D. stressors
115. When the role of a person occupies goes against his self concept, then this would happen.
A. roles space
B. role overload
C. role set
D. self role distance
Answer: D. self role distance
116. When the role occupant feels that there are too many expectations from the significantrole in his role set, then it is felt like this.
A. role conflict
B. role under load
C. role overload
D. role mapping
Answer: C. role overload
117. A situation that occurs when it is unclear or uncertain what behaviour is expected of roleoccupants.
A. role conflict
B. role ambiguity
C. role analysis
D. role overload
Answer: B. role ambiguity
118. The clusters of task and behaviours that others expect a person to perform while doing ajob is known as.
A. role
B. position
C. norms
D. organizational culture
Answer: A. role
119. When expectations about a person’s role in the group contradict one another, it becomes.
A. down ward conflict
B. up ward conflict
C. role conflict
D. role ambiguity
Answer: C. role conflict
120. The system of various roles that a person takes and performs is called as.
A. role space
B. role mapping
C. role set
D. role analysis
Answer: A. role space
121. The person holding a performing the focal role is known as.
A. focal roller
B. role occupant
C. role setter
D. leader
Answer: B. role occupant
122. Behaviour expected from the focal role occupant by other members of the role set.
A. norms
B. values
C. conformity
D. position
Answer: A. norms
123. The study of human behaviour in organisational setting, the interface between humanbehaviour and the organisational context.
A. scientific management
B. organisational behavior
C. hawthorn studies.
D. behavioural studies
Answer: B. organisational behavior
124. Under which role, three general categories of managerial including the monitor, thedisseminator, and spokes person roles comes.
A. decision making role
B. information role
C. interpersonal role
D. controlling role
Answer: B. information role
125. Failure to report work is called
A. lack of commitment
B. absenteeism
C. burnout
D. immoral activity
Answer: B. absenteeism
126. The process by which older members of a society transmit to younger members the socialskilled is termed as.
A. literature
B. norms
C. values
D. socialization
Answer: D. socialization
127. Dispute between employees at different levels in an organization is known as.
A. horizontal conflict
B. over all conflict
C. vertical conflict
D. organizational conflict
Answer: C. vertical conflict
128. A group created by management to accomplish certain organizational goal is called as.
A. performance group
B. task group
C. prime group
D. internal group
Answer: B. task group
129. A planned, systematic process of organizational change based on behavioural scienceresearch and theory.
A. organizational development
B. organizational change
C. organizational re-engineering
D. organizational empowerment
Answer: A. organizational development
130. Set of value that help people in an organisation understand which actions are consideredacceptable and which are considered unacceptable is known as.
A. organizational norms
B. organisational culture
C. organizational ethics
D. organization moral
Answer: B. organisational culture
131. Organization Moral
A. belief
B. norms
C. tradition
D. values
Answer: D. values
132. A set of guiding principles of behavior concerned with right and wrong which helpinteractions with others.
A. beliefs
B. values
C. ethics
D. tradition
Answer: B. values
133. .__________ is a formal & detailed study of jobs.
A. job enrichment
B. job evaluation
C. job classification
D. job analysis
Answer: B. job evaluation
134. .__________ is a very flexible type of organization.
A. staff organization
B. divisional organization
C. line organization
D. matrix organization
Answer: B. divisional organization
135. Rotation is otherwise called as ____________.
A. replacement transfer
B. shift transfer
C. versatility transfer
D. remedial transfer
Answer: C. versatility transfer
136. _______________ is the permanent termination of an employee’s services for economicreasons in a going concern.
A. resignation
B. dismissal
C. retirement
D. retrenchment
Answer: B. dismissal
137. Personnel policy insists _________.
A. higher wage
B. wage equal to contribution
C. lesser wage
D. wage with bonus
Answer: B. wage equal to contribution
138. Job satisfaction is high when there is.
A. low morale
B. high wage
C. low wage
D. high morale
Answer: D. high morale
139. On-the –job management development techniques include
A. job rotation
B. sensitivity training
C. coaching
D. transactional analysis
Answer: C. coaching
140. Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee’s performance for thepurposes of a performance appraisal?
A. peers.
B. customers.
C. top management.
D. immediate supervisor.
Answer: D. immediate supervisor.
141. Which of the following term is used for choosing the individual who is best suited to aparticular position and to the organization from a group of potential applicants
A. recruitment.
B. staffing
C. enrollment
D. selection.
Answer: D. selection.
142. Organizations put maximum effort in measuring performance of organizational peoplebecause;
A. it makes procedures cost effective
B. it helps in detecting the problems
C. it leads to product innovation.
D. it assists in implementing new technology.
Answer: A. it makes procedures cost effective
143. Willingness, capacity & opportunity to perform are said to be;
A. performance outcomes.
B. determinants of performance
C. performance appraisals
D. types of performance standards
Answer: B. determinants of performance
144. The _____ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinatesconsistently high.
A. central tendency
B. leniency
C. strictness.
D. halo effect.
Answer: D. halo effect.
145. What is another term for 360-degree feedback?
A. feedback loop.
B. multi-source assessment
C. upward feedback
D. circle feedback.
Answer: D. circle feedback.
146. Train the raters prior to conduct the performance appraisal is an important responsibilityof;
A. top management
B. hr department
C. line managers.
D. production department.
Answer: A. top management
147. The evaluator uses a list of behavioral descriptions and checks off those behaviors thatapply to the employee. This method of appraisal is called
A. forced-choice appraisal.
B. forced distribution appraisal
C. checklist appraisal.
D. behaviorally anchored rating scales.
Answer: D. behaviorally anchored rating scales.
148. A mandatory prerequisite for team building is:
A. funding for staff development activities
B. shared work ethics among team members.
C. commitment from top level management.
D. removal of troublesome individuals.
Answer: C. commitment from top level management.
149. Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large,complex project
A. a strong matrix organization
B. a project coordinator
C. a project expeditor
D. direct executive involvement
Answer: A. a strong matrix organization
150. A key barrier to team development is
A. a strong matrix management structure
B. when major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets
C. when team members are accountable to both functional and project managers
D. when formal training plans cannot be implemented.
Answer: C. when team members are accountable to both functional and project managers
151. The open or loosely structured project organization does not rely on well-defined standards and procedures for guiding the work efforts. Therefore, this organization should beused for __________.
A. innovative or creative work with high-level professionals
B. routine work and with a new staff.
C. production operations and with the construction industry
D. . planning operations and with the functional staff.
Answer: A. innovative or creative work with high-level professionals
152. The level of the reporting superior for the project manager is viewed as critical because it also implies the amount of interest and emphasis that the corporation places on the project. From a practical standpoint, when a project manager reports to a senior officer of thecompany, the project manager then has access to an individual with the __________ to resolve inter-project conflicts.
A. ability and resources
B. power and authority.
C. will and desire
D. seniority and maturity
Answer: B. power and authority.
153. There is a long-term need to develop individuals within a company to assume positions of leadership and greater responsibility. Comparing the functional and project organization, theopportunity for personnel development __________.
A. is greater in the project organization
B. is greater in the functional organization
C. cannot be determined between the two organizations.
D. is greater in the project organization during the planning phase only.
Answer: A. is greater in the project organization
154. Group Effectiveness has 2 dimensions: ________________ and QWL
A. performance
B. feedback.
C. group process.
D. team building
Answer: D. team building
155. The degree of responsibility independence and opportunity for exercising initiative formember of organization is
A. liberty.
B. independence.
C. autonomy.
D. freedom.
Answer: C. autonomy.
156. Fundamentally rethink the way the work gets done is the application of
A. re engineering
B. matrix organization
C. downsizing.
D. neutral organization.
Answer: D. neutral organization.
157. Managerial Philosophy, strategy and structure is called
A. stability of environment and technology
B. congruence.
C. unionization.
D. tech savvy.
Answer: A. stability of environment and technology
158. What is CHRM
A. committed hrm
B. cultural hrm
C. critical hrm
D. convenient hrm
Answer: A. committed hrm
159. __________is the backbone of the process of identifying, studying, and implementingbest practices
A. benchmarking
B. forecasting
C. innovating
D. reinventig
Answer: A. benchmarking
160. _________ refers to training workers to be able to undertake a wide range of differentjobs, instead of just one.
A. multi skilling
B. parenting
C. copying
D. adopting
Answer: A. multi skilling
161. ________________ is a technique of multi skilling
A. job analysis
B. job rotation
C. job evaluation
D. job satisfaction
Answer: B. job rotation
162. _____________ is a strategic decision to give a task or activity to an independentcontractor who determines how best to do the task or activity
A. outsourcing
B. renting
C. gathering
D. performing
Answer: A. outsourcing
163. Believes, attitudes, traditions and expectations which are shared by group members iscalled
A. group norms
B. group communication
C. group cohesiveness
D. group structure
Answer: A. group norms
164. —————is the ability of influencing people to strive willingly for mutual objectives
A. motivation
B. control
C. leadership
D. supervision
Answer: C. leadership
Unit 1
165. People are known to be more productive when they:
A. Are knowledgeable of their results through feedback as to how they are performing.
B. Have clear, attainable objectives (also called goals) to achieve.
C. Are involved in setting of tasks and objectives.
D. (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: D. (a), (b) and (c)
166. It is necessary to review the goals of the organization to:
A. Create a linkage between units of performance and the preferred organizational goals.
B. Maximize profits of the organization
C. Align the individual and organizational goals
D. Create distinctiveness.
Answer: A. Create a linkage between units of performance and the preferred organizational goals.
167. Performance agreement aims at helping
A. The organization to work effectively.
B. Decide the matters of compensation
C. The staff to develop, put in place at least one more chance to meet the expectation of the staff members.
D. Identify the training needs
Answer: C. The staff to develop, put in place at least one more chance to meet the expectation of the staff members.
168. An effective performance management helps in
A. Evaluation of a job
B. Evaluation of competitiveness in market
C. Evaluate the decision taking capacity of managers
D. Evaluate the decision taking capacity of the subordinates
Answer: A. Evaluation of a job
169. Performance management is a continuous process because:
A. It involves the human resource of the organization
B. It involves the work environment of the organization.
C. It involves planning, sharing, measuring, interacting, motivating and development of employees as well as organization
D. It involves the strategies of the organization
Answer: C. It involves planning, sharing, measuring, interacting, motivating and development of employees as well as organization
170. Which one of these is function of performance appraisal system?
A. Training and development
B. Compensation strategies
C. Promotion
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
171. Effectiveness of an appraisal system depends upon:
A. The degree of clarity of roles
B. The structure, design and method of appraisal system
C. The level of organizational commitment
D. The degree of honesty in the answers of the appraisal system
Answer: B. The structure, design and method of appraisal system
172. What did the Hawthorne experiments discover?
A. That people need to belong to a ‘social group’
B. That people need heat and good lighting to work well
C. Money is a motivator
D. It makes no difference how you treat people at work in relation to their behavior.
Answer: A. That people need to belong to a ‘social group’
173. A distinction can be made between ‘hard’ and ‘soft’ types of HRM. Soft HRM can be characterized by:
A. Seeing people as organizational assets
B. A quantitative approach to HRM
C. A mutual commitment of employees and employers to the goals of the organization
D. Being driven by costs
Answer: C. A mutual commitment of employees and employers to the goals of the organization
174. The resource based view of the firm is one that believes the key human resources are:
A. Those employees not members of trade unions
B. Knowledge workers
C. Used to create new capabilities that help achieve organisational success
D. Those willing to work overtime
Answer: C. Used to create new capabilities that help achieve organisational success
Unit 2
175. Performance management is an interlinked process because:
A. It interlinks the organization with the globalized market
B. It interlinks with other key processes such as business strategy, employee development, total quality management and other business processes.
C. It interlinks the individual goals with the organizational goals.
D. It interlinks the management and subordinates
Answer: B. It interlinks with other key processes such as business strategy, employee development, total quality management and other business processes.
176. Do HR activities have an effect on employee and managerial behavior?
A. Yes, but these effects can be negative as well as positive
B. HR has limited impact on either employee behaviour or managerial
C. HR impacts on employee behaviour but not on managerial
D. No, it is managerial behaviour which impacts on HR
Answer: A. Yes, but these effects can be negative as well as positive
177. The view that employees are critical to organizational success is now generally accepted. Does this mean that?
A. All employees have the same value or potential for the organisation
B. It reflects the unprecedented success of HR practitioners to deliver
C. Good management of people will prevail
D. Managing the human resource has become even more important because it is the one resource most difficult to replicate
Answer: D. Managing the human resource has become even more important because it is the one resource most difficult to replicate
178. The most common activities performed by HR, which are often outsourced, are:
A. Recruitment an selection
B. Occupational health, payroll, pensions and training
C. Human resource planning
D. Assessment centres
Answer: B. Occupational health, payroll, pensions and training
179. Performance management should be seen as a process which is a:
A. Once a year task
B. Twice a year activity
C. Ongoing process or cycle
D. Is engaged in when the appraisals are carried out
Answer: C. Ongoing process or cycle
180. What will make some organizations more successful, and therefore more likely to surviveand prosper, than others?
A. Creating cultures and systems in which staff can use their talents
B. Creating management systems to ensure high performance from everyone
C. Creating superior organisations
D. Only recruiting talented people
Answer: B. Creating management systems to ensure high performance from everyone
181. The aim of performance management is to:
A. Consolidate goal setting.
B. Ensure employee’s performance is supporting the company’s strategic aims.
C. Ensure employee has the tools needed to perform the job.
D. Evaluate employee’s performance against standards.
Answer: D. Evaluate employee’s performance against standards.
182. The increasing use of performance management reflects:
A. Every employee’s efforts must focus on helping the company achieve its strategic goals.
B. The popularity of TQM concepts.
C. Traditional performance appraisals are often counter-productive.
D. All the above.
Answer: A. Every employee’s efforts must focus on helping the company achieve its strategic goals.
183. Reasons for appraising a subordinate’s performance include:
A. Appraisals play a part in the employer’s salary raise decisions.
B. The supervisor and the employee together develop a plan for correcting the employee’s deficiencies.
C. Appraisals play an integral role in performance management.
D. All the above.
Answer: D. All the above.
184. Supervisors can ensure that employees are satisfied with their performance appraisals by ensuring that employees:
A. Have the opportunity to present their ideas and feelings.
B. Have a helpful and constructive supervisor conduct the interview.
C. Do not feel threatened during the interview.
D. All the above.
Answer: D. All the above.
185. Steps that supervisors should follow in the performance appraisal process include all thefollowing except:
A. Provide feedback.
B. Appraise performance.
C. Prepare detailed forms and procedures to be us
Answer: D.
186. Which of the following statements about performance management systems is not true?
A. They encourage a short-term view among managers.
B. Recommendations are prescriptive and suggest one best way.
C. They cause stress for employees.
D. They improve organizational performance in the long-term.
Answer: A. They encourage a short-term view among managers.
187. The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his orher performance standards is called _____.
A. recruitment
B. employee selection
C. performance appraisal
D. organizational development
Answer: C. performance appraisal
188. When goal setting, performance appraisal, and development are consolidated into a single, common system designed to ensure that employee performance supports a company’s strategy, it is called _____.
A. strategic organizational development
B. performance management
C. performance appraisal
D. human resource management
Answer: B. performance management
189. Performance management combines performance appraisal with _____ to ensure that employee performance is supportive of corporate goals.
A. goal setting
B. training
C. incentive systems
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
190. Managers following a performance management approach to appraisals will usually meet with employees on a _____ basis.
A. weekly
B. monthly
C. bi-annual
D. yearly
Answer: A. weekly
191. Managers following a traditional performance appraisal system will typically meet with employees on a _____ basis.
A. daily
B. weekly
C. monthly
D. yearly
Answer: D. yearly
192. When using goal setting in performance management, the goals should be _____.
A. difficult
B. challenging
C. specific
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
193. The philosophy of performance is about:
A. Task of an employee
B. Behavior of the employee
C. Actual outcome or results
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
194. Performance management combines performance appraisal with _____ to ensure thatemployee performance is supportive of corporate goals.
A. goal setting
B. training
C. incentive systems
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
195. The aim of performance management is to:
A. Ensure employee’s performance is supporting the company’s strategic aims.
B. Ensure employee has the tools needed to perform the job.
C. Consolidate goal setting.
D. Evaluate employee’s performance against standards.
Answer: D. Evaluate employee’s performance against standards.
196. The increasing use of performance management reflects:
A. Every employee’s efforts must focus on helping the company achieve its strategic goals.
B. The popularity of TQM concepts
C. Traditional performance appraisals are often counter-productive.
D. All the above.
Answer: D. All the above.
197. The aim of performance management is to
A. evaluate and reward the employee’s efforts
B. giving employees the opportunity to regularly discuss performance with their supervisors
C. providing the supervisor with a means of identifying the strengths and weaknesses of an employee’s performance.
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
Unit 2
198. The component of an effective performance management process that communicates the organization’s higher level goals throughout the organization and then translates these goals into departmental goals is called _____.
A. role clarification
B. goal alignment
C. developmental goal setting
D. direction sharing
Answer: D. direction sharing
199. The component of an effective performance management process that explains each employee’s role in terms of his or her day-to-day work is called _____.
A. role clarification
B. goal alignment
C. developmental goal setting
D. direction sharing
Answer: A. role clarification
200. Performance management should be a process which is a:
A. Once a year task
B. Twice a year activity
C. Ongoing process or cycle
D. Is engaged in when the appraisals are carried out
Answer: C. Ongoing process or cycle
201. The performance management includes
A. daily and weekly interactions
B. meeting semiannually
C. yearly meetings
D. never meeting with subordinates
Answer: A. daily and weekly interactions
202. In performance management, the main feature of performance management is to
A. increase salary
B. planning incentives
C. comparing performance with goals
D. comparing sales figures from last year
Answer: C. comparing performance with goals
203. Company’s HR team is responsible for
A. training of supervisors
B. monitor appraisal system affectivity
C. training employees
D. All of above
Answer: D. All of above
204. Reason that why employers are moving to performance management is
A. total quality
B. appraisal issues
C. strategic planning
D. All of above
Answer: D. All of above
205. Which of these is the main purpose of employee assessment?
A. Making correct decisions
B. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
C. Establish job expectations
D. None of the above
Answer: B. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
206. How performance appraisal can contribute to a firm’s competitive advantage?
A. Ensures legal compliances
B. Minimizing job dissatisfaction and turnover
C. Improves performance
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
207. From the strategic point of view, in which three categories can an organization be grouped?
A. Defenders
B. Prospectors
C. Analyzers
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
208. Successful defenders use performance appraisal for identifying ____________.
A. Staffing needs
B. Job behavior
C. Training needs
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Training needs
209. Analyzers tend to emphasize both ______ and _______ and employee extensive trainingprogrammes.
A. Skill building and skill acquisition
B. Current performance and past performance
C. Strategy and behavior
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Skill building and skill acquisition
210. What do successful analyzers tend to examine?
A. Division and corporate performance evaluation
B. Current performance with past performance
C. Ideal appraisal process
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Current performance with past performance
211. ______ is an objective assessment of an individual’s performance against well-defined benchmarks.
A. Performance Appraisal
B. HR Planning
C. Information for goal identification
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Performance Appraisal
212. What is linked with performance appraisal?
A. Job Design
B. Development
C. Job analysis
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Job analysis
213. Method of keeping and reviewing, record of employees’ undesirable behavior at different time intervals is
A. critical incident method
B. forced distribution method
C. alternation ranking method
D. paired comparison method
Answer: A. critical incident method
214. An interview, in which supervisor and subordinate review appraisal, is called
A. structured interview
B. unstructured interview
C. appraisal interview
D. hiring interview
Answer: C. appraisal interview
215. When ratings are collected from supervisors, customers and peers, it is called
A. 350-degree feedback
B. 320-degree feedback
C. 360-degree feedback
D. 380-degree feedback
Answer: C. 360-degree feedback
216. Which of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an employee’s Current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards?
A. Recruitment
B. Employee selection
C. Performance appraisal
D. Employee orientation
Answer: C. Performance appraisal
217. In most organizations, which of the following is primarily responsible for appraising an employee’s performance?
A. employee’s direct supervisor
B. company appraiser
C. human resources manager
D. EEO representative
Answer: A. employee’s direct supervisor
218. All the following are reasons for appraising an employee’s performance EXCEPT _______
A. assisting with career planning
B. correcting any work-related deficiencies
C. creating an organizational strategy map
D. determining appropriate salary and bonuses
Answer: C. creating an organizational strategy map
219. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended guidelines for setting effective employee goals?
A. assigning specific goals
B. assigning measurable goals
C. assigning challenging but doable goals
D. administering consequences for failure to meet goals
Answer: D. administering consequences for failure to meet goals
220. The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a Performance eappraisal is to motivate employees to _
A. apply for managerial positions
B. remove any performance deficiencies
C. revise their performance standards
D. enroll in work-related training programs
Answer: B. remove any performance deficiencies
221. Aligning and evaluating the employee’s performance with company’s set goals is called
A. appraisal management
B. performance management
C. hierarchy of management
D. off-the-job training
Answer: B. performance management
222. The first step in ‘appraising process’ is
A. defining the job
B. training session
C. feedback session
D. interview sessions
Answer: A. defining the job
223. ______ is the personnel activity by means of which the enterprise determines the extent to which the employee is performing the job effectively.
A. Job evaluation
B. Work evaluation
C. Performance evaluation
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Performance evaluation
Unit 2
224. First step in appraising process is
A. defining job
B. training session
C. feedback session
D. interview sessions
Answer: A. defining job
225. SMART goals are best described as _
A. specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely
B. straight forward, meaningful, accessible, real, and tested
C. strategic, moderate, achievable, relevant, and timely
D. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and tested
Answer: A. specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely
226. The technique that have been used to evaluate an employee in comparison with other employees
A. Ranking
B. Forced choice
C. Essay evaluation
D. Critical incident technique
Answer: A. Ranking
227. Performance management should be seen as a process which is a:
A. Once a year task
B. Twice a year task
C. Ongoing process or cycle
D. Is engaged in when the appraisals are carried out
Answer: C. Ongoing process or cycle
228. A performance rating system is:
A. A grade or score relating to overall performance
B. Details of extent to which work objectives were met
C. Last years objectives
D. Achievements during the year
Answer: A. A grade or score relating to overall performance
229. To be effective a points based rating systems require:
A. Close management control
B. Comprehensive, reliable and consistent information
C. Objectivity in assessments
D. 360% assessments
Answer: B. Comprehensive, reliable and consistent information
230. Key performance indicators are used in situations when:
A. When objectives cannot easily be expressed in terms of numbers
B. When targets might be expressed in terms of delivery of a project
C. When objectives can be established which are supportive or secondary to the organizations central objectives.
D. Objectives that can be quantified using financial values.
Answer: C. When objectives can be established which are supportive or secondary to the organizations central objectives.
Unit 4
231. Many schemes that reward employees and managers for something additional to their normal level of performance fail. Why?
A. The link between extra pay and achievement is unclear
B. They are detrimental to trade union agreements
C. PRP is controversial
D. Everyone should receive the same
Answer: A. The link between extra pay and achievement is unclear
Unit 2
232. Which of the following is not a type of performance appraisal?
A. 45 degree appraisal.
B. Customer appraisals.
C. Appraisal of managers.
D. Team based appraisal
Answer: A. 45 degree appraisal.
233. Why might an organization use multiple systems of appraisal? Select all that apply.
A. To prevent the misuse of performance appraisal systems by line managers.
B. Different systems for different part of the organization.
C. Different systems for different organizational groups.
D. To provide employees with a choice of methods.
Answer: B. Different systems for different part of the organization.
234. Which of the following is not a reason why performance appraisal is used by organizations?
A. To allocate financial rewards.
B. To clarify and define performance expectations.
C. To determine promotion.
D. Because it is a legal requirement.
Answer: D. Because it is a legal requirement.
235. What is the meaning of upward appraisal?
A. Line managers rate the performance of employees.
B. Employees rate the performance of their manager.
C. Senior managers rate the performance of line managers.
D. Employees rate the performance of their peers.
Answer: B. Employees rate the performance of their manager.
236. What is meant by 360 degree appraisal?
A. A system where the line manager rates subordinates simultaneously.
B. A system where feedback is obtained from peers subordinates and supervisors.
C. A system where a senior manager rates all line managers simultaneously.
D. A system where every employee rates another employee chosen at random.
Answer: B. A system where feedback is obtained from peers subordinates and supervisors.
237. Which of the following statements about 360 degree appraisal is not true?
A. 360 degree appraisal may be linked to pay awards.
B. 360 degree appraisal is normally conducted anonymously.
C. 360 degree appraisal has origins in the 1970s US army.
D. The data generated is normally highly accurate, valid and meaningful.
Answer: D. The data generated is normally highly accurate, valid and meaningful.
238. What is the purpose of a ‘mystery shopper’?
A. A person who pretends to be a manager to test the service process.
B. A person pretends to be a real customer to test the service encountered.
C. A person who pretends to be an employee to test service process.
D. A person who works for a competitor and pretends to be a customer to test the service encountered.
Answer: B. A person pretends to be a real customer to test the service encountered.
239. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Some performance appraisal systems have become bureaucratic.
B. The introduction of performance appraisal in the public sector has been controversial.
C. Deming believed performance appraisal was central to quality management.
D. Some line managers do not take the appraisal processes seriously.
Answer: C. Deming believed performance appraisal was central to quality management.
240. Employees with …….. need for achievement desire challenging jobs over which they have control
A. Low
B. Medium
C. High
D. No
Answer: C. High
241. Which statement about job satisfaction is most correct
A. It causes performance
B. It can affect turnover
C. It cannot be measured
D. It does not affect absenteeism
Answer: C. It cannot be measured
242. Job analysis is a process of gathering information about the
A. Job holder
B. Job
C. Management
D. Organization
Answer: C. Management
243. The final process of a job analysis is the preparation of two statements, namely,
A. Job observation and job description
B. Job specification and job observation
C. Job description and job specification
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Job specification and job observation
244. The process of grouping of similar types of works together is known as
A. Job classification
B. Job design
C. Job evaluation
D. Job description
Answer: A. Job classification
245. The system of ranking jobs in a firm on the basis of the relevant characteristics, duties, and responsibilities is known as
A. Job evaluation
B. Job design
C. Job specification
D. Job description
Answer: A. Job evaluation
246. The written statement of the findings of job analysis is called
A. Job design
B. Job classification
C. Job description
D. Job evaluation
Answer: A. Job design
more mcqs
247. Designing a job according to the worker’s physical strength and ability is known as
A. Ergonomics
B. Task assortment
C. Job autonomy
D. None of the above
Answer: D. None of the above
248. Which of the following is not a component of job design?
A. Job enrichment
B. Job rotation
C. Job reengineering
D. Job outsourcing
Answer: A. Job enrichment
249. Moving employees from one job to another in a predetermined way is call
A. Job rotation
B. Job reengineering
C. Work mapping
D. Job enrichment
Answer: A. Job rotation
250. Stress that result in negative energy and decreases performance and health.
A. Distress
B. Worries
C. Burnout
D. Eustress
Answer: B. Worries
251. A non stress prone person who is relaxed, agreeable and easy going.
A. Type A personality
B. Type B personality
C. Pessimist
D. Stressors
Answer: A. Type A personality
252. Sources of stress
A. Stressors
B. Worries
C. Strain
D. Distress
Answer: D. Distress
253. Which of the following are guidelines for drafting and maintaining a good job description?
A. Indicating the scope and nature of the work and all important relationships
B. Indicating the work and duties of the position
C. Explaining the supervisory responsibility to the individuals
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
254. One of the main reasons for the negative attitude of employees towards performance appraisal is
A. It is associated with pay
B. It gives away how bad they are
C. It tends to become subjective because of poor implementation
D. It is not useful for any other organizational activity
Answer: C. It tends to become subjective because of poor implementation
255. Supratim has been promoted to the post of an Area Sales Manager just last week, but finds himself lacking in some areas. His performance can be improved by
A. Reprimanding him
B. Training him
C. Linking his pay to performance
D. Providing him with an assistant
Answer: B. Training him
256. If a performance appraisal focuses on an employee’s ability to “identify and analyze problems” or to “maintain harmonious and effective working relationships,” then the performance appraisal is focused on measuring _____.
A. generic dimensions of performance
B. performance of actual duties
C. employee competency
D. achievement of objectives
Answer: C. employee competency
257. If a performance appraisal focuses on an employee’s quality and quantity of wok, then the performance appraisal is focused on measuring _____.
A. generic dimensions of performance
B. performance of actual duties
C. employee competency
D. achievement of objectives
Answer: A. generic dimensions of performance
258. Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee’s performance for the purposes of a performance appraisal?
A. peers
B. customers
C. rating committees
D. immediate supervisor
Answer: D. immediate supervisor
259. The M in the acronym for SMART goals stands for _____.
A. moderate
B. measurable
C. meaningful
D. mid-range
Answer: B. measurable
260. The A in the acronym for SMART goals stands for _____.
A. actionable
B. appropriate
C. attainable
D. attitude
Answer: C. attainable
261. Which of the following is not one of the guidelines for effective goal setting?
A. assign specific goals
B. assign challenging but doable goals
C. assign consequences for performance
D. encourage participation
Answer: D. encourage participation
262. Participatively set goals result in higher performance than assigned goals when _____.
A. participatively set goals are more difficult
B. assigned goals are more difficult
C. the rewards are also higher
D. participatively set goals are used consistently
Answer: A. participatively set goals are more difficult
263. When using goal setting in performance management, the goals should be _____.
A. easy
B. challenging
C. specific
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
264. Goals should be ____________, but not so difficult that they appear impossible orunrealistic.
A. easy
B. challenging
C. specific
D. All the above
Answer: B. challenging
265. Which of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards?
A. Recruitment
B. Employee selection
C. Performance appraisal
D. Employee orientation
Answer: C. Performance appraisal
266. All the following are reasons for appraising an employee’s performance EXCEPT _
A. assisting with career planning
B. correcting any work-related deficiencies
C. creating an organizational strategy map
D. determining appropriate salary and bonuses
Answer: C. creating an organizational strategy map
267. Which theory concerns the use of objectives to manage performance?
A. Probability theory
B. Goal theory
C. Results theory
D. Outcomes theory
Answer: B. Goal theory
268. Organizing draws heavily on the supervisor’s:
A. Conceptual skills.
B. Good human relations skills.
C. Technical skills.
D. Decision-making skills.
Answer: A. Conceptual skills.
269. For a supervisor, conceptual skills would include:
A. Recognizing how the work of various employees affects the performance of the department as a whole.
B. The specialized knowledge and expertise used to carry out particular techniques or procedures.
C. The ability to communicate with, motivate, and understand people.
D. The ability to analyze information and reach good decisions.
Answer: A. Recognizing how the work of various employees affects the performance of the department as a whole.
270. Planning of Performance requires:
A. Translating the job description into objectives and measures
B. Assessing your culture
C. Setting aligned KPA’s and Objectives
D. All of the above
Answer: C. Setting aligned KPA’s and Objectives
271. Performance Management is:
A. The activity where a line manager sets objectives for his/her staff
B. To develop punitive steps to address poor performance
C. To ensure all stakeholder requirements will be met
D. To comply with the requirements of HR
Answer: C. To ensure all stakeholder requirements will be met
272. Maintaining performance includes:
A. Checking up staff to ensure they perform optimally
B. Provide coaching and training where gaps exist
C. Formal feedback and Disciplining poor performance
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Formal feedback and Disciplining poor performance
more mcqs
273. A person who looks at the positive aspects of every situation.
A. Optimist
B. Pessimist
C. Type A personality
D. Type B personality
Answer: A. Optimist
274. A mentally or emotionally disquieting response to a difficult condition or situation.
A. Stress
B. Worries
C. Burnout
D. Eustress
Answer: A. Stress
275. What do performance appraisals measure?
A. generic dimensions of performance
B. performance of actual duties
C. employee competency
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
276. Which of the following is most likely NOT a role played by the HR department in the performance appraisal process?
A. conducting appraisals of employees
B. monitoring the effectiveness of the appraisal system
C. providing performance appraisal training to supervisors
D. ensuring the appraisal system’s compliance with EEO laws
Answer: A. conducting appraisals of employees
277. What is the first step in the appraisal process?
A. giving feedback
B. defining the job
C. administering the appraisal tool
D. making plans to provide training
Answer: B. defining the job
278. When designing an actual appraisal method, the two basic considerations are
A. who should measure and when to measure
B. when to measure and what to measure
C. what to measure and who should measure
D. what to measure and how to measure
Answer: D. what to measure and how to measure
279. All of the following are usually measured by a graphic rating scale EXCEPT_,
A. generic dimensions of performance
B. performance of ‘actual duties
C. performance of co-workers
D. achievement of Objectives
Answer: C. performance of co-workers
280. Which of the following is the easiest and most popular technique for appraising employeeperformance?
A. alternation ranking
B. graphic rating scale
C. Likert
D. MBO
Answer: B. graphic rating scale
281. Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance values foreach trait?
A. behaviourally anchored rating scale
B. graphic rating scale
C. forced distribution
D. critical incident
Answer: B. graphic rating scale
282. Which performance appraisal tool requires supervisors to categorize employees from best to worst on various traits?
A. digital dashboard
B. critical incident method
C. graphic rating scale
D. alternation ranking method
Answer: D. alternation ranking method
283. Which performance appraisal tool is being used when a supervisor places predetermined percentages of rates into various performance categories?
A. behaviorally anchored rating scale
B. graphic ranking scale
C. alternation ranking
D. forced distribution
Answer: D. forced distribution
284. Kendra needs to rate five of her subordinates. She makes a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being evaluated. Then, she indicates the better employee of each pair with a positive symbol on the chart. Finally, she totals the number of positive symbols for each employee. Which method of performance appraisal has Kendra most likely used?
A. comparison ranking scale
B. graphic ranking scale
C. alternation ranking
D. paired comparison
Answer: D. paired comparison
285. The process that enables manager to make comparison between employee’s and his department goals is
A. direction sharing
B. goal alignment
C. rewards and recognition
D. coaching and development support
Answer: B. goal alignment
286. An integral part of feedback process is
A. direction sharing
B. goal alignment
C. ongoing performance monitoring
D. coaching and development support
Answer: D. coaching and development support
287. In 360-degree feedback, the ratings are collected from
A. supervisors
B. subordinates
C. peers
D. all of above
Answer: D. all of above
288. When the action plan is prepared for correcting performance deficiencies is
A. satisfactory-promotable interview
B. satisfactory-not promotable interview
C. unsatisfactory-correctable interview
D. unsatisfactory-uncorrectable interview
Answer: C. unsatisfactory-correctable interview
289. The quality and timeliness of work is classified as
A. “what you are measuring”
B. “how you are measuring
C. “what are the set standards”
D. “the rules of performance appraisals”
Answer: A. “what you are measuring”
290. The employers generally use feedback to
A. employee development
B. avoid central tendency and biases
C. rank someone
D. hire the employee
Answer: A. employee development
291. The building blocks of performance management are
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 6
Answer: D. 6
292. The disadvantage of graphic rating scale is
A. halo effect
B. bias
C. central tendency
D. all of above
Answer: C. central tendency
more mcqs
293. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a graphic rating scale is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use?
A. The firm wants Suzanne to evaluate her subordinates on an ongoing basis and to keep a log of critical incidents.
B. Employees in Suzanne’s department who are categorized in the bottom 10% of the firm’s employees will be immediately dismissed.
C. Suzanne wants to ensure that the firm is protected from employee discrimination lawsuits, so she has conducted a job analysis of each position.
D. Suzanne wants a quantitative rating of each employee based on competencies important to the firm, such as problem-solving skills.
Answer: D. Suzanne wants a quantitative rating of each employee based on competencies important to the firm, such as problem-solving skills.
294. One of the following is future oriented appraisal technique.
A. MBO
B. Rating scale
C. Checklist
D. BARS
Answer: A. MBO
295. Which of the following is not a major personnel selection method?
A. Focus groups
B. Biodata
C. Graphology
D. References
Answer: A. Focus groups
Unit 3
296. The basis of performance standards is:
A. Managers
B. HR plans
C. Employee
D. Job analysis
Answer: C. Employee
297. As little as 20% of all human performance problems is attributable to individual employees; as much as 80% of all such problems is attributable to the work environments or systems in which employees work. An example of such problems would be:
A. Because people are often absent from work
B. Because people at work don’t perform
C. Because low standards of performance are legitimised
D. Because of barriers created to reduce performance
Answer: D. Because of barriers created to reduce performance
298. Performance plans to be successful and sustainable the plan must
A. Provide for independent employee voice and participation
B. The decision to initiate a new plan
C. Its design
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
299. Key performance indicators are used in situations when:
A. When objectives can not easily be expressed in terms of numbers
B. When targets might be expressed in terms of delivery of a project
C. When objectives can be established which are supportive or secondary to the organisations central objectives
D. Objectives that can be quantified using financial values
Answer: C. When objectives can be established which are supportive or secondary to the organisations central objectives
300. Work-sample tests:
A. Normally make use of many different complementary predictors
B. Do not necessarily have any obvious link with the job in question
C. Often use in-tray or in-basket exercises for selecting shop floor workers
D. Require candidates to conduct a sample of the work required for the job
Answer: D. Require candidates to conduct a sample of the work required for the job
301. Which of the following is not a major evaluative standard for personnel selection procedures?
A. Administrative convenience/practicality
B. Discrimination
C. Applicant reactions
D. Faith validity
Answer: D. Faith validity
302. The statistical technique of meta-analysis:
A. Estimates the amount of sampling error in one study to derive a more accurate estimate of the validity coefficient
B. Changes the magnitude of the validity coefficient by removing the effect of the sampling error
C. Changes the estimated variance in observed coefficients and hence widens the confidence interval around the mean coefficient
D. Cumulates the results from many separate studies to obtain a more stable indication of the effect under investigation
Answer: D. Cumulates the results from many separate studies to obtain a more stable indication of the effect under investigation
303. Selection interviews are likely to be subjective, unreliable and vulnerable to bias if:
A. The interviewers have been trained in interviewing candidates
B. The interviewers use their empathy and intuition to evaluate each interviewee
C. The questions are used consistently across interviewers and interviewees
D. The interviewer questions are based on a job analysis
Answer: B. The interviewers use their empathy and intuition to evaluate each interviewee
304. In general, it has been shown that the single best predictor of job performance across different jobs and organizational settings is which of the following?
A. Personality tests
B. Work-sample tests
C. Cognitive ability tests
D. Handwriting analysis
Answer: C. Cognitive ability tests
305. Which of the following situations does not necessarily lead to bias and unfairness to certain groups in selection?
A. An employer applies a requirement for applicants which a larger proportion of one ethnic group finds considerable harder to comply with
B. A psychometric test produces different test scores for different subgroups of candidates
C. Subgroup differences in test scores are used to select characteristics that are not directly related to job performance
D. A validity study is based on only one subgroup but then used to select members of another
Answer: B. A psychometric test produces different test scores for different subgroups of candidates
306. Reward management in the modern era involves:
A. Just dealing with issues of pay
B. A total reward approach
C. Dealing solely with trade unions
D. Dealing solely with legal issues
Answer: B. A total reward approach
307. How organizations should be rewarding their employees is based:
A. On best practice
B. Is arbitrary
C. Is based on understanding behavioral theories
D. Is based on Herzberg theory
Answer: B. Is arbitrary
308. Herzberg (2003) and Kohn (1993a) have consistently taken the view that rewards such as performance related pay fail to deliver because:
A. They are viewed as ‘hygiene factors’
B. They are motivators
C. They are unfair
D. They are unwelcome by trade unions
Answer: A. They are viewed as ‘hygiene factors’
309. Circumstances in which rewards normally impact on behavior are:
A. When given a pay increase
B. When the wage or salary is seriously out of line with expectations
C. Will not occur as pay is a ‘hygiene factor’
D. In all cases
Answer: B. When the wage or salary is seriously out of line with expectations
310. The individual most associated with first recognizing the link between pay and performance was:
A. Mayo
B. F.W Taylor
C. Herzberg
D. Kohn
Answer: B. F.W Taylor
311. The incentivized level of effort and performance can only be accessed through additional financial payments that are between:
A. 5 – 10%
B. 10 – 15%
C. 25 – 33%
D. 34 – 40%
Answer: C. 25 – 33%
312. A set wage or salary is an expression of what type of reward?
A. Rewards as rights
B. Rewards as those which are contingent
C. Rewards which are discretionary
D. PRP
Answer: A. Rewards as rights
313. Paying people, a monthly salary would not be suitable in which circumstances?
A. When employing people on a part-time basis
B. For those on regular fixed incomes
C. When overtime varies, and is a large part of the remuneration
D. When employing people on a temporary basis
Answer: C. When overtime varies, and is a large part of the remuneration
314. Annualized hours refers to:
A. Those individuals who are seasonal workers
B. Those employees working on shifts
C. Full-time permanent employees
D. Calculating working time on an annual rather than a weekly basis
Answer: D. Calculating working time on an annual rather than a weekly basis
315. The defining feature of incremental payment systems is:
A. A fair day pay for a fair day’s work
B. Cost of living
C. Length of service
D. The quantity of qualifications achieved
Answer: C. Length of service
316. Performance appraisals serve as building blocks of
A. Recruiting
B. Career planning
C. Manpower planning
D. Selecting
Answer: B. Career planning
317. Which of the following technique is least susceptible to personal bias?
A. Forced choice
B. Critical incidents
C. Rating scales
D. BARS
Answer: D. BARS
318. A disadvantage of rating scales is
A. Cost
B. Feedback
C. Time involved
D. Quantitative of scores
Answer: D. Quantitative of scores
319. The simplest and most popular technique for appraising performance is the _____ method.
A. Alternation ranking
B. Forced distribution
C. Critical incident
D. Graphic rating scale
Answer: A. Alternation ranking
320. The _____ performance appraisal method ranks the highest employees and lowest employees in alternate order.
A. Paired comparison
B. Behaviorally anchored rating scale
C. Forced distribution
D. Alternation ranking
Answer: D. Alternation ranking
321. Supervisors using the forced distribution appraisal method can protect againstbias claims by:
A. Using multiple raters.
B. Appointing a review committee.
C. Training raters to be objective.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B. Appointing a review committee.
322. A problem(s) with management by objectives is (are) that it can:
A. Be time consuming.
B. Result in un measurable objectives.
C. 1 and 2
D. None of the above.
Answer: C. 1 and 2
323. Rating an employee high on several traits because he or she does one thing wellis called the:
A. Bias problem.
B. Central tendency.
C. Halo effect.
D. Unclear standards.
Answer: D. Unclear standards.
324. Which of the following is not a role played by the HR department regarding performance appraisals?
A. Training of supervisors
B. Monitoring the appraisal system
C. Appraising of employees
D. Ensuring compliance with EEO laws
Answer: C. Appraising of employees
325. When designing an actual appraisal method, the two basic considerations are _____.
A. who should measure and when to measure
B. when to measure and what to measure
C. what to measure and who should measure
D. what to measure and how to measure
Answer: D. what to measure and how to measure
326. The most popular technique for appraising performance is the ______ method.
A. alternation ranking
B. graphic rating scale
C. Likert
D. MBO
Answer: B. graphic rating scale
327. Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance?
A. alternation ranking
B. graphic rating scale
C. Likert
D. MBO
Answer: B. graphic rating scale
328. What do performance appraisals measure?
A. generic dimensions of performance
B. performance of actual duties
C. employee competency
D. all of the above
Answer: D. all of the above
329. Who is the primary person responsible for doing the actual appraising of an employee’sperformance?
A. the employee’s direct supervisor
B. the company appraiser
C. the human resource manager
D. none of the above
Answer: A. the employee’s direct supervisor
330. Suppose you have five employees to rate. You make a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being evaluated. Then, you indicate the better employee of the pair for each pair. Finally, you add up the number of positives for each employee. In this case, you have used the _____ method of performance appraisal.
A. graphic ranking scale
B. constant sum ranking scale
C. alternation ranking
D. paired comparison
Answer: D. paired comparison
331. Jason is generally considered unfriendly at work. His supervisor rates him low on the trait “gets along well with others” but also rates him lower on other traits unrelated to socialization at work. Jason’s performance appraisal may be unfair due to _____.
A. impression management
B. bias
C. stereotyping
D. halo effects
Answer: D. halo effects
332. What is another term for 360-degree feedback?
A. feedback loop
B. multi-source assessment
C. upward feedback
D. circle feedback
Answer: B. multi-source assessment
333. Rating of all employees equal such as ‘good’ is called
A. lenient tendency
B. strict tendency
C. biasing tendency
D. central tendency
Answer: D. central tendency
334. New performance appraisal systems and incentives usage is part of
A. mobilize commitment
B. consolidation of gains
C. creating guiding coalition
D. reinforcement of new programs
Answer: D. reinforcement of new programs
335. When appraisals are made by superiors, peers, subordinates and clients then it is called ____.
A. 360 degree feedback
B. 180 degree feedback
C. Self – appraisal
D. None of the above
Answer: A. 360 degree feedback
336. Which company first developed the 360 degree system of appraisal?
A. Wipro in 1990
B. Godrej Soaps in 1991
C. General Electric, US in 1992
D. None of the above
Answer: C. General Electric, US in 1992
337. Which factors lower the accuracy rate of the rater?
A. The rater is aware of personal biases and is willing to take action to minimize their effect
B. Performance factors are properly defined
C. The rater has documented behaviors to improve the recall
D. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously
Answer: D. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously
338. Which is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance?
A. Rating Scales
B. Critical Incident
C. Cost accounting
D. BARS
Answer: A. Rating Scales
339. Which of these is a major weakness of the forced distribution method?
A. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution
B. Work is reliable
C. The error of central tendency
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution
340. What do behaviourally anchored scales represent?
A. The scales are anchored by descriptions of actual job behavior
B. Superiors would feel comfortable to give feedback
C. A range of descriptive statements of behaviour varying from the least to the most effective
D. None of the above
Answer: C. A range of descriptive statements of behaviour varying from the least to the most effective
341. Who conducts the field review method?
A. Peers
B. Supervisor
C. Subordinates
D. Someone from corporate office or the HR department
Answer: D. Someone from corporate office or the HR department
342. Which of the following is one of the primary complaints regarding the use of the forced distribution method for performance appraisals?
A. difficult to implement
B. harm to employee morale
C. high costs of administration
D. standardization of group sizes
Answer: B. harm to employee morale
343. The first step in developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale is to _________
A. develop performance dimensions
B. generate critical incidents
C. compare subordinates
D. reallocate incidents
Answer: B. generate critical incidents
344. Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use the critical incident method to evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, undermines the argument that the critical incident method is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use?
A. Employee performance standards are closely aligned with Wilson Consulting’s long-term strategic plans.
B. Other departments at Wilson Consulting have seen employee performance improve because of providing ongoing evaluations.
C. Suzanne will be conducting performance appraisals in conjunction with the HR manager to ensure EEO compliance.
D. Due to economic difficulties, the firm will be laying off the two lowest performing employees in Suzanne’s department.
Answer: D. Due to economic difficulties, the firm will be laying off the two lowest performing employees in Suzanne’s department.
345. Which of the following best describes a behaviorally anchored rating scale?
A. chart of paired subordinates ranked in order of performance
B. combination of narrative critical incidents and quantified performance scales
C. diary of positive and negative examples of a subordinate’s work performance
D. predetermined percentages of subordinates in various performance categories
Answer: B. combination of narrative critical incidents and quantified performance scales
346. Stacey is using a behaviorally anchored rating scale as a performance appraisal tool. She has already asked employees and supervisors to describe critical incidents of effective and ineffective job performance. What should Stacey do next?
A. create a final appraisal instrument
B. develop performance dimensions
C. rank employees from high to low
D. reallocate the incidents
Answer: B. develop performance dimensions
347. What is the primary disadvantage of developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale?
A. costly
B. time consuming
C. unreliable
D. lack of feedback for subordinates
Answer: C. unreliable
348. Which of the following terms refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made?
A. behaviorally anchored rating scale
B. management by objective
C. narrative form technique
D. forced distribution
Answer: B. management by objective
349. It is most important that supervisors who choose management by objectives as aperformance appraisal tool use __________
A. SMART goals
B. EPM systems
C. computerized notes
D. graphic rating scales
Answer: A. SMART goals
more mcqs
350. Which of these is an issue while designing an appraisal programme?
A. Quality
B. What methods of appraisal are to be used
C. Quantity
D. Cost of effectiveness
Answer: B. What methods of appraisal are to be used
351. All the following are benefits of using computerized or Web-based performance appraisalsystems EXCEPT _________
A. merging examples with performance ratings
B. helping managers maintain computerized notes
C. allowing employees to perform self-evaluations
D. enabling managers to monitor employees’ computers
Answer: D. enabling managers to monitor employees’ computers
352. Which of the following is a performance appraisal problem that occurs when a supervisor’s rating of a subordinate on one trait biases the rating of that person on other traits?
A. recency effect
B. halo effect
C. central tendency
D. discrimination
Answer: B. halo effect
353. The performance management distinct feature is
A. continuous evaluating
B. continuous re-evaluating
C. never evaluating performances
D. evaluating for salary purposes
Answer: B. continuous re-evaluating
354. When the person’s performance is not satisfactory but can be improved is
A. satisfactory-promotable interview
B. satisfactory-not promotable interview
C. unsatisfactory-correctable interview
D. unsatisfactory-uncorrectable interview
Answer: C. unsatisfactory-correctable interview
355. The ‘unclear standards’ usually results in
A. unfair appraisals
B. fake appraisals
C. true appraisals
D. Both A and B
Answer: D. Both A and B
356. The meaning of ‘direction sharing’ is
A. communicating line authority
B. staff authority
C. communicating company’s higher-level goals
D. communicating future HR policies
Answer: C. communicating company’s higher-level goals
357. When the person’s performance is satisfactory but not promotable, such type of an interview is
A. satisfactory-promotable interview
B. satisfactory-not promotable interview
C. unsatisfactory-correctable interview
D. unsatisfactory-uncorrectable interview
Answer: B. satisfactory-not promotable interview
358. The human resource department plays/serves as
A. advisory role
B. line authority
C. hiring department only
D. training department only
Answer: A. advisory role
359. An advantage of Management by Objectives (MBO) is
A. avoids central tendency and biases
B. jointly agreed performance objectives
C. provides behavioral anchors
D. ongoing basis evaluation
Answer: B. jointly agreed performance objectives
360. The situation, subordinates collude to rate high with each other, known as
A. logrolling
B. dialog rolling
C. up rating
D. lenient/strict tendency
Answer: A. logrolling
361. A company’s HR team is responsible for
A. training of supervisors
B. monitor the appraisal system affectivity
C. training the employees
D. all of above
Answer: D. all of above
362. The steps involves in employer’s movement for performance management is
A. total quality
B. appraisal issues
C. strategic planning
D. all of above
Answer: D. all of above
Unit 4
363. A dyadic relationship between two persons: a manager who is offering help, and employee to whom such help is given.
A. Counselling
B. Helping
C. Mentoring
D. time Management
Answer: A. Counselling
364. It is a relationship in which at least one of the parties has the intent of promoting the growth, development, maturity, improved functioning, improved coping with life of other.
A. Counselling
B. Helping
C. Mentoring
D. Time Management
Answer: B. Helping
365. An adjustment in your attitude and behavior towards meeting daily demand.
A. Counselling
B. Helping
C. Mentoring
D. Time Management
Answer: D. Time Management
366. The use of an experienced person to teach and train someone with less knowledge in the given area.
A. Counselling
B. Helping
C. Mentoring
D. Time Management
Answer: C. Mentoring
367. A person who looks at the negative aspect of every situation.
A. Optimist
B. Pessimist
C. Type A personality
D. Type B personality
Answer: A. Optimist
368. Different types of pay plans related to performance are:
A. Individual or piece rate system
B. Group
C. Organizations
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
369. Within the umbrella of group reward system comes.
A. Equal pay
B. Individual performance based pay
C. Pay with group threshold
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
370. Success of the organization can be measured in terms of
A. Profitability
B. Profit
C. Sales
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
371. A structured questionnaire method for collecting data about the personal qualities of employees is called
A. Functional job analysis
B. Management position description questionnaire
C. Work profiling system
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Work profiling system
372. The method that depends mainly on the ability and experience of the supervisors for gathering relevant information about the job is called the
A. Task inventory analysis method
B. Technical conference method
C. Diary maintenance method
D. Critical incident method
Answer: A. Task inventory analysis method
373. The discussion of an employees’ problem with the general objective of helping the worker cope with it.
A. Counseling
B. Training
C. Education
D. Job rotation
Answer: D. Job rotation
374. A broader, long educational programme offered to carry out non-technical functions more effectively.
A. Counseling
B. Training
C. Education
D. Development
Answer: B. Training
375. The act of increasing the knowledge and skills of an employee for doing a particular job
A. Counseling
B. Training
C. Education
D. Development
Answer: D. Development
376. An approach that puts material to be learned into highly organized, logical sequences thattrainee could respond
A. Counseling
B. Training
C. Education
D. Vestibule training
Answer: D. Vestibule training
377. Learning principle includes all but
A. Participation
B. Repetition
C. Feedback
D. Repatriation
Answer: D. Repatriation
378. Needs assessment should consider all but
A. the person
B. supervisor input
C. key changes
D. training objectives
Answer: B. supervisor input
379. Technological obsolescence of engineers can be easily prevented by
A. Behavior modeling
B. Lectures
C. Coaching
D. Lab. Training
Answer: D. Lab. Training
380. Training evaluation criteria include all but
A. Reactions
B. Learning
C. Behavior
D. Relevance results
Answer: C. Behavior
381. Many employees feel their firm’s pay for performance plans are ineffective because:
A. Not everyone reacts to a reward the same way.
B. Not all rewards are suited to all situations.
C. The person must expect to receive a rewa
Answer: C. The person must expect to receive a rewa
382. ____ helps in identifying the knowledge skill and attitude set that enables an individual to deliver the best performance in his job
A. Competency modeling
B. Competency planning
C. People competency
D. Competency training
Answer: A. Competency modeling
383. Which of the following options is not one of the approaches to HRM?
A. Human Resource approach
B. Systems approach
C. Contingent approach
D. Statistical approach
Answer: D. Statistical approach
384. Which approach states that no one management action or design will be suitable for all situations?
A. Human behavior approach
B. Role approach
C. Systems approach
D. Contingent approach
Answer: D. Contingent approach
385. HR department maintains a set of proposals and actions that act as reference points for managers in their dealings with employees. What is this called?
A. HR Guide
B. HR ethics
C. HR policy
D. Managerial policy
Answer: C. HR policy
386. Which of the following HR approaches is most popular currently
A. Human resources approach
B. Scientific management approach
C. Systems approach
D. Technical approach
Answer: A. Human resources approach
387. All except one of the following are the different aspects of HRD
A. Job evaluation
B. Training and development
C. Career planning
D. Performance appraisal
Answer: A. Job evaluation
388. ________ helps organizations identify employee strengths and weaknesses to determine avenues for their career development
A. Gap analysis
B. Individual assessment
C. Organizational assessment
D. Opportunity analsis
Answer: B. Individual assessment
389. Understanding the career aspirations of an employee, determining his capabilities and competencies and identifying the gaps is termed
A. Need analysis
B. Gap analysis
C. Opportunity analysis
D. Employee analysis
Answer: A. Need analysis
390. The process of rewarding employees by giving them a stake in the company, which further enhances their performance is called the
A. Gain sharing
B. Annual bonus
C. Employee stock plan
D. Profit sharing
Answer: C. Employee stock plan
391. The effect of negative aspect of employees’ performance overshadows the evaluation of entire performance.
A. Halo Effect
B. Horn Effect
C. Stereotyping
D. Status Effect
Answer: B. Horn Effect
392. Objective-based rating scales are:
A. Subjectively determined
B. Based on a points-based system
C. Measures of performance against objectives set
D. Manager-allocated rating scales
Answer: C. Measures of performance against objectives set
393. The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards is called _____.
A. recruitment
B. employee selection
C. performance appraisal
D. organizational development
Answer: C. performance appraisal
394. The ‘coaching of employees’ does not include
A. planning
B. preparation
C. follow-up
D. compensating employees
Answer: D. compensating employees
395. Mentoring is very useful when the mentors works for
A. same department
B. different department
C. informal training
D. formal training
Answer: A. same department
more mcqs
396. The problem with self-ratings is that:
A. Supervisors rate employees too highly.
B. Supervisors accentuate differences and rigidify positions.
C. Employees rate themselves higher than do supervisors.
D. All the above.
Answer: D. All the above.
397. To be effective a point based rating systems require:
A. Close management control
B. Comprehensive, reliable and consistent information
C. Objectivity in assessments
D. 360% assessments
Answer: C. Objectivity in assessments
398. The mentoring by employees dealt with
A. longer span of time
B. shorter span of time
C. resetting salary schedules
D. self-managing teams
Answer: A. longer span of time
399. Counseling the employees for second careers inside the firm is an example of
A. phased retirement
B. preretirement counseling
C. honoring experience
D. modifying selection procedure
Answer: B. preretirement counseling
400. Competency Mapping includes mapping the employee with respect to his/her:
A. Traits
B. Self-Concept
C. Skills and Knowledge.
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
401. ____________is a process with the help of which the employer, or the human resource team decides, that where would a person work best, as per his aptitude and temperament.
A. Training
B. Performance Appraisal
C. Competency Mapping
D. Performance Monitoring
Answer: C. Competency Mapping
402. In traditional focus, providing opportunities for learning is part of
A. training and development
B. performance appraisal
C. recruiting and placement
D. human resource planning
Answer: A. training and development
403. In career development focus, information about individual interests and preferences is part of
A. training and development
B. performance appraisal
C. recruiting and placement
D. human resource planning
Answer: D. human resource planning
404. When employee’s high expectations confront reality of boring job, it is called
A. promotions
B. transfers
C. reality shock
D. formal training
Answer: C. reality shock
405. Strategy employees seek to interesting jobs and greater advancement opportunities isincluded in
A. promotions
B. transfers
C. reality shock
D. formal training
Answer: B. transfers
406. In career development, providing individual development plans for employees is part of
A. individual role
B. manager role
C. employer role
D. line manager
Answer: C. employer role
407. Factors influencing bonuses
A. eligibility
B. fund size
C. individual performance
D. All of above
Answer: D. All of above
408. Which of the following terms refers to an appraisal that is too open to interpretation?
A. unclear standards
B. halo effects
C. strictness
D. biased
Answer: A. unclear standards
409. What usually occurs when employees rate themselves for performance appraisals?
A. Ratings are reliable but invalid.
B. Ratings are subject to halo effects.
C. Logrolling leads to unrealistic ratings.
D. Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors.
Answer: D. Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors.
410. Which of the following terms refers to the process of allowing subordinates to rate their supervisor’s performance anonymously?
A. supplemental evaluation
B. downward feedback
C. upward feedback
D. peer evaluation
Answer: C. upward feedback
411. Which of the following terms refers to a performance appraisal based on surveys from peers, supervisors, subordinates, and customers?
A. 360-degree feedback
B. team appraisals
C. upward feedback
D. rating committee
Answer: A. 360-degree feedback
Unit 4
412. Direct non financial and financial payments received by employees for continuous workwith company are classified as
A. benefits
B. stock ownership
C. loyalty scholarships
D. all of above
Answer: A. benefits
413. Mentoring is very useful when mentors works for
A. same department
B. different department
C. informal training
D. formal training
Answer: A. same department
414. Pay plan having a mix of 75% base salary and 25% incentives is classified as
A. combination plan
B. non commission plan
C. competitive plan
D. non competitive plan
Answer: A. combination plan
415. All incentive plans are surely
A. pay for performance
B. pay for skills
C. pay for tenure
D. pay for knowledge
Answer: A. pay for performance
416. All of the following are considered best practices for administering fair performance appraisals EXCEPT _
A. explaining how subordinates can improve their performance
B. clarifying in advance what the performance expectations are
C. basing the appraisal on observable job behaviors
D. using subjective performance data for appraisals
Answer: D. using subjective performance data for appraisals
417. In most firms, a rating committee used for performance appraisals consists of ____ members.
A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 5-6
D. 9-1 0
Answer: B. 3-4
418. A performance appraisalsassumes that an employee understood what his or her performance standards were prior to the appraisal.
A. True
B. False
C. According to situation
D. none
Answer: A. True
419. When an employee’s performance is so poor that a written warning is required, the warning should _
A. identify the standards by which the employee is judged
B. provide examples of employees who met the standards
C. be mailed to the employee and to an EEOC representative
D. provide examples of times when the employee met the standards
Answer: A. identify the standards by which the employee is judged
420. Which component of performance management refers to communicating a firm’s higherlevel goals throughout the organization and then translating them into departmental and individual goals?
A. role clarification
B. goal alignment
C. performance monitoring
D. direction sharing
Answer: D. direction sharing
421. Rewards offered to labors involved in production, are categorized as;
A. Salary
B. Fringe benefits
C. Wage
D. Commission
Answer: C. Wage
422. A written statement of policies and principles that guides the behaviour of all employees is called
A. code of ethics
B. word of ethics
C. ethical dilemma
D. None of the above
Answer: A. code of ethics
423. An empirical inquiry into the actual rules or standards of a particular group is
A. normative justice
B. descriptive justice
C. interpersonal justice
D. None of the above
Answer: B. descriptive justice
424. The HR policy which is based on the philosophy of the utmost good for the greatest number of people is covered under the
A. utilitarian approach
B. approach based on rights
C. approach based on justice
D. None of the above
Answer: A. utilitarian approach
425. Which of the following is not usually the objective of a code of ethics?
A. to create an ethical workplace
B. to evaluate the ethical components of the proposed actions of the employees
C. to improve the public image of the company
D. to enhance the profits of the business continuously
Answer: D. to enhance the profits of the business continuously
426. Which of the following is not a core principle of the Society for Human Resource Management’s Code of Ethics?
A. professional responsibility
B. fairness and justice
C. professional development
D. None of the above
Answer: D. None of the above
427. Which of the following factors shapes the ethical behaviour of the members of an organization?
A. The supervisor’s behavior
B. organizational culture
C. code of ethics
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
428. Payoffs associated with properly implemented ethics programs include:
A. increased stakeholder confidence.
B. greater client/customer and employee loyalty.
C. increased profits.
D. all of the above
Answer: D. all of the above
429. The implied, enforced, or felt obligation of managers, acting in their official capacities, to serve or protect the interests of groups other than themselves, is known as:
A. valuing diversity.
B. legal compliance.
C. social responsibility
D. professionalism.
Answer: C. social responsibility
430. Taking a stand on anti-animal testing, human rights protection, and environmental conservation is an example of a firmʹs:
A. ethics policy.
B. sense of social responsibility.
C. mission statement.
D. desire for legal compliance.
Answer: B. sense of social responsibility.
431. The broad objectives of HR associations across the country include:
A. assisting in the provision of training in the field of HR
B. providing opportunities for information exchange.
C. serving as a voice for HR practitioners.
D. all of the above.
Answer: D. all of the above.
more mcqs
432. Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions – I. Fringe Benefits ——- A. Stock option II. Job Context ———- B. Challenging job responsibilities III. Perquisites ——— C. Group Plans IV. Incentives ———– D. Medical Care
A. I-D, II-B, III- , IV-C
B. I-B, II-A , III-C, IV-D
C. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
D. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-C
Answer: A. I-D, II-B, III- , IV-C
433. Which company first developed the 360-degree system of appraisal?
A. Wipro in 1990
B. Godrej Soaps in 1991
C. General Electric, US in 1992
D. None of the above
Answer: C. General Electric, US in 1992
434. Which factors lower the accuracy rate of the rater?
A. The rater is aware of personal biases and is willing to take action to minimise their effect
B. Performance factors are properly defined
C. The rater has documented behaviours to improve the recall
D. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously
Answer: C. The rater has documented behaviours to improve the recall
435. Which of the following is the easiest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance?
A. Alternation ranking
B. Graphic rating scale
C. Likert
D. MBO
Answer: B. Graphic rating scale
436. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the critical incident method forperformance appraisal?
A. providing examples of excellent work performance
B. comparing and ranking employees within a group
C. connecting specific incidents with performance goals
D. reflecting performance throughout the appraisal period
Answer: B. comparing and ranking employees within a group
437. Which of the following would most likely result in a legally questionable appraisal process?
A. conducting a job analysis to establish performance standards
B. basing appraisals on subjective supervisory observations
C. administering and scoring appraisals in a standardized fashion
D. using job performance dimensions that are too clearly defined
Answer: B. basing appraisals on subjective supervisory observations
438. Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee’s performance for the purposes of a performance appraisal?
A. peers
B. customers
C. top management
D. immediate supervisor
Answer: D. immediate supervisor
439. Which component of performance management refers to communicating a firm’s higherlevel goals throughout the organization and then translating them into departmental andindividual goals?
A. role clarification
B. goal alignment
C. performance monitoring
D. direction sharing
Answer: D. direction sharing
440. Willingness, capacity & opportunity to perform are said to be:
A. Performance outcomes
B. Determinants of performance
C. Performance appraisals
D. Types of performance standards
Answer: B. Determinants of performance
441. One of the major barriers to career advancement experiencing by working ladies is;
A. Difficulty in balancing work and family life
B. Top management is usually male oriented
C. Lack of educational opportunities
D. Common perception that woman cannot be better boss
Answer: A. Difficulty in balancing work and family life
442. Mr. Ahmed is a cashier and he feels dissatisfied at work. What best justifies this situation?
A. His job may not be structured to suit his preferences
B. It involves physical toughness
C. It requires mental toughness
D. It involves too much customer interaction
Answer: A. His job may not be structured to suit his preferences
443. Standards are established to:
A. Achieve desired outcomes
B. Meet legal compliance
C. Achieve competitive advantage
D. Promote goodwill in MARKET
Answer: A. Achieve desired outcomes
444. A non-stress prone person who is relaxed, agreeable and easy going.
A. Type A
B. Type B personality
C. Pessimist
D. Stressors
Answer: A. Type A
445. Which of the following are guidelines for drafting and maintaining a good job description?
A. Indicating the scope and nature of the work and all important relationships
B. Indicating the work and duties of the position
C. Explaining the supervisory responsibility to the individuals
D. All the above
Answer: D. All the above
446. One of the main reasons for the negative attitude of employees towards performance appraisal is:
A. It is associated with pay
B. It gives away how bad they are
C. It tends to become subjective because of poor implementation
D. It is not useful for any other organizational activity
Answer: C. It tends to become subjective because of poor implementation
447. The ‘coaching of employees’ does not include:
A. planning
B. preparation
C. follow-up
D. compensating employees
Answer: D. compensating employees
448. Supratim has been promoted to the post of an Area Sales Manager just last week but finds himself lacking in some areas. His performance can be improved by
A. Reprimanding him
B. Training him
C. Linking his pay to performance
D. Providing him with an assistant
Answer: B. Training him
449. Mentoring is very useful when the mentors work for
A. same department
B. different department
C. informal training
D. formal training
Answer: A. same department
450. Reasons for appraising a subordinate’s performance includes
A. Appraisals play an integral role in performance management.
B. Appraisals play a part in the employer’s salary raise decisions.
C. The supervisor and the employee together develop a plan for correcting the employee’s deficiencies.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D. All of the above.
451. Participative set goals result in higher performance than assigned goals when
A. participative set goals are more difficult
B. assigned goals are more difficult
C. the rewards are also higher
D. participative set goals are used consistently
Answer: A. participative set goals are more difficult
452. Direct non financial and financial payments received by employees for continuous work with company are classified as
A. benefits
B. stock ownership
C. loyalty scholarships
D. all of above
Answer: A. benefits
453. All of the following are considered best practices for administering fair performance appraisals EXCEPT
A. explaining how subordinates can improve their performance
B. clarifying in advance what the performance expectations are
C. basing the appraisal on observable job behaviors
D. using subjective performance data for appraisals
Answer: D. using subjective performance data for appraisals
454. When an employee’s performance is so poor that a written warning is required, the warning should
A. identify the standards by which the employee is judged
B. provide examples of employees who met the standards
C. be mailed to the employee and to an EEOC representative
D. provide examples of times when the employee met the standards
Answer: A. identify the standards by which the employee is judged
455. When an employee’s performance is so poor that a written warning is required, the warning should __
A. identify the standards by which the employee is judged
B. provide examples of employees who met the standards
C. provide examples of times when the employee did meet the standards
D. be sent to the employee in question, to the manager’s superior, and to the EEO office
Answer: D. be sent to the employee in question, to the manager’s superior, and to the EEO office
456. Rewards offered to labours involved in production, are categorized as:
A. Salary
B. Fringe benefits
C. Wage
D. Commission
Answer: C. Wage
457. Supervisors’ responsibilities toward employees EXCLUDE
A. Giving employees clear instructions.
B. Looking for problems and trying to correct them before employees’ performances deteriorate further.
C. Speaking up for employees’ interests to top management.
D. Being inaccessible to subordinates.
Answer: D. Being inaccessible to subordinates.
458. Which performance appraisal tool requires supervisors to categorize employees from bestto worst on various traits?
A. digital dashboard
B. critical incident method
C. graphic rating scale
D. alternation ranking method
Answer: D. alternation ranking method
459. Which performance appraisal tool is being used when a supervisor places predetermined percentage of rates into various performance categories?
A. behaviorally anchored rating scale
B. graphic ranking scale
C. alternation ranking
D. forced distribution
Answer: D. forced distribution
460. Supervisors should provide employees with feedback, development, and incentives necessary to help employees eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform well.
A. True
B. False
C. none
D. all
Answer: A. True
461. All of the following are usually measured by a graphic rating scale EXCEPT
A. generic dimensions of performance
B. performance of ‘actual duties
C. performance of co-workers
D. achievement of Objectives
Answer: C. performance of co-workers