Ophthalmology Objective Questions and Answers
Ophthalmology Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download for Freshers Experienced Medical MBBS Students Ophthalmology Multiple choice Questions. These Objective type Ophthalmology Questions are very important for campus placement Interviews.
1. Transducin is a protein found in:
A. Glomerulus
B. Retina
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Adrenal medulla
Answer: B
2. Treatment of mooren’s ulcer is?
A. Corneal graft
B. Immunosuppressives
C. Topical steroids
D. All of the above
Answer: D
3. The percentage of atropine present in atropine drops as cycloplegic is:
A. 0.5%
B. 1%
C. 4%
D. 2%
Answer: B
4. All of the following are true about Keratoconus, except:
A. Increased curvature of corneaAstigmatism
B. Astigmatism
C. K.F ring cornea
D. Thick cornea
Answer: D
5. Which of the following condition is associated with the development of posterior staphyloma?
A. Pathological myopia
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Acid injury
D. Sympathetic ophthalmia
Answer: A
6.A 30 year old man presents to the clinic with pain in the eye, watering, redness and photophobia. Examination of his eyes shows circumcorneal congestion and keratic precipitates.
Assertion: KPs are proteinaceous deposits occurring in a triangular fashion in the inferior part of cornea.
Reason: Mutton fat KPs are seen in granulomatous iridocyclitis and is composed of epithelioid cells and macrophages.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
C. Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D. Assertion is false but reason is true
Answer: B
7. Transport of Ascorbic acid to lens is done by which of the following?
A. Myoinositol
B. Choline
C. Taurine
D. Na-K ATPase
Answer: D
8. Fundus fluorescein angiography done in a patient following cataract surgery shows a flower petal pattern. What is he MOST likely suffering from?
A. Macular hole
B. Cystoid macular edema
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. None of the above
Answer: B
9. Painful eye movement is a feature of :
A. Iridocyclitis
B. Papilledema
C. Corneal ulcer
D. Vernal catarrh
Answer: A
10. Kayser Fleischer ring is found in which layer of cornea?
A. Bowman’s Capsule
B. Substantia propria
C. Descemet’s membrane
D. Endothelium
Answer: C
11. Placido disc is used for diagnosing which of the following condition?
A. Uveitis
B. Keratoconus
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: B
12. Macular sparing is associated with lesions in:
A. Optic nerve
B. Lateral geniculate body
C. Occipital cortex
D. Optic chiasma
Answer: C
13. All statements are true about trachoma except
A. Trachoma is caused by bedsonian organism of psittacosis lymphogranuloma – trachoma (PLT) group.
B. Strains mainly responsible are A, B, Ba and C
C. Marked papillary hyperplasia with limbal follicles are seen in stage III
D. Corneal ulcerstion is a complication
Answer: C
14. Satellite nodules are seen in
A. Fungal corneal ulcer
B. Tuberculosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Viral ulcer
Answer: A
15. Herpetic keratitis is treated by
A. Analgesics
B. Atropine
C. Steroids
D. Idoxuridine
Answer: D
16. Interstitial keratitis is seen in all except:
A. Syphilis
B. Acanthamoeba
C. HSV ChlamydiaTrachomatis
D. HZV
Answer: B
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17. An elderly male with heart disease presents with sudden loss of vision in one eye; examination reveals cherry red spot; diagnosis is:
A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Amaurosis fugax
D. Acute ischemic optic neuritis
Answer: B
18. Primary aim of retinal detachment surgery
A. Removal of vitreous
B. Drainage of subretinal fluid
C. Vitrectomy
D. Encirclage
D i.e. Encirclage
Answer: D
19. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?
A. Latanoprost
B. Timolol
C. Brimonidine
D. Dorzolamide
Answer: C
20. All are true regarding optic neuritis except:
A. Decreased visual acuity
B. Decreased pupillary reflex
C. Abnormal electroretinogram
D. Abnormal visual evoked response retinogram
Answer: C
21. Vossius ring occurs in
A. Lens dislocation
B. Concussion injury
C. Penetrating injury
D. Extra capsular extraction
Answer: B
22. In which of the following conditions Berlin’s edema is
A. Open angle glaucoma
B. After cataract surgery
C. After concussional trauma
D. Diabetic retinopathy
Answer: C
23. Mucin layer tear flilm deficiency occurs in:
A. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
B. Lacrimal gland removal
C. Canalicular block
D. Herpetic keratitis
Answer: A
24. The nerve which has the longest intracranial course is:
A. Fourth cranial nerve
B. Third cranial nerve
C. Sixth cranial nerve
D. Fifth cranial nerve
Answer: A
25. Corneal sensations are decreased in all of the following conditions except:
A. Recurrent corneal erosion syndrome
B. Herpetic keratitis
C. Neuroparalytic keratitis
D. Leprosy
Answer: A
26. Snellen’s chart is used to test:
A. Vision
B. Refraction
C. Presbyopia
D. Colour blindness
Answer: A
27. A wave in ERG is due to activity of:
A. Pigmented epithelium
B. Rods and cones
C. Ganglion cell
D. Bipolar cell
Answer: B
28. Sturm’s conoid refers to configuration of the rays refracted through:
A. Concave spherical surface
B. Convex spherical surface
C. Toric surface
D. Irregular surface
Answer: C
29. Soft contact lenses are made of:
A. Polymethyl methacrylate
B. Hydroxymethyl methacrylate
C. Glass
D. Silicone
Answer: B
30. Astigmatism is considered to be:
A. Spherical abberation
B. Curvatural ametropia
C. Axial ametropia
D. Index ametropia
Answer: A
31. Visual axis is
A. Center of cornea to retina
B. Object to fovea
C. Center of lens to cornea
D. None
Answer: B
32. Foster’s fusch’s spots are seen in
A. Hypermetropiea
B. Myopia
C. Astigmatism
D. None
Answer: B
33. Swimming pool conjunctivitis is caused by
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Adenovirus type 8
C. Adenovirus type 8
D. Gonococcus
Answer: A
34. Goldenhar syndrome is associated with which prominent ocular manifestation:
A. Microcornea
B. Megalocornea
C. Sclerocornea
D. Epibulbar dermoids
Answer: D
35. Complication of vernal kerato conjunctivitis:
A. Cataract
B. Keratoconus
C. Retinal detachment
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
Answer: B
36. Treatment of vernal keratoconjunctivitis includes all except:
A. Steroids
B. Chromoglycate
C. Olopatadine
D. Antibiotics
Answer: D
37. Features of vernal conjunctivitis are:
A. Shield ulcer
B. Horner-Tranta’s spots
C. Papillary hypertrophy
D. All
Answer: D
38. Pterygium all are true except:
A. Arise from any part of conjunctiva
B. Can cause astigmatism
C. Surgery is treatment of choice
D. UV exposure is risk factor
Answer: A
39. Neonatal conjunctivitis is caused by all except:
A. Gonococcus
B. Chlamydia
C. Aspergillus
D. Pseudomonas
Answer: C
40. In photophthalmia site of lesions is:
A. Cornea
B. Retina
C. Optic nerve
D. All of the above
Answer: A
41. Elschnig’s pearls are a sign of:
A. Chronic uveitis
B. Secondary cataract
C. Cystoid macular oedema
D. All of the above
Answer: B
42. Rosette cataract is seen due to:
A. Trauma
B. Copper foreign body
C. Diabetes
D. Hyperparathyroidism
Answer: A
43. A child has got a congenital cataract involving the visual axis which was detected by the parents right at birth. This child should be operated:
A. Immediately
B. At 2 months of age
C. At 1 year of age when the globe becomes normal sized
D. After 4 years when entire ocular and orbital growth becomes
normal
Answer: A
44. Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of the endophthalmitis in cataract surgery?
A. Preoperative preparation with povidone iodine
B. One week antibiotic therapy prior to surgery
C. Trimming of eyelashes
D. Use of intravitreal antibiotics
Answer: A
45. Schwalbe’s ring corresponds to:
A. Corneal endothelium
B. Descemet’s membrane
C. Schlemm’s canal
D. Ciliary body
Answer: B
46. Vitrectomy should be considered if the vitreous haemorrhage is not absorbed within:
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 2 months
Answer: B
47. Eales disease is:
A. Recurrent optic neuritis
B. Recurrent pappilloedema
C. Recurrent periphelbitis retinae
D. None
Answer: C
48. All of the following are true for retinopathy of prematurity except:
A. Occurs in premature infants due to late crying
B. Due to hypoxia there occurs neovascularization followed by fibroproliferation
C. End result is bilateral blindness
D. Blindness can be prevented by early diagnosis and ablation of vascular premature retina with cryotherapy or photocoagulation
Answer: A
49. All of the following are the causes of exudative retinal detachment except:
A. Retinopathy of toxaemia of pregnancy
B. Retinopathy of prematurity
C. Exudative retinopathy of Coats
D. Sympathetic ophthalmia
Answer: B
50. The earliest change noticed in hypertensive retinopathy is:
A. Soft exudate
B. Arteriolar spasm
C. Venospasm
D. Hard exudate
Answer: B
51. Strabismic amblyopia is more common in patients with:
A. Intermittent squint
B. Alternate squint
C. Constant squint
D. Latent squint
Answer: C
Ans. Constant squint
52. Onset of stereopsis occurs at the age of:
A. 3 to 5 months
B. 1 to 2 years
C. 5 years
D. 7 years
Answer: A
53. Elevators of eye:
A. SR and 10
B. I0 and SO
C. IR and S
D. SO SR
Answer: A
54. Dalrymple’s sign of ocular Graves’ disease refers to:
A. Retraction of the upper lid
B. Lid lag
C. Proptosis
D. All of the above combinedly
Answer: A
55. Best method of detection of retained glass intraocular foreign body is:
A. CT scan
B. Radiography
C. Ultrasonography
D. Tonography
Answer: A
56. In primary open-angle glaucoma pilocarpine eye drops lowers the intraocular pressure by its direct action on the:
A. Trabecular meshwork
B. Ciliary epithelium
C. Longitudinal fibres of the ciliary muscle
D. All of the above
Answer: D
57. Isolated painful third nerve palsy is a feature of aneurysms of:
A. Posterior communicating artery
B. Anterior communicating artery
C. Vertebrobasillary artery
D. Ophthalmic artery
Answer: A
58. All of the following are given global prominence in the VISION 2020 goal, expect:
A. Refractive errors
B. Cataract
C. Trachoma
D. Glaucoma
Answer: D
59. Axial length of eye ball is:[March 2005]
A. 16 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 24 mm
D. 28 mm
Answer: C
60. Eye structure with maximum refractive power:[March 2007]
A. Anterior surface of lens
B. Posterior surface of lens
C. Anterior surface of cornea
D. Posterior surface of cornea
Answer: C
61. Pilocarpine is used in all of the following except:[September 2006]
A. Primary, Open Angle Glaucoma
B. Malignant Glaucoma
C. Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma
D. Chronic Synechial Angle Closure Glaucoma
Answer: B
62. Most common etiolopathogenetic cause of glaucoma is:[March 2012]
A. Raised pressure in episcleritic veins
B. Decreased outflow
C. Increased formation of aqueous humour
D. Increased scleral outflow
Answer: B
63. Posterior staphyloma is seen in:[September 2005]
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Astigmatism
D. Presbyopia
Answer: A
64. All of the following are true for sympathetic ophthalmitis except:[September 2005]
A. Affects the injured eye
B. Mostly results from a penetrating wound
C. Autoimmune etiology
D. Dalen Fuch’s nodules may be seen
Answer: A
65. Snowflake cataract is associated with:[September 2008]
A. Hypertension
B. Adult diabetes
C. Trauma
D. Juvenile diabetes
Answer: D
66. Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of:[March 2009]
A. Fructose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Sorbitol
Answer: D
67. Scleritis is most commonly associated with:[March 2005]
A. Diabetes
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Hypertension
Answer: C
68. Laser used to manage after cataract:[March 2005, September 2009]
A. Excimer laser
B. Argon green laser
C. Diode laser
D. Nd:YAG laser
Answer: D
69. Which of the following is not a cause of hypermetropia:[September 2009]
A. Short axial length of the eyeball
B. Flat cornea
C. Increased refractive index of the cortex of lens
D. Anterior dislocation of the lens
Answer: D
70. Type of collagen present in cornea ?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: A
71. Which of the following is present in cornea ?
A. Hyaluronic acid
B. Chondroitin sulfate
C. Dermatan sulfate
D. Heparan sulfate
Answer: B
72. A person with defective blue color appreciation is called ?
A. Deuteranomalous
B. Deuteranopia
C. Tritanopia
D. Tritanomalous
Answer: D
73. What is the immediate management of vitreous hemorrhage in eye ?
A. No treatment
B. Steroids
C. Antibiotics
D. Vitrectomy
Answer: A
74. Keratitis is caused by ?
A. Bacteria
B. Atopy
C. Protozoa
D. All
Answer: D
75. Subconjunctival cyst is seen in?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Cysticercosis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Chaga’s disease
Answer: B
76. Pars planitis is ?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Intermediate uveitis
C. Posterior uveitis
D. Pan uveitis
Answer: B
77. Brushfield spot in iris is seen in A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Down syndrome
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Toxoplasmosis
Answer: B
78. Most common orbital cyst in children
A. Neuroenteric cyst
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Lymphoma
D. Clobomatous cyst
Answer: B
79. Disscociated vertical deviation seen in ?
A. AV dissociation
B. Infantile esotropia
C. Congenital esotropia
D. Superior oblique palsy
Answer: C
80. Koeppe’s nodules are type of ?
A. Granulomatous uveitis
B. Non granulomatous uveitis
C. Coroiditis
D. Pars planitis
Answer: A
81. Cause of blindness in pterygium ?
A. Astigmatism
B. Loss of visual axis
C. Cataract
D. Limitation of ocular movements
Answer: A
82. Cause of blindness in trachoma ?
A. Scarring
B. Pannus
C. Chronic dacrocystitis
D. Entropion
Answer: A
83. Fundus in retinitis Pigmentosa is ?
A. White spots with red disc
B. Jet- black spots with pale-waxy disc
C. No pigmentation
D. Dilatation of arterioles
Answer: B
84. Retinoblastoma can occur bilaterally in how many percentage of the cases?
A. 10 – 15%
B. 15 – 20%
C. 20 – 25%
D. 25 – 30%
Answer: D
85. Kayser flescher ring is seen in ?
A. Siderosis
B. Chalcosis
C. Open angle glaucoma
D. Chemical injuries
Answer: B
86. Gaze fixation takes place at which age ?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Answer: B
87. Phacoemulsification incision is at ?
A. Sclero-corneal junction
B. Cornea
C. Sclera
D. None of the above
Answer: A
88. Gland of Moll opens in/on the ?
A. Skin
B. Hair follicle
C. Tarsal plate
D. Ducts of Meibomian glands
Answer: B
89. Cherry red spot is seen in ?
A. Niemann – Pick’s disease
B. Tay Sach’s disease
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. All of the above
Answer: D
90. Most common malignant intraorbital tumor in adult is ?
A. Lymphoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Sarcoma
Answer: A
91. Which antiglaucoma drug decreases aqueous formation ?
A. Prostaglandins
B. Beta – blockers
C. Mannitol
D. Pilocarpine
Answer: B
92. Selective alpha 2 agoinst used in glaucoma ?
A. Tirriolol
B. Epinephrine
C. Dipivefrine
D. Brimonidine
Answer: D
93. Bilateral inferior dislocation of lens is seen in ?
A. Marfans syndrome
B. Homocystinuria
C. Weil Marchesani syndrome
D. Trauma
Answer: B
94. All are true about Bullous keratopathy except ?
A. Seen in Macular dystrophy
B. Treatment is lamellar kertoplasty
C. Lenses can be prescribed for such patients
D. Seen in Fuch’s dystrophy
Answer: A
95. Most common primary intraocular neoplasm in a child is ?
A. Metastasis
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Answer: B
96. Following are the side effects of apraclonidine except ?
A. Lid dermatitis
B. Follicular conjunctivitis
C. Eye lid retraction
D. Watering of mouth
Answer: D
97. Treatment of presbyopia is by use of which lens?
A. Convex
B. Concave
C. Biconcave
D. Concavoconvex
Answer: A
98. Steroid is contraindicated in ?
A. Herpetic keratitis
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Fungal corneal ulcer
D. Exposure keratitis
Answer: C
99. Vitreous hemorrhage produces ?
A. Sudden painless loss of vision
B. Sudden painful loss of vision
C. Gradual painless loss of vision
D. Gradual painful loss of vision
Answer: A
100. Tubular vision seen in
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Presbyopia
D. Optic neuritis
Answer: A
101. Treatment of dacryocystitis in three months old child ?
A. Daily probing
B. Weekly probing
C. Massaging
D. Syringing
Answer: C
102. Methanol attacks ?
A. Cones
B. Rods
C. Ganglion cells of retina
D. Germinal cell layer
Answer: C
103. Retinal tears seen most commonly seen in ?
A. Primary retinal detachment
B. Secondary retinal detachment
C. Tractional retinal detachment
D. Exudative retinal detachment
Answer: A
104. Following are the clinical features of Leber optic neuropathy except
A. Seen in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life
B. It is a example of gradual painless visual loss
C. Males can transmit the disease
D. No leak of dye is observed in fluorescein angiography
Answer: C
105. Following is feature of Fusch’s hetero chromic iridocyclitis ?
A. Heterochromia of iris
B. Keratic precipitates
C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
D. All the above
Answer: D
106. BSGT stands for ?
A. Bagolini striated glasses test
B. Bagolini smooth glasses test
C. Bagolini shiny glasses test
D. Bagolini second glue test
Answer: A
107. Melanocytes in conjunctiva are derived from ?
A. Neural ectoderm
B. Surface ectoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Neural crest
Answer: D
108. Bitemporal hemianopia is characteristic of ?
A. Glaucoma
B. Optic neuritis
C. Pituitary tumor
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: C
109. For congenital obstruction of nasolacrimal duct, probing is done at what age ?
A. 2 months
B. 6 months
C. 10 months
D. 14 months
Answer: B
110. Right esotropia is evident with ?
A. Left lateral rectus paralysis
B. Right lateral rectus paralysis
C. Left medial rectus paralysis
D. Right medial rectus paralysis
Answer: A
111. Diabetic ischemic maculopathy is characterized by all except ?
A. It occurs due to microvascular blockage
B. Mild visual loss
C. Areas of non perfusion are evident on fluorescein angiography
D. Microaneurysms and hemorrhages are seen
Answer: B
112. Treatment for mild ptosis is ?
A. Fasanella servat operation
B. Levator resection
C. Frontalis sling operation
D. Everbusch’s operation
Answer: A
113. Cataract is cases of diabetes mellitus is due to accumulation of ?
A. Glycated crytallins
B. Calcified crystallins
C. Glycated fibrillins
D. Calcified fibrillins
Answer: A
114. Density of cells in adult corneal endothelium ?
A. 2000 cells/mm2
B. 3000 cells/mm2
C. 4000 cells/mm2
D. 5000 cells/mm2
Answer: B
115. Axial proptosis is produced by tumors lying in ?
A. Retrobulbar space
B. Subperiosteal space
C. Tenon space
D. Peripheral space
Answer: A
116. In xerophthalmia classification X 2 stage is ?
A. Bitots spots
B. Corneal xerosis
C. Corneal ulceration
D. Corneal scar
Answer: B
117. All of the following has HLAB27 associated with uveitis except ?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Reiters syndrome
C. Behcets syndrome
D. None of the above
Answer: C
118. Marcus gunn jaw winking phenomenon due to relation between which cranial nerves
A. VII + VIII
B. III + V
C. V + VII
D. III + VI
Answer: B
119. Increased intraocular tension can be diagnosed by ?
A. Tonometer
B. Pachymeter
C. Placido’s disc
D. Keratometer
Answer: A
120. Wernicke’s hemianopic pupillary reponse is seen in lesions at ?
A. Optic tract
B. Optic chiasma
C. Optic radiation
D. Lateral geniculate body
Answer: A
121. `Ischemic necrosis’ in alkali burn is ?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
Answer: A
122. Ganglionic cells are, neurons ?
A. First order
B. Second order
C. Third order
D. None
Answer: B
123. No movement of Red reflex in retinoscopy
A. No refractive error
B. Myopia of 3D
C. Myopia of ID
D. Hypermetropia
Answer: C
124. Maximum refractive index ?
A. Cornea
B. Air
C. Lens
D. Vitreous
Answer: C
125. Primary action of inferior oblique ?
A. Abduction
B. Adduction
C. Extorsion
D. Elevation
Answer: C
126. What is the most common problem following surgical treatment of pterygium?
A. Recurrence
B. Corneal ulceration
C. Astigmatism
D. Scleral scarring
Answer: A
127. Refsum’s syndrome is associated with ?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Xerophthalmia
C. Chalcosis
D. Diabetes retinopathy
Answer: A
128. Following is a feature of concomitant squint ?
A. Constant amount of deviation in all directions of gaze
B. Associated limitation of ocular movements
C. Different amount of deviation in different directions of gaze
D. Develops in the patients at 15 – 20 years of age.
Answer: A
129. Diplopia is usually seen in ?
A. Paralytic squint
B. Non-paralytic squint
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
130. Following is true about behcet’s disease except ?
A. It shows presence of aphthous ulceration, genital ulceration and uveitis
B. Uveitis is bilateral, acute recurrent iridocyclitis with hypopyon
C. It has good visual prognosis
D. Chlorambucil can be used to control the disease
Answer: C
131. Imbert-Fick law is associate with ?
A. Schiotz tonometry
B. Applanation tonometry
C. Pachymetry
D. Keratometry
Answer: B
132. Recurrent non-granulomatous uveitis is seen in?
A. Vogt koyanagi-Harada syndrome
B. Posner-Schlossman syndrome
C. Tuberculosis
D. Sarcoidosis
Answer: B
133. Bett’s classification deals with ?
A. Ocular trauma
B. Ocular foreign body
C. Squint
D. Maculopathy
Answer: A
134. How many incisions are used in the divided system approach of pars planavitrectomy?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
135. Munson’s sign is a feature of ?
A. Keratoconus
B. Corneal ulcer
C. Pterygium
D. Posterior staphyloma
Answer: A
136. Newborn eye is ?
A. Myopic
B. Hypermetropic
C. Presbyopic
D. None of the above
Answer: B
137. Homonymous hemianopia type of visual field defect is seen in all except ?
A. Lateral geniculate body
B. Total optic radiation
C. Optic tract
D. Optic chaisma
Answer: D
138. Following is true about oculocardiac reflex except ?
A. It is also called aschner phenomenon
B. It is mediated by occulomotor and vagus nerve
C. It is characterized by bradycardia following traction on extraocular muscles
D. Reflex is more sensitive in neonates
Answer: B
139. Corneal endothelial cell count is measured by ?
A. Specular microscope
B. Ophthalmoscope
C. Synoptophore
D. Amsler’s grid
Answer: A
140. Drug kept as a last resort in the management of primary open angle glaucoma is ?
A. Latanoprost
B. Topical beta blocker
C. Brimonidine
D. Oral acetazolamide
Answer: D
141. Amsler’s grid is used to evaluate ?
A. Central 10 degress of vision
B. Central 20 degrees of vision
C. Peripheral vision
D. Lens opacity
Answer: A
142. Stye is suppurative inflammation of glands of ?
A. Zeis
B. Meibonian
C. Wolfring
D. All the above
Answer: A
143. Objective methods for checking the refractive error are all except
A. Ophthalmoscopy
B. Retinoscopy
C. Refractometry
D. Keratometry
Answer: A
144. Lens dislocation in marfans syndrome is
A. Superotemporal
B. Inferonasal
C. Forward
D. Backward
Answer: A
145. Safe size of corneal graft with less chances of failure is ?
A. 7.5 mm
B. 6.5 mm
C. 5.5 mm
D. 4.5 mm
Answer: A
146. Angular conjunctivitis is caused mainly by
A. Moraxella axenfeld
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumonae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: A
147. Anterior uveitis earliest lesion ?
A. Aqueous flare
B. Keratic precipitates
C. Circumcorneal congestion
D. Blurring of vision
Answer: A
148. Main MOA brimonidine in glaucoma ?
A. Decreased aqueous secretion
B. Increased trabecular outflow
C. Increased uveoscleral outflow
D. Reduce vitreous volume
Answer: A
149. Meibomian glands secrete which component of sweat?
A. Water (aqueous)
B. Mucin
C. Protein
D. Lipid
Answer: D
150. Quantification of corneal sensation is done by ?
A. Pachymeter
B. Keratometer
C. Aesthesiometer
D. Tonometer
Answer: C
151. Subconjunctival hemorrhages are evident in the following cases except ?
A. Whooping cough
B. Scurvy
C. Purpura
D. Pellagra
Answer: D
152. Pleomorphic adenoma of the lacrimal gland moves the eyeball ?
A. Downwards and outwards
B. Downwards and inwards
C. Upwards and outwards
D. Upwards and inwards
Answer: A
153.Optic canal is a part of ?
A. Lesser wing of sphenoid
B. Greater wing of sphenoid
C. Ethmoid
D. Pterygoid
Answer: A
154. Floaters are seen in following except ?
A. Vitreous hemorrhage
B. Retinal detachment
C. Uveitis
D. Acute congestive glaucoma
Answer: D
155. Illuminated frenzel glasses are used in detecting?
A. Nystagmus
B. Heterophoria
C. Esotropia
D. Astigmatism
Answer: A
156. Following is a cause of secondary angle closure glaucoma ?
A. Pseudophakia
B. Corticosteroid induced
C. Angle recession glaucoma
D. Congenital glaucoma
Answer: A
157. Which gas is most commonly used with pneumatic retinopathy ?
A. SF6
B. C3F8
C. CO2
D. N3
Answer: A
158. Latanoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily acts by?
A. Decreasing aqueous humor formation
B. Increasing uveoscleral outflow
C. Releasing pupillary block
D. Increasing trabecular outflow
Answer: B
159. 2nd Purkinje image is ?
A. Erect and moves in same direction
B. Inverted and moves in same direction
C. Erect and moves in opposite direction
D. Inverted and moves in opposite direction
Answer: A
160. Axial length of eye ball is measured by ?
A. A mode Ultrasonography
B. B mode Ultrasonography
C. M mode Ultrasonography
D. Both a and b
Answer: A
161. Enophthalmos is seen in ?
A. Blow out fracture of orbit wall
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Radiation Injuries
D. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: A
162. Acute angle closure glaucoma first line treatment?
A. Iv mannitol
B. Acetazolamide
C. Pilocarpine
D. Beta blocker eyedrops
Answer: A
163. Occulomotor nerve supplies all extraocular muscles except ?
A. Superior rectus
B. Inferior rectus
C. Lateral rectus
D. Medial rectus
Answer: C
164. Which bacteria penetrates intact cornea ?
A. Corynebacterium
B. Pneumococcus
C. Morexella
D. E. coli
Answer: A
165. Which of the following is not a feature of fungal corneal ulcer?
A. Fixed hypopyon
B. Ulcer with sloughing margins
C. Symptoms are more pronounced than signs
D. Fungal hyphae are seen on KOH mount
Answer: C
166. Congenital dacrocystitis, the block is at?
A. Lacrimal calnaliculi
B. Nasolacrimal duct
C. Punctum
D. None
Answer: B
167. Dacryocystorhinostomy involves?
A. Opening up the terminal blocked end of nasolacrimal duct
B. Connecting the lacrimal sac to nose by breaking the medial wall
C. Complete excision of lacrimal
D. Insertion of drainage tube in the lacrimal sac
Answer: B
168. Copper deposition in cornea leads to?
A. Keratoconus
B. Keratoglobus
C. KF ring
D. Siderosis
Answer: C
169. Habbs striae are seen in ?
A. Buphthalmos
B. Keratoglobus
C. Trachoma
D. Keratoconus
Answer: A
170. Krukenberg spindles A. Involves anterior surface of cornea
B. Involves anterior lens surface
C. Involves posterior surface of cornea
D. Involves posterior surface of lens
Answer: C
171. Eye of a newborn is ?
A. Emmetropic
B. Hypermetropic
C. Myopic
D. Astigmatism
Answer: B
172. Causes of exudative retinal detachment are all except
A. Toxemia of pregnancy
B. Scleritis
C. High myopia
D. Central serous retinopathy
Answer: C
173.Commotio retinae affects which part of retina
A. Posterior pole
B. Peripheral retina
C. Inferior-nasal part
D. Superior-nasal part
Answer: A
174. Standard in perimetry ?
A. Goldman type I
B. Goldman type II
C. Goldman type III
D. Goldman type IV
Answer: C
175. Treatment of congenital ptosis with poor elevation is
A. Levator resection
B. Frontalis sling
C. FS operation
D. None of the
Answer: B
176. Dacryocystorhinostomy, where the duct is opened?
A. Superior meatus
B. Inferior meatus
C. Middle meatus
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess
Answer: C
177. Blow out fracture of orbit leads to fracture in
A. Floor
B. Posterior Medial wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Roof of the orbit
Answer: B
178. Most common symptom in buphthalmos ?
A. Lacrimation
B. Pain
C. Photophobia
D. Itching
Answer: A
179. Normal vision with absence of direct & consensual light reflex, which nerve is involved ?
A. Optic
B. Oculomotor
C. Trigeminal
D. Abducens
Answer: B
180. The most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is
A. Retinal hole
B. Trauma
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes
Answer: D
181. Slit lamp examination helps in examination of?
A. Anterior 2/3rd of choroid
B. Anterior 1/3rd of choroid
C. Posterior 1/3rd of choroid
D. Posterior capsule
Answer: D
182. Retinal detachment occurs between
A. Layers of neurosensory retina
B. Neurosensory retina and pigment epithelium
C. Pigment epithelium and choroid
D. None of the above
Answer: B
183. Ocular bobbing?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Cortex
Answer: B
184. Bilateral inferior lens subluxation is seen in?
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Homocysteinuria
C. Ocular trauma
D. None of the above
Answer: B
185. Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by ?
A. Central scotoma
B. Centrocaecal scotoma
C. Tubular vision
D. Isopteric contraction
Answer: C
186. Scissor reflex is seen in ?
A. Open angle glaucoma
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
C. Keratoconus
D. Interstitial keratitis
Answer: C
187. Which are first order neuron in optic pathway?
A. Bipolar cells
B. Ganglionic cells
C. Cells of lateral geniculate body
D. Astrocytes
Answer: A
188. True about electroretinogram ?
A. a’ wave is positive wave
B. ‘a’ wave arises from pigmented epithelium
C. b’ wave arises from rods and cones
D. ‘c’ wave is positive wave
Answer: D
189. Specific for albinism
A. Red reflex
B. Decreased visual activity
C. Photophobia
D. Nystagmus
Answer: A
190. All are parts of anterior segment of eye except?
A. Lens
B. Cornea
C. Vitreous
D. None
Answer: C
191. Attachement of Vitreous is Srongest at
A. Foveal region
B. Back of lens
C. Across ora serrata
D. Margin of optic disc
Answer: C
192. Umbrella configration on fluorescein angiogrphyis seen in ?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Rheugmatous retinal detachment
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. Eale’s disease
Answer: C
193. Epithelial xerosis of conjunetiva is caused by ?
A. Trachoma
B. Diphtheria
C. Xerophthalmia
D. Pemphigus
Answer: C
194. Cicatrising trachoma is seen in ?
A. Stage-1
B. Stage-2
C. Stage-3
D. Stage-4
Answer: C
195. Non-sterile hypopyon is seen in ?
A. Pneumococcus infection
B. Pseudomonas infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Gonococcal infection
Answer: C
196. Normal level of visual acuity is attained at which age
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 6 years
Answer: C
197. Duanne syndrome involves?
A. Superior oblique
B. Inferior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Superior rectus
Answer: C
198. Birdshot retinopathy is characterized by all except?
A. Common in females
B. Unilateral
C. HLA-A29 positive
D. Creamy yellow spots
Answer: B
199. Treatment of choice for anisoeikonia ?
A. Orthoptic exercise
B. Spectacles
C. Surgery
D. Contact lens
Answer: D
200. Maximum correction of myopia can be done by ?
A. Radial keratotomy
B. LASIK
C. Photorefractive keratotomy
D. Orthokeratology
Answer: B
201. Marcus Gunn pupil is due to ?
A. Total afferent pupillary defect
B. Relative afferent pupillary defect
C. Efferent pathway defect
D. Cerebral lesion
Answer: B
202. Distance of medial rectus from limbus A. 4.5 mm
B. 5.5 mm
C. 7.0 mm
D. 10 mm
Answer: B
203. All nerve are involved in superior orbital fissure syndrome except ?
A. 1t
B. 3rd
C. 4’h
D. 6th
Answer: A
204. Posterior lenticonus is seen in ?
A. Alport’s syndrome
B. Lowe’s syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Homocystinuria
Answer: B
205. Thickest portion of sclera is ?
A. Anterior to rectus muscle insertion
B. Posterior to rectus muscle insertion
C. Posterior pole
D. Limbus
Answer: C
206. Reis-Buckler dystrophy affects which layer of cornea
A. Epithelium
B. Stroma
C. Bowman’s membrane
D. Endothelium
Answer: C
207. Down-beat nystagmus is seen in lesion of ?
A. Brainstem
B. Cerebellum
C. Basal ganglia
D. Hippocampus
Answer: B
208. Von Herick angle grade ‘3’ of anterior chamber denotes
A. Wide open angle
B. Moderately open angle
C. Moderately narrow angle
D. Closed angle
Answer: B
209. Foldable lens is made up of?
A. PMMA
B. Silicon
C. Hydrogel
D. None
Answer: B
210. Arcuate field defect akin to glaucoma is seen in?
A. Pituitary tumor
B. Occipital lobe infarct
C. Optic nerve lesion
D. None of the above
Answer: C
211. Thinnest portion of sclera ?
A. Anterior to rectus muscle insertion
B. Posterior to rectus muscle insertion
C. Posterior pole
D. Limbus
Answer: B
212. During retinoscopy of a 30 years old male, which cycloplegic is used routinely
A. Atropine 1% ointment
B. Cyclopentolate 1% drop
C. Homatropine 2% drop
D. None of the above
Answer: D
213. In senile nuclear cataract what type of myopia is seen?
A. Curvature myopia
B. Index myopia
C. Axial myopia
D. Positional myopia
Answer: B
214. Panophthalmitis involves ?
A. Inner coat of eyeball
B. Inner and outer coat but sparing tenon’s capsule
C. All structure of eyeball including tenon’s capsule
D. None of the above
Answer: C
215. Cataract is caused by ?
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Cigrate smoking
C. Non-ionizing radiation
D. All of the above
Answer: D
216. Ameboid ulcer is a feature of
A. Parasitic corneal ulcer
B. Mycotic corneal ulcer
C. Herpetic corneal ulcer
D. Bacterial corneal ulcer
Answer: C
217. Most common site of distant metastasis inintraorbital malignant melanoma is?
A. Brain
B. Lung
C. Liver
D. Lymph nodes
Answer: C
218. Shortening of 2 mm of axial length of eye ball causes ?
A. 3D myopia
B. 6D myopia
C. 3D hypermetropia
D. 6D hypermetropia
Answer: D
219. Drug of choice for intermediate uveitis ?
A. Atropine
B. Antibiotics
C. Topical steroids
D. Systemic steroid
Answer: D
220. Inverted image in Purkinje test is formed from ?
A. Anterior surface of cornea
B. Posterior surface of c
C. Anterior surface of lens
D. Posterior surface of lens
Answer: D
221. Forced duction test is to find out?
A. Ocular muscle palsy
B. Ocular muscle spasm
C. Angle of deviation
D. Refractive error
Answer: A
222. Red keratic precipitates are seen in ?
A. Granulomatous uveits
B. Hemorrhagic uveitis
C. Old healed uveitis
D. Acute anterior uveitis
Answer: B
223. Hardoleum internum is ?
A. Acute infection of Zeis gland
B. Acute infection of Moll gland
C. Acute infection Meibomian gland
D. Chronic infection of Zeis gland
Answer: C
224. Snow banking is seen in?
A. White coats disease
B. Eales disease
C. Diabetic nephropathy
D. Intermediate uveitis
Answer: D
225. Retrobulbar injection is given in
A. Inside muscle cone
B. Outside muscle cone
C. Subtenon space
D. Subperiosteum
Answer: A
226. Basal cell carcinoma is seen in most commonlyin which eyelid?
A. Upper medial
B. Upper lateral
C. Lower medial
D. Lower lateral
Answer: C
227. All are ophthalmological emergencies except ?
A. CRAO
B. CRVO
C. Acute congestive glaucoma
D. Endophthalmitis
Answer: B
228. Diagnosis of all is made by fluorescein angiographyexcept?
A. Diabetes retinopathy
B. Hypertensive retinopathy
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. Choroidal neovascularization
Answer: B
229. Lacrimal punctum of upper and lower eyelids are?
A. They are opposed
B. No relation
C. Upper punctum is medial
D. Upper punctum is lateral
Answer: A
230. Down beat nystagmus is seen in?
A. Arnold chiari malformation
B. Brain stem damage
C. Pontine hemorrhage
D. Labyrinthine damage
Answer: A
231. Not true about Fuch’s corneal dystrophy ?
A. Posterior dystrophy
B. Endothelial dystrophy
C. Unilateral condition
D. Occurs in old age
Answer: C
232. Positive forced duction test is seen in ?
A. Extraocular muscle palsy
B. Mechanical restriction of ocular movement
C. Concomitant squint
D. None
Answer: B
233. Immune ring is a feature of ?
A. Interstitial keratitis
B. Fungal corneal ulcer
C. Bacterial corneal ulcer
D. Herpes simplex keratitis
Answer: B
234. In specular microscopy endothelial density is measured by?
A. Optical doubling
B. Fixed frame analysis
C. Optical focusing
D. None
Answer: B
235. Most common type of scleritis ?
A. Non-necrotizing
B. Necrotizing
C. Posterior
D. None
Answer: A
236. Which of the following indicates activity of anterior uveitis?
A. Cells in anterior chamber
B. Circumcorneal congestion
C. Keratic precipitate
D. Corneal edema
Answer: A
237. Normal aqueous production rate
A. 2 ml/min
B. 5 ml/min
C. 2 1/min
D. 5 1/min
Answer: C
238. Drug of choice for open angle glaucoma
A. Acetazolamide
B. Latanoprost
C. Timolol
D. Brimonidine
Answer: C
239. Superficial corneal vascularization is caused by?
A. Contact lens
B. Graft rejection
C. Chemical burn
D. Interstitial keratitis
Answer: A
240. Choroidal vascularization is seen in ?
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Presbyopia
D. Astigmatism
Answer: A
241. Contraindication of LASIK ?
A. >20 years
B. Keratoconus
C. Normal cornea
D. Myopia of – 8D
Answer: B
242. Binocular single vision is tested by ?
A. Amsler grid
B. Synoptophore
C. Maddox rod
D. Cardboard test
Answer: B
243. In aphakia purkinje images absent are ?
A. 1 & 3′
B. 2nd & 4m
C. 2nd & 3rd
D. 3rd & 4th
Answer: C
244. Keratitis in contact lens wearer is caused by all except ?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Pneumococcus
C. Aspergillu
D. Chlamydia
Answer: B
245. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is caused by
A. Chlaymydia
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Aspergillus
Answer: B
246. All are seen in non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy except ?
A. Microaneurysm
B. Neovascularization
C. Hard exudates
D. Macular edema
Answer: B
247. Surgery of choice for chronic acquired dacryocystitis
A. Dacryocystorhinostomy
B. Dacryocystectomy
C. Conjunctivo-cystorhinostomy
D. None
Answer: A
248. Posner-schlossman syndrome is ?
A. Ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilloedema
B. Unilateral glaucomatous changes with mild anterior uveitis
C. Granulomatous uveitis with iris heterochromia
D. None of the above
Answer: B
249. Antigaucomatous drug causing spasm of accommodation
A. Timolol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Dorazolamide
D. Latanoprost
Answer: B
250. Besides its properties of decreasing intraocular pressure, timolol is preferred in the treatment of glaucoma because it
A. Produces no miosis
B. Possess membrane stabilizing activity
C. Increases outflow of aqueous humor
D. Is a selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker
Answer: A