NEET Bioology Previous Papers Chapterwise
Chapterwise List
1. The Living World
2. Biological Classification
3. Plant Kingdom
4. Animal Kingdom
5. Morphology of Flowering Plants
6. Anatomy of Flowering Plants
7. Structural Organisation in Animals
8. Cell: The Unit of Life
9. Biomolecules
10. Cell Cycle and Cell Division
11. Transport in Plants
12. Mineral Nutrition
13. Photosynthesis
14. Respiration in Plants
15. Plant Growth and Development
16. Digestion and Absorption
17. Breathing and Exchange of Gases
18. Body Fluids and Circulation
19. Excretory Products and Their Elimination
20. Locomotion and Movement
21. Neural Control and Coordination
22. Chemical Coordination and Regulation
23. Reproduction in Organisms
24. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
25. Human Reproduction
26. Reproductive Health
27. Principles of Inheritance and Variation
28. Molecular Basis of Inheritance
29. Evolution
30. Human Health and Diseases
31. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
32. Microbes in Human Welfare
33. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
34. Biotechnology and Its Applications
35. Organisms and Populations
36. Ecosystem
37. Biodiversity and its Conservation
38. Environmental Issues
39. Full Paper 2018
1. The Living World
1. It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because [NEET 2016]
A. it is easier to carry a small body weight.
B. smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
C. small animals have a lower O2 requirement.
D. the efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.
Answer: B. Basal metabolic rate is inversely proportional to body size. So smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate. Hence production of energy is more.
2. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things ? [NEET 2011M]
A. Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
B. Increase in mass from inside only
C. Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
D. Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally.
Answer: C. All living things have an ability to respond to their environment, that is also called stimulation.
3. Biological organisation starts with [NEET 2007]
A. cellular level
B. organismic level
C. atomic level
D. submicroscopic molecular level
Answer: D. Biological organisms starts with submicroscopic moleculer level like viruses, bacteria etc. These organisms are unable to be seen by naked eyes without the help of microscope or even electron microscope.
4. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for [NEET 2007]
A. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
B. reproduction
C. growth and movement
D. responsiveness to touch.
Answer: B. There are several factors and processes which differentiate living beings from nonliving beings like reproducction, respiration, growth, etc. But among them reproduction is the only difference which differentiates living being from non-living beings without any exception.
5. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their [NEET 2004]
A. power of adaptability in diverse habitat
B. property of producing large number of seeds
C. nature of self pollination
D. domestication by man
Answer:
A. Angiosperms have adapted themselves to all kinds of habitat – terrestial, aquatic, tropical, deciduous and alpine. Self pollination is seen in very few angiosperms. Production of large number of seeds ensure that at least some will germinate. Not all plants have been domesticated by man.
6. Organisms which obtain energy by the oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds are called [NEET 2002]
A. photoautotrophs
B. chemoautotrophs
C. saprozoic
D. coproheterotrophs
Answer: B. The organisms obtaining energy by chemical reactions independent of light are called chemotrophs. When the reductants obtained from the environment in are inorganic form then organisms are called chemoautotrophs. If they are organic, then the organisms are chemoheterotrophs. Photoautotrophs make their food by photosynthesis using energy from the sun. Saprozoic organisms obtain food from dead and decaying matter.
7. What is true for photolithotrops? [NEET 2001]
A. Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from organic compounds
B. Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from inorganic compounds
C. Obtain energy from organic compounds
D. Obtain energy from inorganic compounds
Answer: B. Photolithotrophs manufacture their own organic nutrients from inorganic raw materials (H2, O2) with the help of radiation energy.
8. First life on earth was [NEET 2001]
A. Cyanobacteria
B. Chemoheterotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. Photoautotrophs
Answer: B. First living beings were formed in the environment of sea having abundant organic molecules. They absorbed the organic materials for the sake of nutrtion and hence were chemoheterotrophs.
9. The most important feature of all living systems is to [NEET 2000]
A. utilize oxygen to generate energy
B. replicate the genetic information
C. produce gametes
D. utilize solar energy for metabolic activities
Answer: B. Replication of the genetic information causes transfer of genetic information from one generation to the next.
10. The book Genera Plantarum was written by [NEET 1999]
A. Bessy
B. Hutchinson
C. Engler and Prantl
D. Bentham & Hooker
Answer: D. Bentham & Hooker wrote the book Genera Plantarum. Bentham began with the Flora Hongkongensis in 1861, which was the first comprehensive work on any part of the little-known flora of China and Hong Kong, including Hong Kong Croton. This was followed by the Flora Australiensis, in seven volumes (1863-1878), the first flora of any large continental area that had ever been finished. His greatest work was the Genera Plantarum, which begun in 1862, and concluded in 1883 in collaboration with Sir Joseph Dalton Hooker.
11. Study of fossils is [NEET 1991]
A. palaeontology
B. herpetology
C. saurology
D. organic evolution
Answer:
A. Herpetology is the branch of zoology concerned with the study of amphibians and reptiles. Palaentlogy is the branch of zoology concerned with the study of fossils. Serology is the branch of zoology concerned with the study of lizards.
12. Homeostasis is organism’s [NEET 1991]
A. tendency to change with change in environment
B. tendency to resist change
C. disturbance in regulatory control
D. plants and animal extracts used in homeopathy
Answer: B. Homoeostasis is the property of all living beings, which is a self regulatory mechanism of maintaining favourable internal condition for uninterrupted chemical reactions in the living system despite the changes in the external environment. e.g. In winter the skin contracts to conserve body heat.
13. Employment of hereditary principles in the improvement of human race is [NEET 1990]
A. Euthenics B. Eugenics
C. Euphenics D. Ethnology
Answer: B. Eugenics is the science that deals with factors (such as principles of genetics) related to improvement of human race. Improvement of race is positive eugenics and if factors are impaired, then it is negative eugenics. Euthenics is the science which improves the condition of life and the environment of human being. Ethnology is the study of different races of mankind, their distribution, relationship and activities. Euphenics is the study of body functions and treatment of heredity defect through medical means i.e. genetic engineering.
14. Static concept of species was put forward by [NEET 1988]
A. de Candolle B. Linnaeus
C. Theophrastus D. Darwin
Answer: B. Carolus Linnaeus introduced Binomial System of Nomenclature in his book Species Plantarum (1753). He said that there can be variation within species, but they do not change from one species to another.
15. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature? [NEET 2016]
A. Biological names can be written in any language
B. The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet
C. The names are written in Latin and are italicised
D. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
Answer:
A. Binomial nomenclature is a formal system of naming species of living things by giving each a name composed of two parts, both of which use Latin grammatical forms, although they can be based on words from other languages.
16. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their [NEET NEET Kar. 2013]
A. Genus B. Family
C. Order D. Division
Answer: B. Families are characterised on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive features of plant species. Tomato (Lycopersicon esculentum) and potato (Solanum tuberosum) belong to the same family Solanaceae.
17. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described? [NEET 2012M]
A. Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile.
B. Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria.
C. Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.
D. E.coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine.
Answer: C. Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causes the most serious type of malaria that is falciparum malaria. Musca domestica – House fly, an insect belongs to phylum arthropoda. Felis tigris – The Bengal tiger, is well protected in Sundarbans (tiger reserve) E.coli – Escherichia coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine.
18. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category ? [NEET 2011]
A. Tiger – tigris, the species
B. Cuttle fish – mollusca, a class
C. Humans – primata, the family
D. Housefly – musca, an order
Answer:
A. Tiger and tigris both are from same genus with a particular taxonomic category.
19. ICBN stands for [NEET 2007]
A. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
B. International congress of Biological Names
C. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
D. Indian Congress of Biological Names.
Answer:
A. ICBN (International code of Botanical Nomenclature) – It is one of the code of nomenclature which is independent of zoological and bacteriological nomenclature. The code applies equally to names of taxonomic groups treated as plants whether or not these groups were originally treated as such.
20. Phenetic classification is based on [NEET 2003, 04]
A. sexual characteristics
B. the ancestral lineage of existing organisms
C. observable characteristics of existing organisms
D. dendograms based on DNA characteristics
Answer: C. Phenetic classification is based upon observable characteristics of an organism. Phylogenetic system of classification is a system indicating the evolutionary or phylogenetic relationship of organisms.
21. Biosystematics aims at [NEET 2003]
A. identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics
B. the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters
C. delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
D. the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies
Answer: D. Biosystematics is the study of diversity of organism and all their comparative and evolutionary relationships.
22. Species are considered as [NEET 2003]
A. real units of classification devised by taxonomists
B. real basic units of classification
C. the lowest units of classification
D. artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms
Answer: C. Species is the lowest or basic taxonomic category comprising of one or more natural population of individuals that interbreed freely.
23. What is true for individuals of same species?
A. Live in same niche [NEET 2002]
B. Live in same habitat
C. Interbreeding
D. Live in different habitat
Answer: C. Individuals of the same species can interbreed. No two individuals share the same ecological niche.
24. The practical purpose of classification of living organisms is to [NEET 1999]
A. explain the origin of living organisms
B. trace the evolution of living organisms
C. name the living organisms
D. facilitate identification of unknown organisms
Answer: D. Biological classification is the scientific arrangement of organisms in a hierarchial series of groups and subgroups on the basis of similarities and differences in their traits. It helps in building evolutionary pathways and in identifying new organisms.
25. A taxon is [NEET 1990, 91, 92, 96]
A. a group of related families
B. a group of related species
C. a type of living organisms
D. a taxonomic group of any ranking
Answer: D. Taxon is a taxonomic group of any rank.
26. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by [NEET 1994]
A. de Vries
B. Carlous Linnaeus
C. Huxley
D. John Ray
Answer: B. Linnaeus.
27. Species is a [NEET 1994]
A. unit of classification
B. unit in the evolutionary history of a tree
C. specific class of evolution
D. not related to evolution
Answer:
A. Species is the basic unit of classification. It is defined as a group of natural population whose members can interbreed among themselves and are reproductively isolated from other such groups.
28. Binomial nomenclature consists of two words [NEET 1994]
A. Genus and species
B. Order and family
C. Family and genus
D. Species and variety
Answer:
A. Binomial nomenclature consists of two words – genus and species. First word denotes genus name and second word denotes species name.
29. “Taxonomy without phylogeny is similar to bones without flesh” is the statement of [NEET 1994]
A. Oswald Tippo
B. John Hutchinson
C. Takhtajan
D. Bentham and Hooker
Answer: C. The statement was given by Takhtajan.
30. Binomial nomenclature means [NEET 1993]
A. one name given by two scientists
B. one scientific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet
C. two names, one latinised, other of a person
D. two names of same plant
Answer: B. Binomial Nomenclature means the scientific name of any organism consist of a generic and a specific epithet. Generic name starts with capital letter and specific name with small letter. Both the names are in Italics when printed, or underlined in manuscripts.
31. Linnaeus is credited with [NEET 1993]
A. binomial nomenclature
B. theory of biogenesis
C. discovery of microscope
D. discovery of blood circulation
Answer:
A. Binomial Nomenclature.
32. The term phylum was given by [NEET 1992]
A. Cuvier B. Haeckel
C. Theophrastus D. Linnaeus
Answer:
A. Cuvier, the father of modern palaeontology, introduced the term “phylum”.
33. Sequence of taxonomic categories is [NEET 1992]
A. Class – Phylum – Tribe – Order – Family – Genus – Species
B. Division – Class – Family – Tribe – Order – Genus – Species
C. Division – Class – Order – Family – Tribe – Genus – Species
D. Phylum – Order – Class – Tribe – Family – Genus – Species
Answer: C. With the discovery of more and more organisms, it sometimes becomes, difficult to adjust an organism to the traditional categories. Therefore to make taxonomic position of a species more precise, the various obligate categories in hierarchial classification are explained below Division —→Class —→Order —→Family —→Genus —→Species
34. An important criterion for modern day classification is [NEET 1991]
A. resemblances in morphology
B. anatomical and physiological traits
C. breeding habits
D. presence or absence of notochord
Answer: B. Modern day classification is new systematics or biosystematics which includes all the characteristic of organisms gathered from the study of different sections like Physiology, Ecology, Anatomy, Biochemistry, Cytology.
35. Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature called [NEET 1990]
A. mononomial B. vernacular
C. binomial D. polynomial
Answer: C. The first scientific attempt to name the organism was polynomial nomenclature which consisted of number of words that incorporate all its important characters. E.g. : Caryophyllum was named as Caryophyllum saxatilis folis gramineus umbellatis corymbis, which means caryophyllum growing on rocks having grass like leaves and umbellate corymb arrangement of flowers. However polynomial system of nomenclature was not favoured by many scientists as it is difficult to remember long descriptive names. To over come this problem a system was developed by Carolus Linnaeus known as “Binomial nomenclature”. This system provides organisms with appropriate and distinct names consisting of two words, the generic name and the specific epither E.g. potato is named as Solanum tuberosum. Solanum represents genus and tuberosum species. The first name or genus begins always with a capital letter and second or species name with small letter, and both are separately underlined, when written and italicised when printed.
36. Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ classification is [NEET 1990]
A. species B. kingdom
C. family D. variety
Answer:
A. Species is the basic unit for understanding taxonomy, that occupies a key position. It is defined as a dynamic genetically distinct group of organisms, which resemble each other in all respect and freely interbreed among themselves to produce fertile offsprings.
37. The term “New Systematics” was introduced by [NEET 1988]
A. Bentham and Hooker
B. Linnaeus
C. Julian Huxley
D. A.P. de Candolle
Answer: C. The term “New Systematics” was wined by Julian Huxley (1940). Characters of plants collected through different branches of science are considered eg. ecology, physiology, biochemistry, cytology, genetics etc.
38. Which one of the following is not a correct statement ? [NEET NEET 2013]
A. Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference.
B. A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals
C. Key is taxonomic aid for identification of specimens.
D. Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens.
Answer: B. Museum – Biological museums are generally set up in educational institutes such as schools and colleges. Museums have collections of preserved plant and animal specimens for study and reference. Specimens are preserved in the containers or jars in preservative solutions. Plant and animal specimens may also be preserved as dry specimens. Insects are preserved in insect boxes after collections, killing and pinning. Larger animals like birds and mammals are usually stuffed and preserved. Museums often have collections of skeletons of animals too. Ω
2. Biological Classification
1. Pick up the wrong statement [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Prostista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition
B. Some fungi are edible
C. Nuclear membrane is present Monera
D. Cell wall is absent in Animalia
Answer: C. The kingdom Monera possesses unicellular organisms (e.g – bacteria) having no nuclear membrane.
2. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on: [NEET 2014]
A. Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus.
B. Mode of reproduction.
C. Mode of nutrition.
D. Complexity of body organisation.
Answer:
A. Five kingdom system of classification was proposed by R.H. Whittaker (1969). The five kingdom classification is based on the following criteria : Complexity of cell structure – Prokaryotes or Eukaryotes Complexity of organisms body – Unicellular or Multicellular Mode of obtaining nutrition – Autotrophic or Heterotrophic Phylogenetic relationships
3. What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia ? [NEET 2006]
A. They have flagella
B. They produce spores
C. These are all parasites
D. These are all unicellular protists
Answer: D. Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis & Giardia are unicellular protists i.e. unicellular eukaryotes.
4. In the five-kingdom system of classification, which single kingdom out of the following can include blue green algae, nitrogen-fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria? [NEET 1998, 2003]
A. Fungi B. Plantae
C. Protista D. Monera
Answer: D. Monera is the prokaryotic kingdom that includes bacteria, blue green algae (cyanobacteria) and archae-bacteria (a group of ancient bacteria). Protista includes slime, unicellular and colonial eukaryotes. The important members are diatoms, dinoflagellates, euglenoids, moulds and protozoans. Fungi is the kingdom of multicellular or multinucleate heterophyllous and spore producing eukaryotic organisms like Rhizopus mildews, mushroom etc. Kingdom plantae includes all coloured multicellular photosynthetic organisms (plants).
5. In five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is [NEET 2002]
A. structure of nucleus
B. mode of nutrition
C. structure of cell wall
D. asexual reproduction
Answer: B. The five kingdom classification is a mode of classification based on the following criteria. Complexity of cell structure Complexity of body structure Modes of nutrition Ecological life styles Phylogenetic relationship
6. A system of classification in which a large number of traits are considered, is [NEET 1999]
A. artificial system
B. synthetic system
C. natural system
D. phylogenetic system
Answer: C. Artificial system of classification is based on comparison of one or a few characters. A system based upon a large no. of natural characters or traits is natural system of classification. Proposed by de Jussieu, phylogenetic system of classification indicates the evolutionary or phylogenetic relationship of organisms.
7. Phylogenetic classification is based on [NEET 1994]
A. utilitarian system
B. habits
C. overall similarities
D. common evolutionary descent
Answer: D. The first phylogenetic system of classification was proposed by Adolf Engler and his associate Karl Prantl in their monograph “Die Naturlichen Pflanzen Familien”. In this system of classification, organisms are classified on the basis of evolutionary sequence and genetic relationship among the organisms. Hence, this system is highly dynamic not static. Fossil records play a vital role in elucidation of evolutionary relationships. This system has led to new systematics.
8. Artificial system of classification was first used by [NEET 1989]
A. Linnaeus
B. De Candolle
C. Pliny the Edler
D. Bentham and Hooker
Answer: C. During the early period in taxonomy, only external morphology (the characters observable with naked eye) were the sole criteria to classify plants and animals. Theophrastus gave names and description of 480 plants in his book “Historia plantarum” , on the basis of their habit but Pliny the Edler introduced first artificial system of classification in his book Historia Naturalis. He classified both plants and animals.
9. System of classification used by Linnaeus was [NEET 1989]
A. natural system
B. artificial system
C. phylogenetic system
D. asexual system
Answer: B. Linnaeus put forward an “Artificial system” of plant classification which was based on sexual characters. It is commonly also called as Sexual System of plant classification.
10. Classification given by Bentham and Hooker is [NEET 1988]
A. artificial B. natural
C. phylogenetic D. numerical
Answer: B. George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker have given Natural system of classification. In this system of classification all the important characteristic of the organisms that provide information regarding their natural relationship are taken into consideration which helps in bringing out maximum number of similarities in a group and comparable differences with other groups of organisms. For example, mammals are characterised by the presence of mammary gland, hair, vivipary, 4 chambered heart etc.
11. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions ? [NEET 2017]
A. Eubacteria B. Cyanobacteria
C. Mycobacteria D. Archaebacteria
Answer: D. Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh conditions due to the presence of branched lipid chain in cell membrane that reduces fluidity of cell membrane. It includes halophiles which are exclusively found in saline habitats.
12. Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell? [NEET 2017]
A. Nuclear membrane
B. Plasma membrane
C. Glycocalyx
D. Cell wall
Answer: C. Sticky character of the bacterial wall is due to glycocalyx which is rich in glycoproteins.
13. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen? [NEET 2017]
A. Pseudomonas B. Mycoplasma
C. Nostoc D. Bacillus
Answer: B. Mycoplasmas are smallest, prokaryotes lacking cell wall and are pleomorphic in nature. These are pathogenic to both plants and animals.
14. Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell? [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Ribosome
B. Mesosome
C. Plasma membrane
D. Nuclear envelope
Answer: D. Nuclear envelope is not found in a prokaryotic cell.
15. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and / or host tissues are: [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Fimbriae B. Mesosomes
C. Holdfast D. Rhizoids
Answer:
A. Fimbriae assist some bacteria in attaching to rocks or host body for obtaining establishment and nutrition.
16. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in:
A. Cell membrane [NEET 2014]
B. Mode of nutrition
C. Cell shape
D. Mode of reproduction
Answer:
A. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure. They lack peptidoglyan in cell wall and possess a monolayer of branched fatty acids attached to glycerol by ether bonds in their cell membranes.
17. The motile bacteria are able to move by: [NEET 2014]
A. Fimbriae B. Flagella
C. Cilia D. Pili
Answer: B. Motile bacteria have thin filamentous extensions on their cell wall called flagella.
18. Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water ? [NEET NEET 2013]
A. Eubacteria B. Blue-green algae
C. Saprophytic fungi D. Archaebacteria
Answer: D. Archaebactera live in some of the most harsh habitats such as extreme salty areas (halophiles), hot springs (thermoacidophiles) and marshy areas (methanogens) and in deep sea water.
19. Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc are [NEET NEET Kar. 2013]
A. Akinetes B. Heterocysts
C. Hormogonia D. Nodules
Answer: B. Heterocysts are large sized, thick-walled specialised cells which occur in terminal, intercalary or lateral position in filamentous cyanobacteria, e.g., Nostoc. They have enzyme nitrogenase and are specialised to perform biological nitrogen fixation.
20. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones categorised as : [NEET 2012]
A. Cyanobacteria
B. Archaebacteria
C. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
D. Heterotrophic bacteria
Answer: D. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are the heterotrophic bacteria. Lactobacillis bacteria convert milk into curd.
21. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as [NEET 2012]
A. protists B. golden algae
C. slime moulds D. blue green algae
Answer: D. Cyanobacteria are also referred as blue green algae, they perform oxygenic photosynthesis. They are most successful autotrophic organisms on earth which are found in all types of environment – fresh water, sea water, salt marshes, moist rocks, tree trunks, moist soils, hot springs, frozen waters.
22. How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs? Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, Trypanosomes, Porphyra, Wolffia [NEET 2012M]
A. Four B. Five
C. Six D. Three
Answer: C. Autotrophs are those organisms that are able to make energy-containing organic molecules from inorganic raw material by using basic sunlight. Nostoc, Chara, Porphyra and Wolffia are photoautotrophs while Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemoautotrophs.
23. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cells is : [NEET 2011]
A. plasma membrane
B. nucleus
C. ribosomes
D. cell wall
Answer:
A. Eubacteria are prokaryotic but eubacteria are enclosed by plasma membrane like eukaryotic cells.
24. Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in a : [NEET 2011]
A. sulphur rock B. cattle yard
C. polluted stream D. hot spring
Answer: B. Methanogens are archaebacteria, abundant in cattle yard and paddy fields.
25. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of [NEET 2008]
A. Xanthomonas B. Pseudomonas
C. Alternaria D. Erwinia
Answer:
A. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of Xanthomonas. Mature rice plant are infected by these bacteria, lesion begins as water soaked stripes on the leaf blades and eventually would increase in length and width becoming yellow to grayish-white until the entire leaf dries up.
26. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archaea? [NEET 2008]
A. Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
B. Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
C. Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
D. Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes.
Answer: B. A domain of prokaryotic organisms containing the archaebacteria including the methanogens, which produce methane; the thermoacidophilic bacteria, which live in extremely hot and acidic environments, & the halophilic bacteria, which can only function at high salt concentrations are abundant in the world’s oceans.
27. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify: [NEET 2008]
A. Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
B. Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
C. Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
D. Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
Answer:
A. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones.
28. Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong ? [NEET 2007]
A. They are pleomorphic
B. They are sensitive to penicillin
C. They cause diseases in plants
D. They are also called PPLO.
Answer: B. While working at the Rockrfeller Institute, Brown reported isolation of a PPLO from human arthritic joint tissue in 1938. In 1949, Diennes reported to the 7th International Rheumatology Congress, the isolation of PPLO from the genitourinary tracts of men afflicted with arthritis. In discussing the significance of this observation, Brown reported successful treatment of arthritic patients in 1949 with a new antibiotic called aureomycin (Clark, 1997).
29. In which of the animals dimorphic nucleus is found? [NEET 2005]
A. Amoeba proteus
B. Trypanosoma gambiense
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Paramecium caudatum
Answer: D. Paramecium has two types of nucleus, a larger macronucleus involved with the vegetative activities and a smaller involved with reproduction.
30. The most throughly studied fact of the known bacteria-plant interactions is the [NEET 2004]
A. cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns
B. gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium
C. nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen fixing bacteria
D. plant growth stimulation by phosphatesolubilising bacteria
Answer: B. This phenomenon has been successfully used in genetic engineering to produce disease resistant varieties of plants.
31. The chief advantage of encystment to an Amoeba is [NEET 2003]
A. the chance to get rid of accumulated waste products
B. the ability to survive during adverse physical conditions
C. the ability to live for sometime without ingesting food
D. protection from parasites and predators
Answer: B. Encystment enables the zygote to survive under adverse or infavourable conditions wherein it lies dormant.
32. Which bacteria is utilized in gober gas plant? [NEET 2002]
A. Methanogens
B. Nitrifying bacteria
C. Ammonifying bacteria
D. Denitrifying bacteria
Answer:
A. Methanobacillus (methanogen) occurs in marshes and also in dung. It produces CH4 gas under anaerobic condition and is utilized in gobar gas plant.
33. Which statement is correct for bacterial transduction ? [NEET 2002]
A. Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through virus
B. Transfer of genes from one bacteria to another bacteria by conjugation
C. Bacteria obtains its DNA directly
D. Bacteria obtains its DNA from other external source
Answer:
A. Transduction is virus mediated gene transfer in bacteria.
34. What is true for cyanobacteria? [NEET 2001]
A. Oxygenic with nitrogenase
B. Oxygenic without nitrogenase
C. Non-oxygenic with nitrogen
D. Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase
Answer:
A. Cyanobacteria are oxygenic photoautotroph. Many members perform nitrogen fixation.
35. What is true for archaebacteria ? [NEET 2001]
A. All halophiles
B. All photosynthetic
C. All fossils
D. Oldest living beings
Answer: D. Archaebacteria are the most ancient and halogenous group of bacteria and are called living fossils.
36. The main difference in Gram (+)ve and Gram (–)ve bacteria resides in their [NEET 2001]
A. cell wall B. cell membrane
C. cytoplasm D. flagella
Answer:
A. Gram +(ve) and Gram –(ve) bacteria are separated on the basis of their cell wall composition. Christian Gram, on the basis of staining behaviour of the cell wall with Gram’s stain, grouped bacteria into Gram +ve and Gram –ve type. The bacteria which retain blue or purple colour after staining are Gram +ve e.g. Bacillus subtilis and which loses blue colour is Gram –ve e.g. E. coli. In Gram –ve, stain is washed due to high lipid content in the cell having thick wall, Gram +ve has single layered cell wall rich in peptidoghycans which retain the colour.
37. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in [NEET 1999]
A. leucoplasts B. chloroplasts
C. chromoplasts D. chromatophores
Answer: D. Chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts are the types of plastids found in higher plants. Chloroplasts contain the green pigment chlorophyll. Chromoplasts contain coloured pigments. Leucoplasts are colourless and store starch granules.
38. In prokaryotes, the genetic material is [NEET 1999]
A. linear DNA with histones
B. circular DNA with histones
C. linear DNA without histones
D. circular DNA without histones
Answer: D. In prokayotes nucleoid consist of double stranded circular DNA without histone protein.
39. A few organisms are known to grow and multiply at temperatures of 100–105ºC. They belong to [NEET 1998]
A. marine archaebacteria
B. thermophilic sulphur bacteria
C. hot-spring blue-green algae (cyanobacteria)
D. thermophilic, subaerial fungi
Answer:
A. These are archaebacteria which can tolerate high temperature.
40. Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another in the transduction process is through [NEET 1998]
A. Conjugation
B. Bacteriophages released from the donor bacterial strain
C. Another bacterium
D. Physical contact between donor and recipient strain
Answer: B. Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by physical contact is called conjugation while if it takes place by some other medium like virus than it is called transduction.
41. The hereditary material present in the bacterium Escherichia coli is [NEET 1998]
A. single stranded DNA
B. deoxyribose sugar
C. double stranded DNA
D. single stranded RNA
Answer: C. In (E.coli) double stranded DNA is present.
42. Sex factor in bacteria is [NEET 1996]
A. Chromosomal replicon
B. F-replicon
C. RNA
D. Sex-pilus
Answer: B. Sex-factor or F-factor in bacteria results in high frequency conjugation. It allows bacteria to produce sex pilus necessary for conjugation.
43. Temperature tolerance of thermal blue-green algae is due to [NEET 1994]
A. cell wall structure
B. cell organisation
C. mitochondrial structure
D. homopolar bonds in their proteins
Answer: D. Some of the blue green algae can tolerate extremes of temperature due to presence of gelatinous sheath, and compactness of protein molecules in protoplasm.
44. Nitrogen fixer soil organisms belong to [NEET 1994]
A. mosses B. bacteria
C. green algae D. soil fungi
Answer: B. Only some bacteria and blue green algae (cynobacteria) have the capacity to fix atmospheric nitrogen. Bacteria : Azotobacter, Rhizobium, Frankia etc. Blue green algae : Nostoc, Oscillatoria, Anabaena etc.
45. Entamoeba coli causes [NEET 1994]
A. Pyrrhoea B. Diarrhoea
C. Dysentery D. None
Answer: D. Pyrrhoea is caused by bacterial infections along with other factors, Diarrhoea by caused by rotavirus along with many other factors. Dysentery is caused by Entamoeba histolytica.
46. Escherichia coli is used extensively in biological research as it is [NEET 1993]
A. easily cultured
B. easily available
C. easy to handle
D. easily multiplied in host
Answer:
A. Escherichia coli, lives as a symbiont in human intestine.
47. Genophore/bacterial genome or nucleoid is made of [NEET 1993]
A. histones and nonhistones
B. RNA and histones
C. a single double stranded DNA
D. a single stranded DNA
Answer: C. The bacterial genome/nucleoid is made of single circular double stranded DNA without histone protein as it is a prokaryotic organisms. The genome contains some 100 chemical sites or loci. Each locus contains in E. coli contains about 4000 genes.
48. Bacteria lack alternation of generation because there is [NEET 1992]
A. neither syngamy nor reduction division
B. distinct chromosomes are absent
C. no conjugation
D. no exchange of genetic material
Answer:
A. In bacteria asexual reproduction through binary fission is the most common method of multiplication. Sexual reproduction which comprises of syngamy and meiosis is entirely absent. Hence, no gamete formation takes place. In sexually reproducing organism alternation of generation occurs.
49. Name the organisms which do not derive energy directly or indirectly from sun [NEET 1991]
A. Chemosynthetic bacteria
B. Pathogenic bacteria
C. Symbiotic bacteria
D. Mould
Answer:
A. Chemosynthetic bacteria do not require sunlight as a source of energy either directly or indirectly. The energy for the synthesis of food is obtained by the oxidation of certain inorganic substances present in the medium. The chemical energy obtained from oxidation reaction is trapped in ATP molecules. The ATP is used in CO2 assimilation.
50. Which one belongs to monera? [NEET 1990]
A. Amoeba B. Escherichia
C. Gelidium D. Spirogyra
Answer: B. Whittaker (1969) divided organisms into five kingdoms : Monera, Protista, Plantae, Fungi and Animalia. Kingdom Monera includes all prokaryotes – Mycoplasma, bacteria, actinomycetes, blue-green algae, archaebacteria, methanogens. Escherichia is bacteria, Amoeba, Gelidium come under Protista, Spirogyra is algae.
51. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom [NEET 2016]
A. Monera B. Protista
C. Fungi D. Animalia
Answer: B. All unicellular eukaryotic organism like diatoms, desmids (chrysophytes), euglenoids, dinoflagellates and slime mould are included in Protista.
52. In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit together? [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Euglenoids B. Dinoflagellates
C. Slime moulds D. Chrysophytes
Answer: D. In chrysophytes, the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells held together. The body of Diatoms appears like soap box due to overlapping shells.
53. In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in [NEET 2012M]
A. protista B. algae
C. plantae D. monera
Answer: B. Chlamydomonas & Chlorella have been included in algae. Algae are chlorophylus, thalloid avascular plants with no cellular differentiation. Algae belong to thallophyta of plant kingdom.
54. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells ? [NEET 2011]
A. Paramecium caudatum
B. Escherichia coli
C. Euglena viridis
D. Amoeba proteus
Answer: B. E. coli is a prokaryotic gram negative bacterium.
55. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in: [NEET 2010]
A. Protista B. Fungi
C. Archaea D. Monera
Answer:
A. Single celled eukaryotes are included in protista. Protista includes all unicellular and colonial eukaryotes except green and red algae. It is also known as kingdom of unicellular eukaryotes.
56. Which one of the following is a slime mould? [NEET 2007]
A. Physarum B. Thiobacillus
C. Anabaena D. Rhizopus
Answer:
A. Physarum polycephalum belongs to phylum Amoebozoa, infraphylum Mycetozoa, and class Myxogastrea. P. polycephalum, often referred to as the “many-headed slime,” is a slime mold that inhabits shady, cool, moist areas, such as decaying leaves and logs.
57. The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as [NEET 2006]
A. plasmodium B. fruiting body
C. mycelium D. protonema
Answer:
A. The thalloid body of slime moulds is made up of multinucleated cell which lacks septa in between and hence it is a multinucleated single celled mass called plasmodium.
58. Auxopores and hormocysts are formed, respectively, by: [NEET 2005]
A. Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
B. Some cyanobacteria and diatoms
C. Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
D. Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria.
Answer: D. Binary fission in diatoms reduces the size of most daughters which is corrected through the development of auxospores. In some filamentous cyanobacterial forms unisexual reproduction occurs by hormogonia (hormocysts). They are identified by presence of biconcave (one disk or separation disc between two adjacent cells e.g. Oscillatoria).
59. In Amoeba and Paramecium osmoregulation occurs through [NEET 2002]
A. pseudopodia
B. nucleus
C. contractile vacuole
D. general surface
Answer: C. Contractile vacuole in Amoeba and Paramecium maintain the water balance of the cell. This is known as osmoregulation.
60. Which of the following organism possesses characteristics of both a plant and an animal? [NEET 1995]
A. Bacteria B. Euglena
C. Mycoplasma D. Paramecium
Answer: B. The Euglena is an organism, which possesses both the characteristics of plants and animals, as it can move with a flagella and also contains chlorophyll. Its nutrition is mixotrophic..
61. The function of contractile vacuole, in protozoa, is [NEET 1995]
A. locomotion B. food digestion
C. osmoregulation D. reproduction
Answer: C. In protozoa, the function of contractile vacuole is the removal of excretory substances, carbon dioxide etc. It is very essential to regulate water content i.e., osmoregulation.
62. Macro and micronucleus are the characteristic feature of [NEET 1995]
A. Paramecium and Vorticella
B. Opelina and Nictothisus
C. Hydra and Ballantidium
D. Vorticella and Nictothirus
Answer:
A. The macronucleus lacks nuclear membrane and is formed of trophochromatin. It regulates the metabolic activities of the body and it is also known as trophonucleus. The micronucleus has a definite nuclear membrane and controls the reproductive activities of Paramecium and Vorticella.
63. Excretion in Amoeba occurs through [NEET 1995]
A. lobopodia
B. uroid portion
C. plasma membrane
D. contractile vacuole
Answer: D. The conractile vacuole is supposed to assist excertion in Amoeba, as its watery contents possess traces of carbon dioxide and urea. The CO2 diffuses directly through plasmalemma.
64. Protistan genome has [NEET 1994]
A. membrane bound nucleoproteins embedded in cytoplasm
B. free nucleic acid aggregates
C. gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in loose mass
D. nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell substance
Answer:
A. Protistans are eukaryotes and their genetic material is organised in form of nucleus. DNA is associated with histone protein.
65. Protists obtain food as [NEET 1994]
A. photosynthesisers, symbionts and holotrophs
B. photosynthesisers
C. chemosynthesisers
D. holotrophs
Answer:
A. Members of kingdom Protista have diverse mode of nutrition. They are photosynthetic, saprophytic parasitic and ingestive. They are major heterotrophs.
66. Protista includes [NEET 1994]
A. heterotrophs
B. chemoheterotrophs
C. chemoautotrophs
D. all the above
Answer: D. Kingdom Protista includes flagellates (euglenophyceae), diatoms, dinoflagellates, slime moulds, sarcodines, ciliates, sporozoans. They have photosynthetic, chemotrophic, heterotropic mode of nutrition.
67. African sleeping sickness is due to [NEET 1991]
A. Plasmodium vivax transmitted by Tse tse fly
B. Trypanosoma lewsii transmitted by Bed Bug
C. Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by Glossina palpalis
D. Entamoeba gingivalis spread by Housefly.
Answer: C. I. African sleeping sickness disease also called as trypansomiasis is common in western and central parts of African continent. II. The disease is caused by parasite Trypanosoma gambiense of class zooflagellata. III. The parasite is transmitted through bite of Tse-Tse fly (vector Glossina palpalis). IV. The disease appears when the causal organism enters into cerebrospinal fluid of human. V. Trypanosoma is an obligate parasite, digenetic and polymorphic organism.
68. Genetic information in Paramecium is contained in [NEET 1990]
A. micronucleus
B. macronucleus
C. both micronucleus and macronucleus
D. mitochondria
Answer:
A. Paramecium has two nuclei Micronucleus Macronucleus Paramecium Micronucleus • Small having two sets of chromosomes (diploid) •Concerned with reproduction i.e. stores genetic information Macronucleus •Larger having many sets of chromosomes •Concerned with functioning of the cell
69. Which is true about Trypanosoma ? [NEET 1990]
A. Polymorphic
B. Monogenetic
C. Facultative Parasite
D. Non-pathogenic
Answer:
A. Trypanosoma is polymorphic i.e. it exists in different forms in the successive stages of its life cycle. These are Leishmania, Leptomonad, Crituidial and trypanosomal stages.
70. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite, belongs to class [NEET 1990]
A. Sarcodina B. Ciliata
C. Sporozoa D. Dinophyceae
Answer: C. Plasmodium belongs to class Sporozoa of protozoan profists. It is an endoparasite lacking any locomotory structure and contractile vacules. It reproduces through spore formation.
71. The causal organism for African sleeping sickness is [NEET 1989]
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. T. rhodesiense
C. T. tangela
D. T. gambiense
Answer: D. African sleeping sickness disease also called trypanosomiasis, that is common in Africa which is caused by parasite, Trypanosoma gambiense. The parasite is transmitted by Tse-Tse fly (Glossina palpalis).
72. The vector for sleeping sickness is [NEET 1989]
A. House fly B. Tse-Tse fly
C. Sand fly D. Fruit fly
Answer: B. Vector for sleeping sickness is Tse-Tse fly (Glossina palpalis). The parasite Trypanosoma is transmitted through the bite of this fly. Tse-tse have been extensively studied because they are biological vectors of the African trypanosomiasis, deadly disease which includes sleeping sickness in people and nagana in cattle. Tse-tse have existed in the modern morphological form for at least 34 million years since fossil tse-tse have been recovered from the Florissant Fossil Beds in Colorado.
73. Trypanosoma belongs to class [NEET 1989]
A. Sarcodina B. Zooflagellata
C. Ciliata D. Sporozoa
Answer: B. Zooflagellata of Protozoan Protista. They have flagella and heterotrophic (Parasitic) mode of nutrition.
74. A bite of Tse-Tse fly may pass to humans
A. Leishmania donovani [NEET 1989]
B. Trypanosoma gambiense
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Plasmodium vivax
Answer: B. Tse-Tse fly is vector of sleeping sickness disease and it transmits Trypanosoma gambiense through its bite.
75. The infective stage of malarial parasite Plasmodium that enters human body is [NEET 1989]
A. merozoite B. sporozoite
C. trophozoite D. minuta form
Answer: B. The infective stage of Plasmodium that enters human blood is sporozoite.
76. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is [NEET 2016]
A. Chitin B. Peptidoglycan
C. Cellulose D. Hemicellulose
Answer:
A. A cell wall is a rigid structural layer, which provides protection and structural support to the cells. The composition of cell wall varies from one species to another. In fungi, the cell wall is composed of strong covalent linkages of chitin, glucans and glycoproteins. Alternatively, in case of land plants, the cell wall is composed of cellulose and hemicellulose. Archean cell walls consists of peptidoglycans.
77. Which one of the following statements is wrong? [NEET 2016]
A. Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae
B. Golden algae are also called desmids
C. Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
D. Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
Answer: C. Eubacteria are the true bacteria.
78. Which one one of the following matches is correct ? [NEET 2015 RS]
1. Alternaria Sexual reproduction absent Deuteromycetes
2. Mucor Reproduction by Conjugation Ascomycetes
3. Agaricus Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes
4. Phytophthora Aseptate mycelium Basidiomycetes
Answer:
A. Alternaria belongs to class – Deuteromycetes, which lack sexual reproduction. Asexual reproduction takes place by conidia produced on conidiophores.
79. True nucleus is absent in : [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Mucor B. Vaucheria
C. Volvox D. Anabaena
Answer: D. Anabaena is a cyanobacteria which lack a true nucleus because of absence of nuclear membrane.
80. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to: [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Basidiomycetes B. Phycomycetes
C. Ascomycetes D. Deuteromycetes
Answer: D. Class- deuteromycetes comprises of imperfect fungi which play role in decomposition of organic wastes.
81. Choose the wrong statements: [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics
B. Morels and truffles are poisonoues mushrooms
C. Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation
D. Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics
Answer: B. Morel and truffles are used as food and they are members of Ascomycetes fungi.
82. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens? [NEET 2014]
A. Morchella esculenta
B. Amanita muscaria
C. Neurospora sp.
D. Ustilago sp.
Answer: B. Several mushrooms such as Amanita muscaria, Psilocybe mexicana and Panaeolus spp. secrete hallucinogenic substances like psilocybin and psilocin. These substances may destroy brain cells and power of perception in human beings.
83. Which one of the following is true for fungi? [NEET NEET Kar. 2013]
A. They are phagotrophs
B. They lack a rigid cell wall
C. They are heterotrophs
D. They lack nuclear membrane
Answer: C. Fungi lack chlorophyll, hence, they do not prepare their food by photosynthesis. They can grow where organic material is available. So, they are heterotrophs that acquire their nutrient by absorption and store in the form of glycogen.
84. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in: [NEET 2010]
A. Saccharomyces B. Streptococcus
C. Chlamydomonas D. Plasmodium
Answer: B. Membrane bound organelles are absent in Streptococcus. It is a bacterium that is included under kingdom Monera. Monerans are prokaryotes which lack membrane bound organelles like mitochondria, E.R, Golgi etc. Saccharomyces, Chlamydomonas and Plasmodium are eukaryotes that have membrane bound organelles.
85. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism? [NEET 2009]
A. Black rust of wheat – Puccinia graminis
B. Loose smut of wheat – Ustilago nuda
C. Root-knot of vegetables – Meloidogyne sp
D. Late blight of potato – Alternaria solani
Answer: D. Late blight is caused by the fungus Phytophthora infestans. Late blight appears on potato or tomato leaves as pale green, watersoaked spots, often beginning at leaftips or edges. The circular or irregular leaf lesions are often surrounded by a pale yellowishgreen border that merges with healthy tissue. Lesions enlarge rapidly and turn dark brown to purplish-black. During periods of high humidity and leaf wetness, a cottony, white mold growth is usually visible on lower leaf surfaces at the edges of lesions. In dry weather, infected leaf tissues quickly dry up and the white mold growth disappears. Infected areas on stems appear brown to black and entire veins may be killed in a short time when moist weather persists.
86. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes? [NEET 2007]
A. puffballs and Claviceps
B. peziza and stink borns
C. Morchella and mushrooms
D. birds nest fungi and puffballs.
Answer: D. The class Basidiomycetes includes those members that produce their basidia and basidiospores on or in a basidiocarp.
87. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of [NEET 2007]
A. Uncimula B. Ustilago
C. Claviceps D. Phytophthora.
Answer: C. Ergot of Rye is a plant disease that is caused by the fungus Claviceps purpurea. The so-called ergot that replaces the grain of the rye is a dark, purplish sclerotium, from which the sexual stage, of the life cycle will form after over wintering. Ergot of Rye
88. Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread ? [NEET 2006]
A. Temperature of about 25°C
B. Temperature of about 5° C
C. Relative humidity of about 5%
D. Relative humidity of about 95%
E. A shady place
F. A brightly illuminated place Choose the answer from the following options :
A. A, D and E only B. B, D and E only
C. B, C and F only D. A, C and E only
Answer:
A. Mucor is a fungus and most of the fungi require the optimum temperature of about 15- 30ºC, good moisture content in atmosphere and not very dark and not very lightened place. So Mucor requires a temperature of about 25ºC, humidity about 95% and a shady place to grow fully.
89. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause their lysis, are called [NEET 2004]
A. lysozymes B. lipolytic
C. lytic D. lysogenic
Answer: C. Viruses that get integrated with the bacterial host genome are called lysogenic. Virus which transmit its DNA into bacterial cell and divide within bacterial cell causing breakdown of bacterial cell wall are called lytic virus. Lysozymes are present in the lipolytic enzymes catalyse breakdown of fats (lipids).
90. Mycorrhiza represents [NEET 2003]
A. antagonism B. endemism
C. symbiosis D. parasitism
Answer: C. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants. Mycorrhiza form wooly covering of fungal hyphae on the surface and remain in upper layers. It is of two types ecto and endomycorrhiza. In some endomycorrhiza, the fungal hyphae develop some organs called vesicles within the root cortical cells, such mycorrhizae are called VAM (vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizae). It is meant for phosphate nutrition.
91. Which of the following secretes toxins during storage conditions of crop plants? [NEET 2002]
A. Aspergillus B. Penicillium
C. Fusarium D. Colletotrichum
Answer:
A. Aspergillus flavus produces carcinogenic fungus toxin (Aflatoxin) during storage condition of crop plant.
92. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and flowers? [NEET 2002]
A. Loose smut of wheat
B. Corn stunt
C. Covered smut of barley
D. Soft rot of potato
Answer:
A. Ustilago causes loose smut of wheat, as a result the grain and flower get converted into powdered mass.
93. Plant decomposers are [NEET 2001]
A. Monera and fungi
B. Fungi and plants
C. Protista and animalia
D. Animalia and monera
Answer:
A. Plant decomposers are bacteria (Kingdom Monera) and fungi.
94. Adhesive pad of fungi penetrates the host with the help of [NEET 2001]
A. mechanical pressure and enzymes
B. hooks and suckers
C. softening by enzymes
D. only by mechanical pressure
Answer:
A. The fungal hyphae secrete enzymes which convert insoluble complex food material in the substratum to the soluble ones. The hyphae wall of intracellular hyphae come in contact with the host protoplasm and obtain food by direct diffusion.
95. A good green manure in rice fields is [NEET 2000]
A. Aspergillus B. Azolla
C. Salvinia D. Mucor
Answer: B. Aspergillus is a fungus, Mucor is also a fungus. Azolla harbors blue-green algae Anabaena which fixes N2, increasing fertility.
96. In fungi stored food material is [NEET 2000]
A. glycogen B. starch
C. sucrose D. glucose
Answer:
A. Glycogen is a glucosan homopolysaccharide which is the major reserve food of animals, fungi and some bacteria. Starch is also glucosan homopolysaccharide and is the major reserve food of plants. Sucrose is formed of one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose.
97. Black rust of wheat is caused by [NEET 2000]
A. Puccinia B. Mucor
C. Aspergillus D. Rhizopus
Answer:
A. Black rust of wheat is caused by Puccinia graminis. The symptoms are seen in stem or leaf sheath as brownish spot.
98. Puccinia forms [NEET 1998]
A. uredia and aecia on wheat leaves
B. uredia and telia on wheat leaves
C. uredia and aecia on barberry leaves
D. uredia and pycnia on barberry leaves
Answer: B. Puccinia causes black rust of wheat . It completes its life cycle in two hosts-wheat and barberry. Two types of spores are produced on wheat – uredospores and teleutospores.
99. Mycorrhiza is [NEET 1996]
A. a symbiotic association of plant roots and certain fungi
B. an association of algae with fungi
C. a fungus parasitising root system of higher plants
D. an association of Rhizobium with the roots of leguminous plants
Answer:
A. Association of algae and fungi is referred to as lichen. Symbiotic association of Rhizobium with roots of leguminous plants is referred to as symbiosis. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants. The fungal partner of mycorrhiza obtains food from roots of the higher plant and in return supplies mineral elements to it.
100. Which of the following is not correctly matched? [NEET 1995]
A. root knot disease – Meloidogyne javanica
B. smut of bajra – Tolysporium penicillariae
C. covered smut of barley – Ustilago nuda
D. late blight of potato – Phytophthora infestans
Answer: C. Covered smut of barley is caused by Ustilago hordei, not by Ustilago nuda. This disease is purely externally seed borne.
101. The chemical compounds produced by the host plants to protect themselves against fungal infection is [NEET 1995]
A. phytotoxin B. pathogen
C. phytoalexins D. hormone
Answer: C. Phytoalexins are non-specific antibiotic substances produced by plants in response to infection by a fungus.
102. White rust disease is caused by [NEET 1995]
A. Claviceps B. Alternaria
C. Phytophthora D. Albugo candida
Answer: D. Albugo candida is an obligate parasite causing white rust on members of family Cruciferae and other hosts.
103. Ustilago causes plant diseases called smut because [NEET 1994]
A. they parasitise cereals
B. mycelium is black
C. they develop sooty masses of spores
D. affected parts becomes completely black.
Answer: D. Smut disease is caused by Ustilago species of basidiomycetes fungi. It is characterised by formation of black coloured chlamydospores or teleutospores called smut spore due to which the affected part becomes black.
104. Claviceps purpurea is causal organism of [NEET 1994]
A. Smut of Barley
B. Rust of Wheat
C. Ergot of Rye
D. Powdery Mildew of Pea.
Answer: C. The fungus that causes the disease ‘Ergot of Rye’ is Claviceps purpurea. It contains many poisonous alkaloids. The hallucinogenic drug LSD is extracted from this fungi. Rust of wheat is used by Puccinia graminis. Powdery mildew of pea is caused by Erysiphae.
105. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited by [NEET 1990]
A. Algae B. Fungi
C. Bryophytes D. Pteridophytes
Answer: B. Fungi are nutritionally saprophytes, which grow on dead and decaying matter. They secrete enzyme to the external medium where digestion takes place and digested food is absorbed by the body surface. They convert complex organic constituents of dead body into simple soluble forms. That is why fungi are regarded as decomposers.
106. Viroids differ from viruses in having; [NEET 2017]
A. DNA molecules without protein coat
B. RNA molecules with protein coat
C. RNA molecules without protein coat
D. DNA molecules with protein coat
Answer: C. Viroids in nature are sub-viral agents as infectious RNA particles, without protein coat.
107. Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids? [NEET 2016]
A. They lack a protein coat
B. They are smaller than viruses
C. They cause infections
D. Their RNA is of high molecular weight
Answer: D. Viroids, the smallest known pathogens, are naked, circular, single-stranded RNA molecules that do not encode protein but autonomously replicate when introduced into host plants. Viroids only infect plants; some cause economically important diseases of crop plants, while others appear to be benign.
108. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres? [NEET 2014]
A. Polio virus
B. Tobacco masaic virus
C. Measles virus
D. Retrovirus
Answer: B. TMV (Tobacco Mosaic Virus) is a rod-shaped virus. The rod has a core which contains helically coiled single stranded RNA. There is a protective covering of protein called capsid around the infective part. Capsid consists of small subunits called capsomeres and has antigenic property.
109. Viruses have: [NEET 2014]
A. DNA enclosed in a protein coat
B. Prokaryotic nucleus
C. Single chromosome
D. Both DNA and RNA
Answer:
A. All viruses are nucleoproteins (Nucleic acid + Protein) in the structure. The nucleic acid (DNA and RNA) is the genetic material. In a particular virus either DNA or RNA is the genetic material. Both are never present in a virus. Single stranded RNA or ss RNA – Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) Virus envelope is known as capsid. The capsid is composed of protein subunits called capsomere.
110. Satellite RNAs are present in some [NEET NEET Kar. 2013]
A. Plant viruses B. Viroids
C. Prions D. Bacteriophages
Answer:
A. Plant viruses often contain parasites of their own, referred to as satellites. Satellite RNAs are dependent on their associated (helper) virus for both replication and encapsidation. Example—Tobacco Necrosis Virus (TNV). Viroids are infectious agents smaller than viruses. Bacteriophages are viruses that infect the bacteria. A prion is an infectious agent that is composed primarily of protein.
111. Which statement is wrong for viruses? [NEET 2012]
A. All are parasites
B. All of them have helical symmetry
C. They have ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins
D. Antibiotics have no effect on them
Answer: B. All the viruses are obligate parasite i.e. they remain inert outside the host cell. They have ability to syntheize nucleic acids and proteins by using host cellular machinery (ribosomes, tRNAs, aminoacids, energy). Three shapes are found in viruses helical (elongate body e.g. T.M.V), cuboidal (short broad body with rhombic rounded, polyhedral shape e.g. Poliomyelitis virus) and binal (with both cuboidal and helical parts e.g. many bacteriophages like T2). Antibiotics have no effect on them, antiviral drugs can only kill them.
112. Virus envelope is known as: [NEET 2010]
A. Capsid B. Virion
C. Nucleoprotein D. Core
Answer:
A. Virus envelope is known as capsid. The capsid is composed of protein subunits called capsomere.
113. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a [NEET 2006]
A. Prion B. Worm
C. Bacterium D. Virus
Answer:
A. Mad cow disease is actually Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy or BSE. In this disease cattles in Britain got spongy brain & ultimately gradual degradation of nervous system. It is caused by some virus like but nucleic acid devoid proteinaceous particles called prions (proteinaceous infectious particle).
114. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated chromosomes because [NEET 2003]
A. both require the environment of a cell to replicate
B. they require both RNA and DNA
C. they both need food molecules
D. they both require oxygen for respiration
Answer:
A. Viruses can live only inside the host cell, using their machinery for its own metabolism.
115. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct ? [NEET 2003]
A. Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid
B. Viruses possess their own metabolic system
C. All viruses contain both RNA and DNA
D. Viruses are obligate parasites
Answer: D. Virus is a nucleoprotein entity which becomes active only inside a living cells utilizing the latter machinery for multiplication. Capsid is the protein covering the genetic material.
116. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size [NEET 2003]
A. 700 × 30 nm B. 300 × 10 nm
C. 300 × 5 nm D. 300 × 20 nm
Answer: D. Tobacco mosaic virus is 300 nm long and 20 nm in diameter.
117. Cauliflower mosaic virus contains [NEET 2001]
A. ss RNA B. ds RNA
C. ds DNA D. ss DNA
Answer: C. Cauliflower mosaic virus contains double stranded DNA.
118. Enzymes are absent in [NEET 2000]
A. Cyanobacteria B. Viruses
C. Algae D. Fungi
Answer: B. Enzymes are absent in viruses because they are unable to transmit their nucleic acid from one host cell to another.
119. A virus can be considered a living organism because it [NEET 2000]
A. responds to touch stimulus
B. respires
C. reproduces (inside the host)
D. can cause disease
Answer: C. Virus is an ultra microscopic nucleoprotein entity which becomes active only inside a living cell. It resembles living beings due to presence of genetic material and reproduction.
120. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct? [NEET 1997]
A. Viruses possess their own metabolic system
B. Viruses contain either DNA or RNA
C. Viruses are facultative parasites
D. Viruses are readily killed by antibiotics
Answer: B. Viruses have either DNA or RNA as the genetic material. Viruses having RNA as the genetic material are known as retroviruses.
121. Influenza virus has [NEET 1996]
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. both DNA and RNA
D. only proteins and no nucleic acids.
Answer: B. Influenza virus is a retrovirus wherein, the genetic material comprises of RNA. There are three genera of influenza virus, identified by antigenic differences in their nucleoprotein and matrix protein: Influenza virus A are the cause of all flu pandemics and are known to infect humans, other mammals and birds (see also avian influenza). Influenza virus B are known to infect humans and seals. Influenza virus C are known to infect humans and pigs.
122. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) genes are [NEET 1994]
A. double stranded RNA
B. single stranded RNA
C. polyribonucleotides
D. proteinaceous
Answer: B. All viruses are nucleoprotein (Nucleic acid + Protein) in their structure. The nucleic acid (DNA and RNA) is genetic material. In a particular virus either DNA or RNA is genetic material. Both are never present in a virus. Hence viruses contains: (i) Double stranded DNA (ds DNA) – Hepatitis B (ii) Single stranded DNA (ss DNA) – coliphage (iii) Double stranded RNA (ds RNA) – Reo virus, wound Tumor virus (iv) Single stranded RNA (ss RNA) – Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV)
123. Rickettsiae constitute a group under [NEET 1994]
A. bacteria
B. viruses
C. independent group between bacteria and viruses
D. fungi
Answer: C. Rickettsia are tiny obligate, intracellular parasites found in blood sucking insects like lices, mites, ticks. They were first observed by Ricketts in 1909 but it was properly described by Rocha-lime 1916, who named them as Rickettsia. They have mucopeptide cell wall with DNA as genetic material and are independent entity causing diseases like Q-fever, typhus etc.
124. Organisms which are indicator of SO2 pollution of air [NEET 1992]
A. Mosses B. Lichens
C. Mushrooms D. Puffballs
Answer: B. Lichens are composite organisms representing a symbiotic association between fungus and a algae. It can be crustose, foliose and fruticose types. They are the pioneer organisms in a new habitat. Lichens are used as indicator of air pollution. It does grow in the environment where pollution level is high, SO2 is strong air pollutant and lichens are very sensitive to SO2.
125. Which of the following are most suitable indicators of SO2 pollution in the environment? [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Conifers B. Algae
C. Fungi D. Lichens
Answer: D. Lichens cannot grow in places where sulphur dioxide is present in the environment.
126. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its taxonomic group? [NEET 2012]
A. Paramoecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicillium
B. Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an algae and a protozoan
C. Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus
D. Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista
Answer: C. Saccharomyces cervisiae is a yeast used in making bread (Baker’s yeast) and commercial production of ethanol. Paramoecium & Plasmodium are of animal kingdom while Pencillium is a fungi. Lichen is composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an algae and a fungus. Nostoc & Anabaena are examples of kingdom monera.
127. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus [NEET 2005]
A. provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the alga
B. provides food for the alga
C. fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
D. releases oxygen for the alga
Answer:
A. Lichens (coined by Theophrastus) are composite or dual organisms which are formed by a fungus partner or mycobiont (mostly ascomycetes) and an algal partner (mostly blue green algae). Fungus forms the body of lichen as well as its attaching and absorbing structures. Algae performs photosynthesis and provides food to the fungus.
128. Lichens are a well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has [NEET 2004]
A. a saprophytic relationship with the alga
B. an epiphytic relationship with the alga
C. a parasitic relationship with the alga
D. a symbiotic relationship with the alga
Answer: D. Lichens are composite organisms formed by symbiotic association between a fungus and alga. A saprophyte is an organism feeding on dead, decaying organic matter. Epiphyte is a plant growing over another plant. Parasites live inside their host.
129. Most of the Lichens consist of [NEET 1997]
A. blue-green algae and basidomycetes
B. blue-green algae and ascomycetes
C. red algae and ascomycetes
D. brown algae and phycomycetes
Answer: B. The lichen fungus is typically a member of the Ascomycota, rarely a member of the Basidiomycota. The algal or cyanobacterial cells are photosynthetic, and as in higher plants they reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide into organic carbon sugars to feed both symbionts. Both partners gain water and mineral nutrients mainly from the atmosphere through rain and dust. The fungal partner protects the alga by retaining water, serving as a larger surface area for capture of mineral nutrients and, in some cases, provides minerals obtained from the substratum. If a cyanobacterium is present, as a primary partner or another symbiont in addition to green alga as in certain tripartite lichens, they can fix atmospheric nitrogen, complementing the activities of the green alga.
130. Which one of the following is not true about lichens? [NEET 1996]
A. Their body is composed of both algal and fungal cells
B. Some form food for reindeers in arctic regions
C. Some species can be used as pollution indicators
D. These grow very fast at the rate of about 2 cm per year
Answer: D. Lichens are composite organisms formed by the association between a fungus and a photosynthetic symbiont. The bulk of lichen body is formed of fungus.
131. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they [NEET 1989]
A. show association between algae and fungi
B. grow faster than others
C. are sensitive to SO2
D. flourish in SO2 rich environment
Answer: C. Lichens typically grow in harsh environments in nature. Most lichens, especially epiphytic fruticose species and those containing cyanobacteria, are sensitive to manufactured pollutants. Hence, they have been widely used as pollution indicator organisms. Lichens are symbiotic associations of a fungus with a photosynthetic partner (called a photobiont or phycobiont) that can produce food for the lichen from sunlight. Ω
3. Plant Kingdom
1. An example of colonial alga is : [NEET 2017]
A. Volvox B. Ulothrix
C. Spirogyra D. Chlorella
Answer:
A. Volvox is motile colonial fresh water green alga. It forms spherical colonies.
2. Male gemetes are flagellated in : [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Anabaena B. Ectocarpus
C. Spirogyra D. Polysiphonia
Answer: B. Male gametes are flagellated in Ectocarpus (phaeophyceae). They possess heterokont, lateral flagella.
3. Which one of the following statements is wrong? [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Agar – agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
B. Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
C. Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
D. Algin and carragen are products of algae
Answer: C. Mannitol or laminarin is the stored food in phaeophyceae (brown algae).
4. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes? [NEET 2014]
A. Sargassum B. Ectocarpus
C. Ulothrix D. Spirogyra
Answer: D. In Spirogyra, sexual reproduct ion occurs through conjugation. Gametes are non-f lagellated, morphologically similar. But physiologically different (isogamy with physiological anisogamy).
5. Which one of the following is wrong about Chara? [NEET 2014]
A. Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium.
B. Globule and nucule present on the same plant.
C. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium.
D. Globule is male reproductive structure.
Answer: C. Chara is a green alga found attached to bottoms of shallow water of ponds, pools and lakes. Male sex organ is called antheridium. Female sex organ is called oogonium. Oogonium is borne at the top of the four celled filament.
6. An alga which can be employed as food for human being is: [NEET 2014]
A. Ulothrix B. Chlorella
C. Spirogyra D. Polysiphonia
Answer: B. Chlorella and Spirullina are unicellular algae, rich in proteins and are used as food supplements by space travellers.
7. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in : [NEET NEET 2013]
A. Spirogyra B. Volvox
C. Fucus D. Chlamydomonas
Answer:
A. In Spirogyra, sexual reproduct ion occurs through conjugation. Gametes are non-f lagellated, morphologically similar. But physiologically different (isogamy with physiological anisogamy). Volvox and Fucus are examples of oogamous and Chlamydomonas contains isogamous flagellated gametes.
8. Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme? [NEET NEET 2013]
A. Plant cells-Cellulase
B. Algae-Methylase
C. Fungi-Chitinase
D. Bacteria-Lysozyme
Answer: B. Algae is a plant and so its cell wall is made up of cellulose. Cellulase enzyme is needed for degradation of its cell wall.
9. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? [NEET NEET Kar. 2013]
A. Nostoc-Water blooms
B. Spirogyra-Motile gametes
C. Sargassum-Chlorophyll c
D. Basidiomycetes-Puffballs
Answer: B. Cyanobacteria, e.g., Nostoc, grow in such abundance as to form water blooms. Sargassum belongs to brown algae which possess chl a, c, carotenoids, xanthophyll and a characteristic brown pigment, fucoxanthin. Commonly known forms of basidiomycetes are mushrooms, bracket fungi or puffballs. In Spirogyra gametes are non-f lagellated (non-motile) but similar in size. They show amoeboid movements.
10. Algae have cell wall made up of: [NEET 2010]
A. cellulose, galactans and mannans
B. hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
C. pectins, cellulose and proteins
D. cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
Answer:
A. Algae possess a def inite cell wall containing cellulose, galactans and mannans.
11. Mannitol is the stored food in: [NEET 2009]
A. Porphyra B. Fucus
C. Gracillaria D. Chara
Answer: B. Mannitol is a food stored in Fucus. Fucus is a genus of brown alga in the class Phaeophyceae to be found in the intertidal zones of rocky seashores almost everywhere in the world. Primary chemical constituents of this plant include mucilage, algin, mannitol, beta-carotene, zeaxanthin, iodine, bromine, potassium, volatile oils, and many other minerals.
12. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose? [NEET 2007]
A. nature of stored food materials in the cell
B. structural organization of thallus
C. chemical composition of the cell wall
D. types of pigments present in the cell.
Answer: D. It will be types of pigment present in the cell, like Rhodophyceae shows presence of phycoerythrin, chlorophyceae shows presence of phycocyanin etc.
13. Floridean starch is found in [NEET 2000]
A. Chlorophyceae B. Rhodophyceae
C. Myxophyceae D. Cyanophyceae
Answer: B. Reserve food in red algae (Rhodophyceae) is Floridean starch. In green algae, (Chlorophyceae), reserve food is starch. In brown algae, reserve food is laminarin and manitol. In cyanophyceae reserve food is cyanophycean starch.
14. A research student collected certain alga and found that its cells contained both chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b as well as phycoerythrin.The alga belongs to [NEET 2000]
A. Rhodophyceae
B. Bacillariophyceae
C. Chlorophyceae
D. Phaeophyceae
Answer:
A. In green algae, the photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll a & b, carotenes and xanthophylls. In phaeophyceae, the pigments are chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c and carotenes and xanthophylls. Phycoerythrin gives red colour to Rhodophyceae.
15. Columella is a specialised structure found in the sporangium of [NEET 1999]
A. Ulothrix B. Rhizopus
C. Spirogyra D. None of these
Answer: B. Ulothrix is a green alga. Spirogyra is a filamentous green alga. In Rhizopus the columella bears the spores for asexual reproduction.
16. Ulothrix can be described as a [NEET 1998]
A. non-motile colonial alga lacking zoospores
B. filamentous alga lacking flagellated reproductive stages
C. membranous alga producing zoospores
D. filamentous alga with flagellated reproductive stages
Answer: D. Spirogyra is a filamentous alga lacking flagellated reproductive stages.
17. An alga very rich in protein is [NEET 1997]
A. Spirogyra B. Ulothrix
C. Oscillatoria D. Chlorella
Answer: D. Chlorella can be grown to provide human food rich in protein, lipid, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals. Chlorella has been researched as a potential source of food and energy, because its efficiency of photosynthesis can reach 8%, which is comparable with other highly efficient crops such as sugar cane. It is high in protein and other essential nutrients. When dried, it has about 45 percent protein, 20 percent fat, 20 percent carbohydrate, 5% fiber, and 10 percent minerals and vitamins.
18. Ulothrix filaments produce [NEET 1997]
A. isogametes B. anisogametes
C. heterogametes D. basidiospores
Answer:
A. Sexual reproduction in Ulothrix is isogamous type. Only similar type of gametes called isogametes are produced.
19. Brown algae is characterised by the presence of [NEET 1997]
A. phycocyanin B. phycoerythrin
C. fucoxanthin D. haematochrome
Answer: C. Phycoerythrins are accessory photosynthetic pigments along with phycocyanins. Haematochrome is a pigment in the blood. Brown algae is brown due to fucoxanthin.
20. Blue-green algae belong to [NEET 1996]
A. Eukaryotes B. Prokaryotes
C. Rhodophyceae D. Chlorophyceae
Answer: B. Blue green algae or cyanobacteria are prokaryotes. Prokaryotes lack a well defined nucleus surrounded by nuclear membrane. Eukaryotes have well organised nucleus. Rhodophyceae & Chlorophyceae are members of algae which come under eukaryotes.
41. Peat Moss is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because [NEET 2006]
A. it is hygroscopic
B. It reduces transpiration
C. it serves as a disinfectant
D. it is easily available
Answer:
A. Peat moss is used wherever we require to retain water for a long because peat mosses are hygroscopic in nature and they absorb the moisture from the atmosphere and this moisture keep the living materials and flowers fresh for a long time.
42. Which of the following propagates through leaf- tip? [NEET 2004]
A. Walking fern
B. Sproux-leaf plant
C. Marchantia
D. Moss
Answer:
A. In mosses vegetative propagation occurs by fragmentation. Marchantia is a liverwort in which propagation also occurs by fragmentation. Walking fern Adiantum propagates through leaf tip.
43. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced feature because it shows [NEET 2003]
A. physiologically differentiated sex organs
B. different sizes of motile sex organs
C. same size of motile sex organs
D. morphologically different sex organs
Answer:
A. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra occurs by conjugation involving union of two gametes. The fusing gametes are similar but one is more active and passes onto the other cell. This differentiation of gametes is called physiological anisogamy.
44. The antherozoids of Funaria are [NEET 1999]
A. aciliated B. flagellated
C. multiciliated D. monociliated
Answer: B. Antherozoids of Funaria bear two flagella at anterior end and is spirally coiled.
45. Bryophytes comprise [NEET 1999]
A. sporophyte of longer duration
B. dominant phase of sporophyte which is parasitic
C. dominant phase of gametophyte which produces spores
D. small sporophyte phase and generally parasitic on gametophyte.
Answer: D. In bryophytes, the dominant and independent living phase of the life cycle is gametophyte. Sporophyte is always attached and dependent upon the gametophytic plant body for water supply, fixation, and part or whole nutrient requirement.
46. Which of the following is true about bryophytes? [NEET 1999]
A. They possess archegonia
B. They contain chloroplast
C. They are thalloid
D. All of these
Answer: D. Bryophytes are non vascular embryophytes characterized by the presence of an independent gametophyte and a parasitic sporophyte. Plant body is either thalloid or foliose. Archegonium is the f lask shaped female sex organ. They bear chloroplast.
47. Bryophytes are dependent on water because [NEET 1998]
A. water is essential for fertilization for their homosporous nature
B. water is essential for their vegetative propagation
C. the sperms can easily reach upto egg in the archegonium
D. archegonium has to remain filled with water for fertilization
Answer: C. Bryophytes require a thin film of water on the surface of their substratum during sexual reproduction for the following reasons: (i) dehiscence of antheridia requires absorption of water from outside (ii) dehiscence of archegonium (iii) swimming of sperms to reach the archegonia
48. Bryophytes can be separated from algae because they [NEET 1997]
A. are thalloid forms
B. have no conducting tissue
C. possess archegonia with outer layer of sterile cells
D. contain chloroplasts in their cells
Answer: C. Archegonium is the flask shaped female sex organ in bryophytes while algae have non-jacketed sex organs (gametangia).
49. In which one of these the elaters are present along with mature spores in the capsule (to help in spore dispersal)? [NEET 1996]
A. Riccia B. Marchantia
C. Funaria D. Sphagnum
Answer: B. In Marchantia, capsule elaters are present which help in dispersal of spores.
50. The plant body of moss (Funaria) is [NEET 1995]
A. completely sporophyte
B. completely gametophyte
C. predominantly sporophyte with gametophyte
D. predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte
Answer: D. The gametophytic generation represents the dominant phase in the life cycle of bryophytes. The sporophyte phase is dependent on the gametophyte. That is why, the plant body of Funaria is predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte.
51. Unique features of Bryophytes is that they
A. produce spores [NEET 1994]
B. have sporophyte attached to gametophyte
C. lack roots
D. lack vascular tissues
Answer: B. In bryophytes, the plant body is gametophyte. Sporophyte remains attached to the gametophyte and produces spores. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte.
52. Protonema occurs in the life cycle of [NEET 1990, 1993]
A. Riccia B. Funaria
C. Somatogamy D. Spirogyra
Answer: B. In Funaria, the spore germinates to form a green multicellular structure called as protonema which later on develops into gametophyte. Presence of protonema is a characteristic feature of moss.
53. Bryophytes are amphibians because [NEET 1991]
A. they require a layer of water for carrying out sexual reproduction
B. they occur in damp places
C. they are mostly aquatic
D. all the above
Answer:
A. Bryophytes are amphibians because they complete their vegetative phase on land but water is necessary for their reproductive phase.
54. Apophysis in the capsule of Funaria is [NEET 1990]
A. lower part B. upper part
C. middle part D. fertile part
Answer:
A. Capsule of Funaria is differentiated into: (1) Operculum – upper part – forms lid
(2) Theca – Middle – fertile part (3) Apophysis – lower part -photosynthetic
55. Moss peristome takes part in [NEET 1990]
A. spore dispersal B. photosynthesis
C. protection D. absorption
Answer:
A. Peristomes are teeth present in the capsule of moss. These are in two rows and helps in the dispersal of the spores due to hygroscopic nature.
56. Sperms of both Funaria and Pteris were released together near the archegonia of Pteris. Only its sperms enter the archegonia as [NEET 1989]
A. Pteris archegonia repel Funaria sperms
B. Funaria sperms get killed by Pteris sperms
C. Funaria sperms are less mobile
D. Pteris archegonia release chemical to attract its sperms
Answer: D. Archegonia of a particular species recognises antherozoids (sperms) of the same species through release of chemical. In Pteris, archegonia produces malic acid which attracts sperms of Pteris only for fertilization.
57. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires [NEET 2016]
A. Wind B. Insects
C. Birds D. Water
Answer: D. Bryophytes neither have pollen nor flowers and rely on water to carry the male gametes (sperm) to the female gametes (eggs). The antherozoids (male gametes of pteridophytes) are armed with hair-like or whip-like cilia or flagellae and are able to swim through water; they do not travel great distances and are only released when free water is available.
58. The plant body is thalloid in [NEET NEET Kar. 2013]
A. Funaria B. Sphagnum
C. Salvinia D. Marchantia
Answer: D. The plant body of a liverwort is haploid (n), gametophytic, small, dorsoventrally flattened, thallose, dichotomously branched fixed by unicellular and unbranched rhizoids, e.g., Marchantia.
59. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step towards evolution of seed habit because: [NEET 2011M]
A. female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds
B. female gametophyte lacks archaegonia
C. megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat
D. embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte.
Answer: D. Selaginella and Salvinia are advanced pteridophytes.
60. In which one of the following, male and female gametophytes do not have free living independent existence? [NEET 2008]
A. Pteris B. Funaria
C. Polytrichum D. Cedrus
Answer: D. Male and female gametophytes of Cedrus do not have free living independent existence. Cedrus belongs to conifer.
61. Which one of the following is heterosporous?
A. Dryopteris B. Salvinia [NEET 2008]
C. Adiantum D. Equisetum
Answer: B. Salvinia is an aquat ic fern with both annual and perennial species the heterosporous have two types of spores, microspores and megaspores.
62. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature a different times. As a result [NEET 2007]
A. there is high degree of sterility
B. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
C. self-fertilization is prevented
D. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
Answer: C. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogams the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times which result in failure of self-fertilization.
63. In Ferns meiosis occurs when [NEET 2000]
A. spore germinates
B. gametes are formed
C. spores are formed
D. antheridia and archegonia are formed
Answer: C. Gametic meiosis is found in all animals. In sporic meiosis the sporophyte produces sporangia where meiosis occurs producing haploid spores.
64. Dichotomous branching is found in [NEET 1999]
A. Fern B. Funaria
C. Liverworts D. Marchantia
Answer: D. In mosses branching is lateral but extraaxillary (Funaria). Marchantia is a dorsiventral dichotomously branched thalloid liverwort. In Sphagnum branching is profuse.
65. The “walking” fern is so named because
A. it is dispersed through the agency of walking animals [NEET 1998]
B. it propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips
C. it knows how to walk by itself
D. its spores are able to walk
Answer: B. Vegetative reproduction occurs in ferns by fragmentation of rhizome and growth of adventitious buds. In Adiantum caudatum the adventitious buds occur at the leaf tips. It is called the walking fern because of its ability to form new ferns whenever the leaf tip happens to come in contact with soil.
66. Multicellular branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are characteristic of [NEET 1997]
A. all bryophytes
B. some bryophytes
C. all pteridophytes
D. some peteriodphytes
Answer: B. In pteridophytes, the gametophyte is independent living, small thalloid structure called prothallus. In pteridophytes, the primary roots are replaced by adventitious roots. Whereas in bryophytes, the gametophyte is leafy.
67. The ‘amphibians’ of plant kingdom are
A. unicellular motile algae [NEET 1996]
B. multicellular non-motile algae
C. bryophytes with simple internal organization
D. pteridophytes with complex internal organization not reaching angiosperm level.
Answer: C. Bryophytes are terrestial plants but they require a thin film of water on the surface of their substratum during sexual reproduction, hence they are called amphibians of the plant kingdom.
68. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/ bryophytes in possessing [NEET 1993]
A. independent gametophyte
B. well developed vascular system
C. archegonia
D. flagellate spermatozoids
Answer: B. Well developed vascular system is present in the members of Pteridophytes but absent in mosses as the plant body is sporophyte which is distinguished into true root, stem and leaves. Independent gametophyte, archegonia flagellate spermatozoids are present in moss and pteridophyte both.
69. The plant group that produces spores and embryo but lacks vascular tissues and seeds is [NEET 1992]
A. Pteridophyta B. Rhodophyta
C. Bryophyta D. Phaeophyta
Answer: C. Bryophytes are the plants which produces spores and embryo but no vascular tissues are present, although primitive type of conducting tissues are present in the form of hadrome and leptome. Rhodophytes & phaeophytes are algae producing spores, but no embryo & vascular tissue Pteridophytes have spores, embryo and true vascular tissues.
70. Which one of the following is not common between Funaria and Selaginella? [NEET 1992]
A. Archegonium B. Embryo
C. Flagellate sperms D. Roots
Answer: D. Funaria, is a moss (Bryophyte) that possesses archegonium, embryo, flagellated sperms. These are also present in Selaginella (Pteriodophyte) but it also has roots which are absent in Funaria.
71. Evolutionary important character of Selaginella is [NEET 1989]
A. heterosporous nature
B. rhizophore
C. strobili
D. ligule
Answer:
A. Presence of two types of spores microspores and megaspores (heterospory) is the evolutionary characteristic in the life cycle of Selaginella.
72. Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise to fern plant (sporophyte) without fertilization. It is [NEET 1988]
A. apospory B. apogamy
C. parthenocarpy D. parthenogenesis
Answer: B. When prothallus of a fern gives rise to sporophyte directly from somatic cell without forming gametes it is apogamy. Such type of sporophyte is haploid in nature. Development of gametophyte directly from sporophyte without meiosis and without forming spores, is apospory.
73. Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?
A. Heterospory [NEET 2009]
B. Haplontic life cycle
C. Free -living gametophyte
D. Dependent sporophyte
Answer:
A. Heterospory is considered important in the development of seed habit. Heterospory is the production of spores of two different sizes and sexes by the sporophytes of land plants. Heterospory was evolved from isospory independently by several plant groups in the Devonian period as part of the process of evolution of the timing of sex differentiation. Heterosporic plants produce small spores called microspores which either germinate to become male gametophytes or have reduced male gametophytes packaged within them, and similarly larger spores called megaspores that germinate into female gametophytes, or which have female gametophytes packaged within them.
74. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general term [NEET 2003]
A. Thallophytes B. Cryptogams
C. Bryophytes D. Sporophytes
Answer: B. The plants which reproduce by spores and do not produce seeds are called cryptogams. The term cryptogams is made of 2 Greek words ie. Kryptos (hidden) + gamos (marriage). These include Bryophytes (mosses) and Pteridophytes (ferns).
75. Select the mismatch [NEET 2017]
A. Cycas – Dioecious
B. Salvinia – Heterosporous
C. Equisetum – Homosporous
D. Pinus – Dioecious
Answer: D. Pinus is monoecious plant comprising of both male and female cones on same plant.
76. Select the correct statement: [NEET 2016]
A. Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
B. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
C. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
D. The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
Answer: C. Sequoia semepervirans is one of the tallest trees.
77. In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living ? [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Marchantia B. Pteris
C. Pinus D. Funaria
Answer: C. Pinus belongs to gymnosperms in which male and female gametophytes do not have an independent free living existance. They remain within the sporangia which are of two types — microsporangia and megasporangia.
78. Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements : [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.
B. Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte
C. Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM
D. Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic
(E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophyte
A. (B), C. and D. B. (A), D. and (E)
C. (B), C. and (E) D. (A), C. and (D)
Answer: B. Selaginella is a heterosporus pteridophyte containing micro & megaspores. In Cycas, corolloid root has the cyanobacteria – Anabaena.
79. Besides paddy fields cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of : [NEET NEET 2013]
A. Cycas B. Equisetum
C. Psilotum D. Pinus
Answer:
A. In Cycas specialised root called coralloid roots are associated with N2 – f ixing cyanobacteria either Nostoc or Anabaena. Coralloid roots lie near the soil surface. They are irregular and often dichotomously branched. Root hair and root cap are absent in these roots.
80. Read the following statements (A-E) and answer the question which follows them. [NEET NEET 2013]
1. In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living
2. Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous.
3. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous
4. The sporophyte in liveworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
5. Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Two B. Three
C. Four D. One
Answer: B. In liverworts and ferns gametophytes are free living while in fern, sporophytes are free living. Gymnosperms and genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous. The sporophyte in mosses are more elaborate than that of liverworts, Pinus is monoecious and heterosporous. Marchantia is dioecious.
81. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo? [NEET NEET Kar. 2013]
A. Independent sporophyte
B. Presence of archegonia
C. Well developed vascular tissues
D. Independent gametophyte
Answer: B. The female sex organ archegonium is formed in bryophytes (Funaria), pteridophytes (Dryopteris) and gymnosperms (Ginkgo).
82. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having: [NEET 2012]
A. Seeds B. Motile Sperms
C. Cambium D. Vessels
Answer: B. Cycas (a gymnosperm) and Adiantum a pteridophyte, known as Maiden hair fern resemble each other in having motile sperm. Seeds, cambium are common in gymnosperms and absent in pteridophytes. True vessels are absent in both pteridophytes and gymnospems.
83. Which one of the following is a correct statement? [NEET 2012]
A. Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage
B. In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-living
C. Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes.
D. Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes
Answer: D. (1) Gametophyte of bryophytes bears protonemal & leafy stage.
(2) In gymnosperm female gametophyte is not free living. (3) They are present in Marchantia which is a bryophyte.
(4) Origin of seed habit started in pteridophyte Selaginaella.
84. Read the following five statements (A – E) and answer the question. [NEET 2012M]
A. In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte.
B. In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent.
C. The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum.
D. Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous.
(E) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls. How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Two B. Three
C. Four D. One
Answer:
A. Statement
A. and B. are correct Riccia is a liverwort in which simplest sporophyte consists of capsule only while Polytrichum is a moss in which sporophyte consists of foot, seta & capsule. Volvox is a fresh water green colonial alga. Reproduction is both sexual and asexual. Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Slime molds are consumer decomposer protists. They possess characters of plants (cellulosic cell wall), animals (phagotrophic nutrition) and fungi (spores).
85. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched? [NEET 2012M]
A. Ginkgo -Archegonia
B. Salvinia – Prothallus
C. Viroids – RNA
D. Mustard – Synergids
Answer:
A. Archegonia are not formed in Ginkgo.
86. Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong? [NEET 2011M]
A. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
B. Salvinia is heterosporous
C. The life cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic
D. In Pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees
A. Statements
A. and (C)
B. Statements
A. and (D)
C. Statements B. and (C)
D. Statements
A. and (B)
Answer: B.
A. Sporophyte is more developed in mosses rather than liverwort. B. Pinus is monoecious in which male & female cones are borne on different branches.
87. The gametophyte is not an independent, free living generation in : [NEET 2011]
A. Polytrichum B. Adiantum
C. Marchantia D. Pinus
Answer: C. The male gametes of bryophytes are bif lagellate, and those of pteriodophytes are multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes.
88. Which one of the following plants is monoecious? [NEET 2009]
A. Pinus B. Cycas
C. Papaya D. Marchantia
Answer:
A. Pinus plant is monoecious i.e. both male and female cone are present in same plant but on different branches. Pinus, with over 100 species, is the largest genus of conifers and the most widespread genus of trees in the Northern Hemisphere. Pinus are also extensively planted in temperate regions of the Southern Hemisphere. Pines have a relatively rich fossil record.
89. Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam? [NEET 2009]
A. Ginkgo B. Marchantia
C. Cedrus D. Equisetum
Answer: D. Equisetum is a vascular cryptogam. Equisetum is the only living genus in the Equisetaceae, a family of vascular plants that reproduce by spores rather than seeds. They are commonly known as horse tails. Equisetum is a “living fossil,” as it is the only known genus of the entire class Equisetopsida.
90. Select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms [NEET 2008]
A. absence of resin duct and leaf venation
B. presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia
C. perianth and two integuments
D. embryo development and apical meristem
Answer: B. The important features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms are presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia.
91. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets? [NEET 2007]
A. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
B. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
C. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
D. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
Answer: D. Gametophyte is not an independent free living generation in Pinus.
92. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents [NEET 2007]
A. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
B. an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg
C. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
D. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed.
Answer: C. The fertile region of microsporophyll bears a number of microsporangia or pollen sacs arranged in sori. The pollen chamber represents microsporangium, in which pollen grains develop.
93. Conifers differ from grasses in the [NEET 2006]
A. lack of xylem tracheids
B. absence of pollen tubes
C. formation of endosperm before fertilization
D. production of seeds from ovules
Answer: C. Conifers (Gymnosperms) differ from grasses (angiosperms) because in gymnosperms the female gametophyte is actually endosperm which is made before fertilization. While in grasses endosperm is a tissue formed by the fertilization of second male gamete to polar nuclei. Moreover in gymnosperms the endosperm is a haploid tissue while in angiosperms it is triploid.
94. Match items in Column I with those in Column II : Column I Column II
A. Peritrichous (J) Ginkgo flagellation
B. Living fossil (K) Macrocystis
C. Rhizophore (L) Escherichia coli
D. Smallest (M) Selaginella flowering plant
(E) Largest perennial (N) Wolffia alga Select the correct answer from the following:
A. A-L; B-J; C-M; D-N; E-K; [NEET 2005]
B. A-K; B-J; C-L; D-M; E-N
C. A-N; B-L; C-K; D-N; E-J;
D. A-J; B-K; C-N; D-L; E-K
Answer:
A. Peritrichous flagellation : Flagella all around e.g. Escherichia coli. Living fossil : Organisms which have undergone very little change since they first evolved e.g. Ginkgo. Rhizophore : Rhizophores are present in Selaginella which is a colourless, leaf less, positively geotropic, elongated structure. Smallest flowering plant : Wolffia. Largest perennial alga : Macrocystis.
95. Which one of the following is a living fossil?
A. Cycas B. Moss [NEET 2003, 04]
C. Saccharomyces D. Spirogyra
Answer:
A. Cycas revoluta a native of China and Japan commonly known as “Tesso” or Sago palm” is also called living fossil due to its primitive characters.
96. Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers? [NEET 2003]
A. Funaria and Pinus
B. Fern and Funaria
C. Funaria and Ficus
D. Ficus and Chlamydomonas
Answer: B. Pteridophytes (fern) and bryophytes (Funaria) are seedless plants. Gymnosperms (pines) and angiosperms (Ficus) are seed bearing plants.
97. Which one of the following is a living fossil? [NEET 1996, 97, 2003]
A. Pinus B. Opuntia
C. Ginkgo D. Thuja
Answer: C. Ginkgophyta is an ancient group, of which the sole living representative or living fossil is Ginkgo biloba or Maiden hair tree. It is native of South China.
98. Cycas has two cotyledons but not included in angiosperms because of [NEET 2001]
A. Naked ovules
B. Seems like monocot
C. Circinate ptyxis
D. Compound leaves
Answer:
A. In Cycas (gymnosperm) the seed does not occur inside a fruit but lies naked or exposed on the surface of megasporophyll.
99. In which of the following would you place the plants having vascular tissue lacking seeds? [NEET 1999, 2000]
A. Algae B. Bryophytes
C. Pteridophytes D. Gymnosperms
Answer: C. Pteridophytes are primitive seedless vascular plants. Bryophytes are non vascular embryophytes. Gymnosperms are seed plants in which conducting part of xylem consists of tracheids. Algae are non-vascular photosynthetic aquatics forming accessory spores for asexual reproduction.
100. Which one of the following statements about Cycas is incorrect? [NEET 1998]
A. It does not have a well-organized female flower
B. It has circinate vernation
C. Its xylem is mainly composed of xylem vessels
D. Its roots contain some blue-green algae.
Answer: C. In Cycas, conducting part of xylem consists of tracheids.
101. A well developed archegonium with neck consisting of 4-6 rows of neck canal cells, characterises [NEET 1995]
A. Gymnosperms only
B. Bryophytes and pteridophytes
C. Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
D. Gymnosperms and flowering plants
Answer: B. Archegonia is the female sex organ of bryophytes and pteridophytes. Its neck region is made up of 4-6 vertical rows of cells.
102. The ‘wing’ of Pinus seed is derived from
A. testa [NEET 1994]
B. testa and tegmen
C. surface of ovuliferous scale
D. all the above
Answer: C. The ovule matures into seed and is provided with wings. The upper surface of ovuliferous scale forms the membranous wings of the seed which helps in dispersal of the seed. The time taken from cone formation to seed dispersal is about two years in Pinus.
103. Which one is the most advanced from evolutionary point of view. [NEET 1993]
A. Selaginella B. Funaria
C. Chlamydomonas D. Pinus
Answer: D. Pinus is a conifer, a member of gymnosperm has well developed conducting tissue and presence of seed, whereas Selaginella is a member of pteridophyte (heterospory), Funaria is a moss, Chlamydomonas is an alga.
104. A plant in which sporophytic generation is represented by zygote [NEET 1992]
A. Pinus B. Selaginella
C. Chlamydomonas D. Dryopteris
Answer: C. The plant body of Chlamydomonas is gametophyte (haploid). It reproduces asexually by zoospore formation and sexually by gametes. Gametes are isogametes which fuse to produce diploid zygote which is the only structure representing sporophytic generation. In Pinus main plant body is sporophyte are is the case with Selaginella and Dryopteris.
105. A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and fruits belongs to [NEET 1992]
A. Pteridophytes B. Mosses
C. Ferns D. Gymnosperms
Answer: D. Gymnosperms are vascular land plants having naked ovules i.e., ovules are not enclosed in a ovary hence, flower is absent. Ovules after fertilization produce naked seeds. Pteridophytes (ferns) and mosses do not produce seed.
106. In Pinus, the pollen grain has 6 chromosomes then in its endosperm will have [NEET 1992]
A. 12 B. 18
C. 6 D. 24
Answer: C. Pollen grains are haploid (n). If haploid no. of chromosomes are 6 then endosperm will also have 6 chromosomes as it is formed before fertilization and is haploid.
107. Resin and turpentine are obtained from
A. Cycas B. Pinus [NEET 1992]
C. Cedrus D. Abies
Answer: B. Pinus species →Resins and turpentine Cedrus →Timber for railway sleepers Abies →Paper, Canada balsam. Cycas →ornamental plant
108. In Pinus/gymnosperms, the haploid structure are [NEET 1989]
A. megaspore, endosperm and embryo
B. megaspore, pollen grain and endosperm
C. megaspore, integument and root
D. pollen grain, leaf and root
Answer: B. Pinus and in all other gymnosperms endosperm is produced before fertilization and is haplolid. Megaspore and pollen grain are initial structures of female gametophyte and male gametophyte respectively hence, they are haploid.
109. In gymnosperms like Pinus and Cycas, the endosperm is [NEET 1988]
A. triploid B. haploid
C. diploid D. tetraploid
Answer: B. In gymnosperms like Cycas/Pinus, endosperms of female gametophyte is haploid and formed before fertilizaiton. In angiosperms, endosperm is triploid and develops after fertilization.
110. Double fertilization is exhibited by : [NEET 2017]
A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Angiosperms
D. Gymnosperms
Answer: C. Double fertilization is a unique feature exhibited only by angiosperms. It involves both syngamy and triple fusion.
111. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces: [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Single sperm and vegetative cell
B. Single sperm and two vegetative cells
C. Three sperms
D. Two sperms and a vegetative cell
Answer: D. Two sperms and a vegetative cell are produced by male gametophyte in angiosperms.
112. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis : [NEET 2015 RS]
A. form gametes without further divisions
B. Involve meiosis
C. occur in ovule
D. occur in anther
Answer: B. In meiosis, the number of chromosomes are reduced by half producing haploid daughter cells. The microspore mother cell and the megaspore mother cell undergo meiosis to produce haploid microspore and megaspore respectively.
113. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into [NEET 2011M]
A. embryo sac B. ovule
C. endosperm D. pollen sac
Answer:
A. During megagametogenesis functional megaspore (mostly chalazal) gives rise to embryo sac. This is the mature female gametophyte generation.
114. Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular plant are [NEET 2011]
A. smaller but have larger sex organs
B. larger but have smaller sex organs
C. larger and have larger sex organs
D. smaller and have smaller sex organs
Answer:
A. The gametophyte of bryophytes are smaller but have large sex organs.
115. Male and female gametophytes are independent and free -living in: [NEET 2010]
A. Mustard B. Castor
C. Pinus D. Sphagnum
Answer: D. Sphagnum is a bryophyte in which male and female gametophytes are independent and free living. In Pinus (a gymnosperm), mustard and castor (angiosperms), the main plant body is sporophytic. Gametophyte is highly reduced and is completely dependent on sporophyte.
116. Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle? [NEET 2009]
A. Polytrichum B. Ustilago
C. Wheat D. Funaria
Answer: B. Ustilago has a haplontic life cycle. This is a simplest and most primitive type of life cycle. The other pattern of life-cycle have originated from this type. This type is found in all chlorophyceae. In such cases the somatic phase (plant) is haploid (gametophyte) while the diploid phase (sporophyte) is represented by zygote. During germination the zygote (2n) divides meiotically producing haploid (n) zoospores, which develop into individual plant. Here the unicellular or filamentous gametophyte (n) alternates with one-celled zygote or sporophyte (2n). The haploid filamentous plants are known as haplonts which reproduce asexually by zoospores or aplanospores producing the individals like parents.
117. Which one pair of examples will correctly represent the grouping Spermatophyta according to one of the schemes of classifying plants ? [NEET 2003]
A. Ginkgo, Pisum
B. Acacia, Sugarcane
C. Pinus, Cycas
D. Rhizopus, Triticum
Answer:
A. Spermatophytes are the seed plants. They are the plants bearing seeds containing a dormant embryo. It includes gymnosperms and angiosperms. Ginkgo belongs to group gymnosperms and Pisum belongs to group angiosperms.
118. Which of the following plants produces seeds but not flowers? [NEET 2002]
A. Maize B. Mint
C. Peepal D. Pinus
Answer: D. Maize, mint and peepal are flowering plants or angiosperms but Pinus is a gymnosperm in which seeds are produced but flowers are not produced or seeds are not enclosed in flowers.
119. Which of the following is without exception in angiosperms? [NEET 2002]
A. presence of vessels
B. double fertilisation
C. secondary growth
D. autotrophic nutrition
Answer: B. Vesselless angiosperms are Wintera, Trochodendron etc. Secondary growth is absent in some angiosperms. Angiospermic plants are autotrophic in nutrition. But some angiosperms are heterotrophic in nutrition. The 4 special modes of nutrition and their examples include: (i) Saprophytic : e.g. Neottia, Monotropa. (ii) Symbiotic – e.g. Mycorrhiza-between fungus and roots of higher plants. (iii) Parasitic – Cuscuta. (iv) Insectivorous plant – Nepenthes. Double fertilization is characteristic of all angiosperms.
120. The largest ovules, largest male and female gametes and largest plants are found among
A. Angiosperms [NEET 2000]
B. Tree ferns and some monocots
C. Gymnosperms
D. Dicotyledonous plants
Answer: C. Egg of Cycas (Gymnosperms) and its nucleus are the largest in the plant kingdom. The sperms of Cycas are also the largest in the plant kingdom.
121. Largest sperms in the plant world are found in [NEET 1998]
A. Pinus B. Banyan
C. Cycas D. Thuja
Answer: C. The sperms of Cycas are the largest in the plant kingdom reaching a size of 300 m . Egg of Cycas and its nucleus are also the largest in the plant kingdom.
122. Seed-habit first originated in [NEET 1996]
A. certain ferns B. certain pines
C. certain monocots D. primitive dicots
Answer:
A. Seed habit originated in Cycadophiles or pteridosperms.
123. Sunken stomata is the characteristic feature of [NEET 1995]
A. hydrophyte B. mesophyte
C. xerophyte D. halophyte
Answer: C. Sunken stomata is the characteristic feature of xerophytes which help in reducing loss of water from leaf surface. These type of stomata are found in Oleander or Pine.
124. Pinus differs from mango in having [NEET 1993]
A. tree habit
B. green leaves
C. ovules not enclosed in ovary
D. wood
Answer: C. Pinus is a member of gymnosperm in which ovules are not enclosed in the ovary i.e. naked seed, whereas mango is a typical angiosperm whose ovules are enclosed in ovary i.e., presence of fruit.
125. Turpentine is obtained from [NEET 1992]
A. Angiospermous wood
B. Pteridophytes
C. Gymnospermous wood
D. Ferns
Answer: C. Turpentine is extracted from the wood (xylem) of Pinus (Gymnosperm). Turpentine is a f luid obtained by the complex distillation of resin obtained from trees, mainly various species of pine (Pinus). It is composed of terpenes, mainly the monoterpenes alpha-pinene and beta-pinene. Turpentine oil is obtained by boiling resin at 155 degrees Celsius in large tubs. It has a potent odor that is similar to that of nail polish remover.
126. Which one has the largest gametophyte? [NEET 1991]
A. Cycas B. Angiosperm
C. Selaginella D. Moss
Answer: D. As one moves from thallophyta →Bryophyta →Pteriodophyta →Gymnosperm →Angiosperms, there is reduction in the gametophyte and elaboration of sporophyte. Hence, moss has largest gametophyte. Moss →Selaginella →Cycas →Angiosperm →Reduction in Gametophyte. Ω
4. Animal Kingdom
1. Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land? [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Bilateral symmetry
B. Exoskeleton
C. Eyes
D. Segmentation
Answer: B. The exoskeleton of insects consists of chitinous cuticle. It gets hardened due to deposition of calcium. It prevents dessication and gives protection.
2. Metagenesis refers to: [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Alteration of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organisms
B. Occurrence of a drastic change in form during post-embroyonic development
C. Presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
D. Presence of different morphic forms
Answer:
A. Metagenesis is defined as alternation of generation found in phylum cnidaria (eg. Obelia). In this phenomenon one generation of an organism reproduces asexually, followed by a sexually reproducing generation.
3. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature? [NEET 2011]
A. Fungi B. Insects
C. Birds D. Angiosperms
Answer: B. In nature insects have the highest number of species (30 million). Fungi have 100,000, angiosperms have 260000 and birds have 10,000 species.
4. Radial symmetry is usually associated with
A. aquatic mode of life [NEET 1996]
B. lower grade of organisation
C. creeping mode of locomotion
D. sedentary mode of life
Answer: B. Coelom or body cavity, when derived from blastocoel is pseudocoelom as in nematodes, rotifers. In this type of cavity, mesoderm is lined by only one side i.e., towards the body wall. Schizocoel is true coelom derived from mesodermal segments.
5. True coelom is the space lying between the alimentary canal and body wall enclosed by the layers of [NEET 1996]
A. ectoderm on both sides
B. endoderm on one side and ectoderm on the other
C. mesoderm on one side and ectoderm on the other
D. mesoderm on both sides
Answer: D. Coelom is a fluid filled space between body wall and alimentary canal which is lined by parietal peritoneum (mesoderm) on the outer side and visceral peritoneum (mesoderm) on the inner side. ECTODERM MESODERM ENDODERM COELOM GUT
6. The organisms attached to the substratum, generally, possess [NEET 1995]
A. radial symmetry
B. one single opening of digestive canal
C. asymmetrical body
D. cilia on surface to create water current
Answer:
A. The organisms, which are attached to substratum, generally, possess radial symmetry in all vertical planes.
7. Radial symmetry is often exhibited by animals having [NEET 1994]
A. one opening of alimentary canal
B. aquatic mode of living
C. benthos/sedentary living
D. ciliary mode of feeding
Answer: C. In radial symmetry – body is cut longitudinally through any radius into two equal halves. Present in sessile animals i.e. star fish that live in the sea bottom.
8. Coelom derived from blastocoel is known as [NEET 1994]
A. enterocoelom B. schizocoel
C. pseudocoelom D. haemocoelom
Answer: C. Coelom or body cavity, when derived from blastocoel is pseudocoelom as in nematodes, rotifers. In this type of cavity, mesoderm is lined by only one side i.e., towards the body wall. Schizocoel is true coelom derived from mesodermal segments.
9. Metamorphosis of insects is regulated through hormone [NEET 1991]
A. pheromone B. thyroxine
C. ecdysone D. all the above
Answer: C. Metamorphosis of insects is regulated through ecdysone hormone.
10. Ecdysis is shedding of [NEET 1990]
A. stratum corneum
B. epidermis
C. dermis
D. stratum Malpighi
Answer:
A. Stratum corneum is the outermost, partially cornified layer of scale like cells. Small fragments of this layer are periodically shed off from the body known as ecdysis. The new layer is regularly formed by underlaying stratum germinativum.
11. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called: [NEET 2017]
A. oscula
B. choanocytes
C. mesenchymal cells
D. ostia
Answer: B. In poriferans (sponges) choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel. Flagella present in collar cells provide circulation to water in water canal system.
12. Body having meshwork of cell, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect development are the characteristics of phylum. [NEET 2015 RS]
A. Porifera B. Mollusca
C. Protozoa D. Coelenterate
Answer:
A. The given characteristic features define the phylum porifera.
13. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species: [NEET 2014]
A. Echinoderms B. Ctenophora
C. Cephalochordata D. Cnidaria
Answer: D. Members of Ctenophora, Cephalochordata and Echinodermata are exclusively marine.
14. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall? [NEET 2014]
A. Cyanobacteria
B. Sea – fan(Gorgonia)
C. Saccharomyces
D. Blue–green algae
Answer: B. Gorgonia (sea-fan) is an animal. All animals lack cell wall.
15. Planaria possesses high capacity of: [NEET 2014]
A. Metamorphosis
B. Regeneration
C. Alternation of generation
D. Bioluminescence
Answer: B. Planaria is a flatworm which possesses a high capacity of regeneration.
16. Which one of the following groups of animals reproduces only by sexual means? [NEET NEET Kar. 2013]
A. Ctenophora B. Cnidaria
C. Porifera D. Protozoa
Answer:
A. In Ctenophora, sexes are not separate. Reproduction takes place only by sexual means. In Cnidaria, which exist in both forms, polyps produce medusae asexually and medusae form the polyps sexually. Porifera (sponge) reproduce asexually by fragmentation and sexually by formation of gametes. Protozoans come under protista which reproduce asexually and sexually by cell fusion and zygote formation.
17. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic? [NEET 2010]
A. Flat worms B. Sponges
C. Ctenophores D. Corals
Answer:
A. Triploblastic condition can be seen in flat worms. Ctenophores, sponges and corals are diploblastic.
18. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic? [NEET 2009]
A. Aschelminthes (round worms)
B. Ctenophores
C. Sponges
D. Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
Answer:
A. Aschelminthes is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic. These are mostly aquatic, free living or parasitic. Their body is three layered which is ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
19. Ascaris is characterized by [NEET 2008]
A. absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
B. presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
C. presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism
D. presence of true coelom and metamerism (metamerisation)
Answer: B. Ascaris is a common parasite found in the large intestine of man. It is world wide in distribution. The number of worms may be 500 or more in a single host. Ascaris is characterised by presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism.
20. From the following statements select the wrong one. [NEET 2005]
A. Prawn has two pairs of antennae
B. Nematocysts are characteristic of the Pylum Cnidaria
C. Millepedes have two pairs of appendages in each segment of the body
D. Animals belonging to Phylum Porifera are exclusively marine
Answer: D. Animals belonging to Phylum Porifera are mostly marine except a few which are found in fresh water- e.g. Spongilla, Euspongia.
21. In contrast to Annelids the Platyhelminths show: [NEET 2005]
A. Absence of body cavity
B. Bilaterial symmetry
C. Radial symmetry
D. Presence of pseudocoel
Answer:
A. Platyhelminthes includes flat warms. There is no body cavity. The animals are therefore acoelomates. Annelids also have bilateral symmetry. They are coelomate having a perivisceral cavity divided into compartments.
22. During its life-cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stages respectively : [NEET 2003]
A. miracidium and metacercaria
B. redia and miracidium
C. cercaria and redia
D. metacercaria and cercaria
Answer: B. When in contact with water, the egg capsule form non feeding larva miracidium. Miracidium enters the body of snail to from sporocyst . The sporocyst develops into redia. Redia form cercaria and come out of snail. They get encysted forming metacercaria.
23. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best described as [NEET 2003]
A. multicellular having tissue organization, but no body cavity
B. unicellular or acellular
C. multicellular without any tissue organization
D. multicellular with a gastrovascular system
Answer: C. Sponges show cellular grade of organization. They do not have tissue system. Sycon is a sponge.
24. What is common between Ascaris lumbricoides and Anopheles stephensi? [NEET 2000]
A. Sexual dimorphism
B. Hibernation
C. Anaerobic respiration
D. Metamerism
Answer:
A. Sexual dimorphism is common between Ascaris lumbricoides and Anopheles stephensi. Male and female round worms can be morphologically differentiated. Female Anopheles mosquito is sanguivorous whereas male Anopheles mosquito sucks nectar.
25. Most appropriate term to describe the life cycle of Obelia is [NEET 1998]
A. metagenesis
B. metamorphosis
C. alternation of generations
D. neoteny
Answer:
A. Metamorphosis is the gradual transformation of the embryo to the adult through a larval and pupal stage. Alternation of generation is seen in the plant kingdom wherein a haploid gametophyte generation alternates with diploid sporophyte generation. Phenomenon of sexual reproduction by a larva is known as neoteny e.g. Axolotl larva. In Obelia polyps reproduce medusaes asexually and medusae form the polyps sexually. Such alternation of asexual and sexual phases in the life cycle of Obelia is called metagenesis.
26. What is true about all sponges without exception? [NEET 1996]
A. They are all marine
B. They have flagellated collar cells
C. They have a mixed skeleton consisting of spicules and spongin fibres
D. They reproduce only asexually by budding
Answer: B. Sponges are marine with the exception of family spongilidae, the members of which occur in fresh water e.g. Spongilla. Their endoskeleton is made of either spicules or spongin fibres or both. Sponges reproduce asexually by fragmentation or by budding or through gemmules and reduction bodies. Sponges also exhibit sexual reproduction.
27. Special character of Coelenterates is [NEET 1994]
A. polymorphism
B. nematocysts
C. flame cells
D. hermaphroditism
Answer: B. Presence of nematocysts or stinging cells are the characteristic feature of the phylum Coelenterata. It serves the function of offence and defence by producing toxin to kill the prey & enemy.
28. Which one belongs to Platyhelminthes ? [NEET 1994]
A. Schistosoma B. Trypanosoma
C. Plasmodium D. Wuchereria
Answer:
A. Schistosoma (Blood f luke) – Platyhelminthes Trypanosoma – Aschelminthes Wuchereria – Aschelminthes Plasmodium – Protozoa
29. Budding is a normal mode of asexual reproduction in [NEET 1993]
A. starfish and Hydra
B. hydra and sponges
C. tapeworm and Hydra
D. sponge and starfish
Answer: B. Budding is an asexual mode of reproduction in Hydra & sponges. Bud is formed as an outgrowth on the body surface, then detached to form new animal.
30. What is true about Taenia saginata ? [NEET 1993]
A. Life history has pig as intermediate host
B. There are two large suckers on scolex
C. Rostellar hooks are absent
D. Rostellum has double circle of hooks
Answer: C. Rostellum and hooks are absent in Taenia saginata.
31. The simplest type of canal system in Porifera is [NEET 1992]
A. ascon type B. leucon type
C. sycon type D. radial type
Answer:
A. Presence of canal system – a network of channels for water transport – is an important feature in sponges. Ascon type of canal is simplest in Porifera which brings in food, oxygen and carries away CO2 and nitrogenous waste.
32. What is correct about Taenia ? [NEET 1992]
A. Male organs occur in posterior proglottides
B. Male organs occur in anterior proglottides
C. Female organs occur in anterior proglottides
D. Mature proglottides contain both male and female organs
Answer: D. The body of Taenia is ribbon like and is divided into segments called proglottids. Each proglottid has one or two sets of male and female reproductive organs.
33. Ascaris larva is called [NEET 1992]
A. cysticercus B. rhabditiform
C. hexacanth D. onchosphere
Answer: B. Ascaris larva is also called rhabditiform.
34. Bladderworm/cysticercus is the larval stage of [NEET 1991]
A. Tapeworm B. Roundworm
C. Pinworm D. Liver Fluke
Answer:
A. Bladderworm or cysticerus larva forms in tapeworm.
35. The excretory structures of flatworms/ Taenia are [NEET 1991]
A. flame cells B. protonephridia
C. malpighian tubules D. green glands
Answer:
A. Excretory system of Taenia consists of a pair of peculiar flame cells, which absorb the waste material from the body and discharges it through excretory duct.
36. Classification of Porifera is based on [NEET 1991]
A. branching B. spicules
C. reproduction D. symmetry
Answer: B. The term porifera was given by Grant, the phylum includes animals with pores in their body. Its classification is based on skeleton or spicules.
37. Ascaris lumbricoides infection occurs through [NEET 1991]
A. sole of uncovered feet
B. contaminated cooked measly pork
C. improperly cooked measly pork
D. from air through inhalation
Answer: B. Ascaris enters into the human by eating semi-cooked (improperly) cooked pork contaminated with Ascaris.
38. Onchosphere occurs in [NEET 1990]
A. Ascaris B. Fasciola
C. Taenia D. Planaria
Answer: C. Onchosphere is the larval stage in Taenia solium.
39. Taenia saginata differs from Taenia solium in [NEET 1990]
A. absence of scolex hooks
B. absence of scolex hooks and uterine branching
C. absence of scolex hooks and presence of both male and female reproductive organs
D. presence of scolex hooks
Answer: B. Taenia saginata lacks rostellum and scolex hooks.
40. Transfer of Taenia to secondary host occurs as [NEET 1989]
A. onchosphere B. cysticercus
C. morula D. egg.
Answer:
A. The eggs of Taenia pass out through human faeces which is eaten by pigs, eggs and develops into onchosphere, then to cyst larva in the muscle of pig; The entry stage into secondary host (pig) is onchosphere.