MCQs and Answers [2024]

500+ TOP Strength of Materials MCQs and Answers

Strength of Materials Objective Questions :-

1. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft in torsion, subjected to shear stress (τ), is:
(Where, G = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)

(A) τ²/ 2G × Volume of shaft

(B) τ/ 2G × Volume of shaft

(D) τ/ 4G × Volume of shaft

Answer: C

2. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is _________ the stress induced when the same load is applied gradually.

(A) Equal to

(B) One-half

(D) Four times

Answer: C

3. A cube subjected to three mutually perpendicular stress of equal intensity p expenses a volumetric strain

(A) 3p/ E × (2/m – 1)

(B) 3p/ E × (2 – m)

(D) E/ 3p × (2/m – 1)

Answer: C

4. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft subjected to shear stress (τ), is:
(Where, G = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)

(A) τ²/ 2G × Volume of shaft

(B) τ/ 2G × Volume of shaft

(D) τ/ 4G × Volume of shaft

Answer: A

5. A material obeys hook’s law up to

(A) Plastic limit

(B) Elastic limit

(D) Limit of proportionality

Answer: B

6. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter (D) is (where τ = Maximum allowable shear stress)

(A) π /4 × τ × D³

(B) π /16 × τ × D³

(D) π /64 × τ × D³

Answer: B

7. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (d₁) and inner diameter (d2) is (where, τ = Maximum allowable shear stress)

(A) π /4 × τ × (d₁⁴ – d⁴₂)/ d₁

(B) π /16 × τ × (d₁⁴ – d⁴₂)/ d₁

(D) π /64 × τ × (d₁⁴ – d⁴₂)/ d₁

Answer: B

8. If Th is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ts is that of a solid shaft, of the same material, length and weight. Then,

(A) Th > Ts

(B) Th < Ts

(D) None of these

Answer: A

9. If Kh is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ks is that of a solid shaft, of the same material, length and weight. Then,

(A) Kh > Ks

(B) Kh < Ks

(D) None of these

Answer: A

10. After reaching the yielding stage while testing a mild steel specimen, strain

(A) Becomes constant

(B) Starts decreasing

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

11. Principal planes are planes having

(A) Maximum shear stress

(B) No shear stress

(D) None of the above

Answer: B

12. If the slenderness ratio for a column is 100, then it is said to be a _________ column.

(A) Long

(B) Medium

(D) None of these

Answer: A

13. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be

(A) 400 MPa

(B) 500 MPa

(D) 1400 MPa

Answer: D

14. Young’s modulus of a wire is defined as the stress which will increase the length of wire compared to its original length by

(A) Half

(B) Same amount

(D) One-fourth

Answer: B

15. True stress strain-curve for materials is plotted between

(A) Load/original cross-sectional area and change in length/original length

(B) Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and loge (original area/ instantaneous area)

(D) Load/ instantaneous area and instantaneous area/original area

Answer: B

16. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as compared to a solid shaft transmit

(A) Same torque

(B) Less torque

(D) Unpredictable

Answer: C

17. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 25°C to 45°C and it is free to expand. The bar will induce

(A) No stress

(B) Shear stress

(D) Compressive stress

Answer: A

18. Two shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ transmit the same power. The speed of shaft ‘A’ is 250 r.p.m. and that of shaft ‘B’ is 300 r.p.m.

(A) The shaft ‘B’ has the greater diameter

(B) The shaft ‘A’ has the greater diameter

(D) None of these

Answer: B

19. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called

(A) Unit mass

(B) Modulus of rigidity

(D) Modulus of Elasticity

Answer: D

20. A thick cylindrical shell having ro and ri as outer and inner radii, is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The maximum tangential stress at the inner surface of the shell is

(A) (ro² – ri²)/ 2p ri²

(B) 2p ri²/ (ro² – ri²)

(D) p (ro² – ri²)/ (ro² + ri²)

Answer: C

21. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to buckle in the direction of the

(A) Axis of load

(B) Perpendicular to the axis of load

(D) Minimum moment of inertia

Answer: D

22. Strain energy is the

(A) Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits

(B) Energy stored in a body when strained up to the breaking of a specimen

(D) Proof resilience per unit volume of a material

Answer: A

23. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(D) Infinity

Answer: A

24. A composite bar made up of steel and copper bars of equal lengths are heated through 100°C. The stresses developed shall be

(A) Tensile in both the material

(B) Tensile in steel and compressive in copper

(D) Compressive in both the materials

Answer: D

25. Euler’s formula holds good only for

(A) Short columns

(B) Long columns

(D) Weak columns

Answer: B

26. The bending moment at a point on a beam is the algebraic ________ of all the moments on either side of the point.

(A) Sum

(B) Difference

(D) None of the above

Answer: A

27. The maximum diameter of the hole that can be punched from a plate of maximum shear stress 1/4th of its maximum crushing stress of punch, is equal to (where t = Thickness of the plate)

(A) t

(B) 2t

(D) 8t

Answer: C

28. Within elastic limit, stress is

(A) Inversely proportional to strain

(B) Directly proportional to strain

(D) Equal to strain

Answer: B

29. Two closely coiled helical springs ‘A’ and ‘B’ are equal in all respects but the number of turns of spring ‘A’ is half that of spring ‘B’ The ratio of deflections in spring ‘A’ to spring ‘B’ is

(A) 1/8

(B) 1/4

(D) 2

Answer: C

30. The deformation per unit length is called

(A) Tensile stress

(B) Compressive stress

(D) Strain

Answer: D

31. The shape of cantilever for uniformly distributed load will be

(A) Straight line

(B) Parabolic

(D) Cubic

Answer: B

32. For a simply supported beam of length ‘l’, when a concentrated load W is applied in the center of the beam, the maximum deflection is

(A) 5WL³/ 384EI

(B) WL³/384EI

(D) WL³/ 48EI

Answer: D

33. The point of contra flexure is a point where

(A) Shear force changes sign

(B) Shear force is maximum

(D) Bending moment is maximum

Answer: C

34. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at

(A) Smaller end

(B) Larger end

(D) Anywhere

Answer: A

35. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to ultimate compressive stress is

(A) Same

(B) More

(D) Unpredictable

Answer: B

36. The energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limit is known as

(A) Resilience

(B) Proof resilience

(D) Impact energy

Answer: C

37. Modular ratio of two materials is the ratio of

(A) Strains

(B) Stress and strain

(D) Moduli and elasticity

Answer: D

38. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur along

(A) The axis of load

(B) An oblique plane

(D) Would not occur

Answer: B

39. A coil is cut into two halves, the stiffness of cut coil will be

(A) Double

(B) Half

(D) None of these

Answer: A

40. The bending stress in a beam is _________ section modulus.

(A) Inversely proportional to two times

(B) Directly proportional to

(D) None of these

Answer: C

41. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is _________ at that point.

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(D) Infinity

Answer: C

42. Elasticity of Mild Steel specimen is defined by

(A) Hooke’s law

(B) Yield point

(D) Proof stress

Answer: C

43. When a bar is cooled to -5°C, it will develop

(A) No stress

(B) Shear stress

(D) Compressive stress

Answer: C

44. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its Young’s modulus will be

(A) Doubled

(B) Halved

(D) None of the above

Answer: D

45. In order to know whether a column is long or short, we must know its

(A) Ultimate shear stress of the column

(B) Factor of safety

(D) Slenderness ratio

Answer: D

46. A masonry dam may fail due to

(A) Tension in the masonry of the dam and its base

(B) Overturning of the dam

(D) Any one of the above

Answer: D

47. Impact strength of a material is an index of its

(A) Toughness

(B) Tensile strength

(D) Hardness

Answer: A

48. In order to prevent crushing of masonry at the base of the dam, the maximum stress should be __________ the permissible stress of the soil.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

49. Volumetric strain for a rectangular specimen of length ‘l’, breadth ‘b’ and thickness ‘t’ subjected to a pull of ‘P’ is given by

(A) e (1 – 2m)

(B) e (1 – 2/m)

(D) e (2/m – 1)

Answer: B

50. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pushes, as a result of which the body tends to reduce its length, then

(A) The stress and strain induced is compressive

(B) The stress and strain induced is tensile

(D) None of these

Answer: A

51. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is

(A) (m – 1)/ (2m – 1)

(B) (2m – 1)/ (m – 1)

(D) (m – 2)/ (5m – 4)

Answer: D

52. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of

(A) Longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain

(B) Volumetric stress to volumetric strain

(D) Shear stress to shear strain

Answer: D

53. In the torsion equation T/J = τ/r = Gθ/ L, the term J/R is called

(A) Shear modulus

(B) Section modulus

(D) None of these

Answer: C

54. Strain re-setters are used to

(A) Measure shear strain

(B) Measure linear strain

(D) Relieve strain

Answer: B

55. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress is developed on the

(A) Top layer

(B) Bottom layer

(D) Every cross-section

Answer: B

56. In a uniform bar, supported at one end in position, the maximum stress under self weight of bar shall occur at the

(A) Middle of bar

(B) Supported end

(D) None of these

Answer: B

57. When both ends of a column are fixed, the effective length is

(A) Its own length

(B) Twice its length

(D) 1/√2 × its length

Answer: C

58. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portions having spring constants K₁ and K₂ is held between two rigid supports at the ends. Its equivalent spring constant is

(A) K₁ K₂

(B) (K₁ + K₂)/ 2

(D) K₁ K₂/ (K₁ + K₂)

Answer: A

59. Slenderness of a column is zero when

(A) Ends are firmly fixed

(B) Column is supported on all sides throughout the length

(D) Length is twice the radius of gyration

Answer: D

60. Resilience is the

(A) Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits

(B) Energy stored in a body when strained up to the breaking of the specimen maximum strain

(D) None of the above

Answer: D

61. When a closely-coiled helical spring of mean diameter (D) is subjected to an axial load (W), the deflection of the spring (δ) is given by (where d = Diameter of spring wire, n = No. of turns of the spring, and C = Modulus of rigidity for the spring material)

(A) WD3n/Cd⁴

(B) 2WD3n/Cd⁴

(D) 8WD3n/Cd⁴

Answer: D

62. Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of

(A) 50%

(B) 25%

(D) 15%

Answer: C

63. For the beam shown in the below figure, the shear force diagram between A and B is

(A) A horizontal line

(B) A vertical line

(D) A parabolic curve

Answer: D

64. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σx) in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), the maximum normal stress is

(A) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)

(B) (σx/2) – (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)

(D) (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)

Answer: A

65. The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in all directions are called

(A) Homogeneous

(B) Inelastic

(D) Isentropic

Answer: C

66. Modulus of rigidity may be defined as the ratio of

(A) Linear stress to lateral strain

(B) Lateral strain to linear strain

(D) Shear stress to shear strain

Answer: D

67. The ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain within elastic limit is known as

(A) Young’s modulus

(B) Bulk modulus

(D) Poisson’s ratio

Answer: D

68. In the below figure, the plastic range occurs

(A) Before point A

(B) Beyond point A

(D) Between points D and E

Answer: B

69. Shear modulus is the ratio of

(A) Linear stress to linear strain

(B) Linear stress to lateral strain

(D) Shear stress to shear strain

Answer: D

70. The ratio of elongation in a prismatic bar due to its own weight (W) as compared to another similar bar carrying an additional weight (W) will be

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 1 : 3

(D) 1 : 2.5

Answer: B

71. The weakest section of a diamond riveting is the section which passes through

(A) The first row

(B) The second row

(D) One rivet hole of the end row

Answer: D

72. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length, consists of

(A) One right angled triangle

(B) Two right angled triangles

(D) Two equilateral triangles

Answer: B

73. Hooke’s law holds good up to

(A) Yield point

(B) Limit of proportionality

(D) Elastic limit

Answer: B

74. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) The stress is the pressure per unit area

(B) The strain is expressed in mm

(D) Stress is directly proportional to strain within elastic limit

Answer: D

75. The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a smaller section is called

(A) Plasticity

(B) Ductility

(D) Malleability

Answer: B

76. The percentage reduction in area of a cast iron specimen during tensile test would be of the order of

(A) More than 50%

(B) 25-50%

(D) Negligible

Answer: D

77. The deformation of a bar under its own weight is _________ the deformation, if the same body is subjected to a direct load equal to weight of the body.

(A) Equal to

(B) Half

(D) Quadruple

Answer: B

78. The ratio of maximum shear stress developed in a rectangular beam and a circular beam of the same cross-sectional area is

(A) 2/3

(B) 3/4

(D) 9/8

Answer: D

79. Formula based on IS codes is based on

(A) Straight line formula

(B) Euler’s formula

(D) Secant formula

Answer: D

80. Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected to

(A) Frequent heat treatment

(B) Fatigue

(D) Shock loading

Answer: D

81. The buckling load for a given column depends upon

(A) Area of cross-section of the column

(B) Length and least radius of gyration of the column

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

82. The shear force at the center of a simply supported beam with a gradually varying load from zero at both ends to w per meter at the center, is

(A) Zero

(B) wl/4

(D) wl²/2

Answer: A

83. A riveted joint in which the number otrivets decrease from innermost to outer most rows is called

(A) Chain riveted joint

(B) Diamond riveted joint

(D) Zigzag riveted joint

Answer: B

84. A closely-coiled helical spring is cut into two halves. The stiffness of the resulting spring will be

(A) Same

(B) Double

(D) One-fourth

Answer: B

85. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is expressed by the

(A) Maximum torque it can transmit

(B) Number of cycles it undergoes before failure

(D) Torque required to produce a twist of one radian per unit length of shaft

Answer: D

86. The limit of eccentricity for no tensile conditions for a column of circular section of diameter (d) is

(A) d/4

(B) d/8

(D) d/16

Answer: B

87. The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original, shape after removal of the load is called

(A) Plasticity

(B) Elasticity

(D) Malleability

Answer: B

88. The state of stress at a point in a loaded member is shown in the below figure. The magnitude of maximum shear stress is

(A) 10 MPa

(B) 30 MPa

(D) 100 MPa

Answer: C

89. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the deflection at C is (where E = Young’s modulus for the beam material, and I = Moment of inertia of the beam section.)

(A) Wl3/48 EI

(B) Wa²b²/3EIl

(D) 5Wl3/384 EI

Answer: B

90. A concentrated load is one which

(A) Acts at a point on a beam

(B) Spreads non-uniformly over the whole length of a beam

(D) Varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam

Answer: A

91. The stress necessary to initiate yielding is

(A) Considerably greater than that necessary to continue it

(B) Considerably lesser than that necessary to continue it

(D) Lesser than that necessary to stop it

Answer: A

92. A lap joint is always in _________ shear.

(A) Single

(B) Double

(D) None of these

Answer: A

93. When it is indicated that a member is elastic, it means that when force is applied, it will

(A) Not deform

(B) Be safest

(D) Not stretch

Answer: C

94. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, when the load W is applied in the center of the beam, the maximum deflection is

(A) Wl3 / 48EI

(B) 5Wl3 / 384EI

(D) Wl3 / 384EI

Answer: A

95. The relation between Young’s modulus (E), shear modulus (C) and bulk modulus (K) is given by

(A) E = 3K.C/(3K + C)

(B) E = 6K.C/(3K + C)

(D) E = 12K.C/(3K + C)

Answer: C

96. The distance between the centers of the rivets in adjacent rows of zigzag riveted joint is known as

(A) Pitch

(B) Back pitch

(D) Diametric pitch

Answer: C

97. In the below figure, the stress corresponding to point ‘D’ is

(A) Yield point stress

(B) Breaking stress

(D) Elastic limit

Answer: C

98. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress of 200 MPa. The maximum shear stress will be

(A) -100 MPa

(B) 250 MPa

(D) 400 MPa

Answer: B

99. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as

(A) Joint less section

(B) Homogeneous section

(D) Seamless section

Answer: D

100. A beam which is fixed at one end and free at the other is called

(A) Simply supported beam

(B) Fixed beam

(D) Cantilever beam

Answer: D

101. The neutral axis of a transverse section of a beam passes through the centre of gravity of the section and is

(A) In the vertical plane

(B) In the horizontal plane

(D) At right angle to the plane in which the beam bends

Answer: D

102. The value of Poisson’s ratio for steel is between

(A) 0.01 to 0.1

(B) 0.23 to 0.27

(D) 0.4 to 0.6

Answer: C

103. The columns whose slenderness ratio is less than 80, are known as

(A) Short columns

(B) Long columns

(D) Medium columns

Answer: A

104. The stress developed in a material at breaking point in extension is called

(A) Breaking stress

(B) Fracture stress

(D) Ultimate tensile stress

Answer: A

105. For riveting, the size of hole drilled in plates is __________ shank diameter of rivet.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: C

106. Proof resilience per material is known as

(A) Resilience

(B) Proof resilience

(D) Toughness

Answer: C

107. The capacity of a strained body for doing work on the removal of the straining force, is called

(A) Strain energy

(B) Resilience

(D) Impact energy

Answer: B

108. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen, the breaking stress as compared to ultimate tensile stress is

(A) More

(B) Less

(D) More/less depending on composition

Answer: B

109. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column of length __________ with both ends hinged.

(A) l/8

(B) l/4

(D) l

Answer: C

110. If the depth is kept constant for a beam of uniform strength, then its width will vary in proportional to

(A) Bending moment (i.e. M)

(B) Bending moment² (i.e. M²)

(D) Bending moment⁴ (i.e. M⁴)

Answer: A

111. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone, the

(A) Tensile strain increases more quickly

(B) Tensile strain decreases more quickly

(D) Tensile strain decreases in proportion to the stress

Answer: A

112. The pull required to crush the rivet per pitch length is

(A) p.t.σt

(B) d.t.σc

(D) π/4 × d² × σc

Answer: B

113. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as

(A) Resilience

(B) Proof resilience

(D) Toughness

Answer: A

114. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d₁ at one end to diameter d₂ at the other end and subjected to an axial pull of ‘P’ is given by

(A) δl = 4PE/ πl²

(B) δl = 4πld²/PE

(D) δl = 4PlE/ πd₁d₂

Answer: C

115. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, is

(A) wl²/3√3

(B) wl²/6√3

(D) wl²/12√3

Answer: C

116. Efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of its strength (max. load it can resist without failure) to the strength of the unpunched plate in

(A) Tension

(B) Compression

(D) Any one of the above

Answer: A

117. The pull required to tear off the plate per pitch length is (where p = Pitch of rivets, t = Thickness of plates, and σt, τ and σc = Permissible tensile, shearing and crushing stresses respectively)

(A) (p – 2d) t × σc

(B) (p – d) t × τ

(D) (2p – d) t × σt

Answer: C

118. In a belt drive, the pulley diameter is doubled, the belt tension and pulley width remaining same. The changes required in key will be

(A) Increase key length

(B) Increase key depth

(D) Double all the dimensions

Answer: C

119. In the below figure, curve D represents_________.

(A) Mild steel

(B) Cast iron

(D) Bone of these

Answer: A

120. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ and carrying a uniformly distributed load of ‘w’ per unit length is __________ at the fixed end.

(A) wl/4

(B) wl/2

(D) wl²/2

Answer: D

121. Young’s modulus is defined as the ratio of

(A) Volumetric stress and volumetric strain

(B) Lateral stress and lateral strain

(D) Shear stress to shear strain

Answer: C

122. The layer at the center of gravity of the beam as shown in the below figure, will be

(A) In tension

(B) In compression

(D) None of these

Answer: C

123. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σx) in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), the minimum normal stress is

(A) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)

(B) (σx/2) – (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)

(D) (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)

Answer: B

124. Tensile strength of a material is obtained by dividing the maximum load during the test by the

(A) Area at the time of fracture

(B) Original cross-sectional area

(D) Minimum area after fracture

Answer: B

125. The section modulus of a circular section about an axis through its C.G., is

(A) πd²/4

(B) πd²/16

(D) πd3/32

Answer: D

126. If a part is constrained to move and heated, it will develop

(A) Principal stress

(B) Tensile stress

(D) Shear stress

Answer: C

127. The moment of resistance of a balanced reinforced concrete beam is based on the stresses in

(A) Steel only

(B) Concrete only

(D) None of these

Answer: C

128. The property of a material by virtue of which it can be beaten or rolled into plates is called

(A) Malleability

(B) Ductility

(D) Elasticity

Answer: A

129. In case of an under-reinforced beam, the depth of actual neutral axis is __________ that of the critical neutral axis.

(A) Same as

(B) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

130. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within the elastic limits, is known as

(A) Strain energy

(B) Resilience

(D) Modulus of resilience

Answer: A

131. A simply supported beam with a gradually varying load from zero at ‘B’ and ‘w’ per unit length at ‘A’ is shown in the below figure. The shear force at ‘B’ is equal to

(A) wl/6

(B) wl/3

(D) 2wl/3

Answer: A 1

132. A fletched beam is used to

(A) Change the shape of the beam

(B) Effect the saving in material

(D) Increase the cross-section of the beam

Answer: C

133. Percentage reduction in area performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of

(A) 50%

(B) 25%

(D) 30%

Answer: C

134. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at the end is increased, the failure will occur

(A) In the middle

(B) At the tip below the load

(D) Anywhere

Answer: D

135. The assumption made in Euler’s column theory is that

(A) The failure of column occurs due to buckling alone

(B) The length of column is very large as compared to its cross-sectional dimensions

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

136. If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and the outermost row has only one rivets, the arrangement of the rivets is called

(A) Chain riveting

(B) Zigzag riveting

(D) Crisscross riveting

Answer: C

137. The point of contraflexure is a point where

(A) Shear force changes sign

(B) Bending moment changes sign

(D) Bending moment is maximum

Answer: B

138. The value of shear stress which is induced in the shaft due to the applied couple varies

(A) From maximum at the center to zero at the circumference

(B) From zero at the center to maximum at the circumference

(D) From minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference

Answer: B

139. The extremities of any diameter on Mohr’s circle represent

(A) Principal stresses

(B) Normal stresses on planes at 45°

(D) Normal and shear stresses on a plane

Answer: B

140. The materials having same elastic properties in all directions are called

(A) Ideal materials

(B) Uniform materials

(D) Piratical materials

Answer: C

141. The ratio of the largest load in a test to the original cross-sectional area of the test piece is called

(A) Elastic limit

(B) Yield stress

(D) Breaking stress

Answer: C

142. A column is said to be a short column, when

(A) Its length is very small

(B) Its cross-sectional area is small

(D) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is more than 80

Answer: C

143. The total elongation produced in a bar of uniform section hanging vertically downwards due to its own weight is equal to that produced by a weight

(A) Of same magnitude as that of bar and applied at the lower end

(B) Half the weight of bar applied at lower end

(D) One fourth of weight of bar applied at lower end

Answer: B

144. The lower layer of the beam as shown in the below figure, will be

(A) In tension

(B) In compression

(D) None of these

Answer: A

145. The tensile strength of the welded joint for double fillet is (where s = Leg or size of the weld, l = Length of weld, and σt = Allowable tensile stress for weld metal)

(A) 0.5 s.l.σt

(B) s.l.σt

(D) 2.s.l.σt

Answer: C

146. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop

(A) Thermal stresses

(B) Tensile stress

(D) No stress

Answer: D

147. When a body is subjected to biaxial stress i.e. direct stresses (σx) and (σy) in two mutually perpendicular planes accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), then maximum normal stress is

(A) (σx + σy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(σx – σy)² + 4 τ²xy]

(B) (σx + σy)/2 – (1/2) × √[(σx – σy)² + 4 τ²xy]

(D) (σx – σy)/2 – (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4 τ²xy]

Answer: A

148. The stress at which extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in load is called

(A) Elastic point of the material

(B) Plastic point of the material

(D) Yielding point of the material

Answer: D

149. A cantilever beam is one which is

(A) Fixed at both ends

(B) Fixed at one end and free at the other end

(D) Supported on more than two supports

Answer: B

150. In a prismatic member made of two materials so joined that they deform equally under axial stress, the unit stresses in two materials are

(A) Equal

(B) Proportional to their respective moduli of elasticity

(D) Average of the sum of moduli of elasticity

Answer: B

151. A circular shaft fixed at, A has diameter D for half of its length and diameter D/2 over the other half, as shown in the below figure. If the rotation of B relative to A is 0.1 radian, the rotation of C relative to B will be

(A) 0.4 radian

(B) 0.8 radian

(D) 3.2 radian

Answer: C

152. The shear force diagram of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ and carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length will be

(A) A right angled triangle

(B) An isosceles triangle

(D) A rectangle

Answer: A

153. The safe twisting moment for a compound shaft is equal to the

(A) Maximum calculated value

(B) Minimum calculated value

(D) Extreme value

Answer: B

154. When a bar is subjected to a change of temperature and its deformation is prevented, the stress induced in the bar is

(A) Tensile stress

(B) Compressive stress

(D) Thermal stress

Answer: D

155. A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding loads in equal increments till it breaks. The extensions noted with increasing loads will behave as under

(A) Uniform throughout

(B) Increase uniformly

(D) Increase uniformly first and then increase rapidly

Answer: D

156. Which of the following is a proper sequence?

(A) Proportional limit, elastic limit, yielding, failure

(B) Elastic limit, proportional limit, yielding, failure

(D) None of the above

Answer: A

157. Which is the false statement about true stress strain method?

(A) It does not exist

(B) It is more sensitive to changes in both metallurgical and mechanical conditions

(D) It can be correlated with stress strain values in other tests like torsion, impact, combined stress tests etc.

Answer: A

158. The bending equation is

(A) M/I = σ/y = E/R

(B) T/J = τ/R = Cθ/l

(D) T/l= τ/J = R/Cθ

Answer: A

159. For which material the Poisson’s ratio is more than unity

(A) Steel

(B) Copper

(D) None of the above

Answer: D

160. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, then maximum normal stress occurs at a section inclined at _________ to the normal of the section.

(A) 0°

(B) 30°

(D) 90°

Answer: A

161. Flow stress corresponds to

(A) Fluids in motion

(B) Breaking point

(D) Rupture stress

Answer: C

162. The thickness of a thin cylindrical shell with hemispherical ends is _________ that of spherical ends.

(A) Equal to

(B) More than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

163. A riveted joint in which every rivet of a row is opposite to other rivet of the outer row, is known as

(A) Chain riveted joint

(B) Diamond riveted joint

(D) Zigzag riveted joint

Answer: A

164. The maximum tangential stress in a thick cylindrical shell is always _________ the internal pressure acting on the shell.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: C

165. If percentage reduction in area of a certain specimen made of material ‘A’ under tensile test is 60% and the percentage reduction in area of a specimen with same dimensions made of material ‘B’ is 40%, then

(A) The material A is more ductile than material B

(B) The material B is more ductile than material A

(D) The material A is brittle and material B is ductile

Answer: A

166. Which of the following materials is most elastic?

(A) Rubber

(B) Plastic

(D) Steel

Answer: D

167. Strain is equal to (where l = Original length, and δl = Change in length)

(A) l/δl

(B) δl/l

(D) l + δl

Answer: B

168. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain in case of a body subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses of equal intensity, is equal to

(A) Young’s modulus

(B) Bulk modulus

(D) Modulus of elasticity

Answer: B

169. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is called linear strain.

(B) The Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain.

(D) The bulk modulus is the ratio of linear stress to the linear strain.

Answer: D

170. Diamond riveted joint can be adopted in the case of following type of joint

(A) Butt joint

(B) Lap joint

(D) All types of joints

Answer: A

171. When a body is subjected to biaxial stress i.e. direct stresses (σx) and (σy) in two mutually perpendicular planes accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), then minimum normal stress is

(A) (σx + σy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(σx – σy)² + 4 τ²xy]

(B) (σx + σy)/2 – (1/2) × √[(σx – σy)² + 4 τ²xy]

(D) (σx – σy)/2 – (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4 τ²xy]

Answer: B

172. The unit of Young’s modulus is

(A) mm/mm

(B) kg/cm

(D) kg/cm²

Answer: D

173. When a body is subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses, of equal intensity, the ratio of direct stress to the corresponding volumetric strain is known as

(A) Young’s modulus

(B) Modulus of rigidity

(D) Poisson’s ratio

Answer: C

174. The value of modulus of elasticity for mild steel is of the order of

(A) 2.1 × 10⁵ kg/cm²

(B) 2.1 × 10⁶ kg/cm²

(D) 0.1 × 10⁶ kg/cm²

Answer: B

175. A pressure vessel is said to be a thick shell, when

(A) It is made of thick sheets

(B) The internal pressure is very high

(D) The ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is greater than 1/10.

Answer: D

176. The strain energy stored in a body due to suddenly applied load compared to when it is applied gradually is

(A) Same

(B) Twice

(D) Eight times

Answer: C

177. The deformation of a bar under its own weight compared to the deformation of same body subjected to a direct load equal to weight of the body is

(A) Same

(B) Double

(D) Four times

Answer: C

178. A continuous beam is one which is

(A) Fixed at both ends

(B) Fixed at one end and free at the other end

(D) Extending beyond the supports

Answer: C

179. The radius of the Mohr’s circle in the given figure is equal to
Som Question No 14

(A) Sum of two principal stresses

(B) Difference of two principal stresses

(D) Half the difference of two principal stresses

Answer: D

180. The maximum shear stress, in the given figure, is equal to __________ of the Mohr’s circle.

(A) Radius

(B) Diameter

(D) Area

Answer: A

181. A key is subjected to side pressure as well at shearing forces. These pressures are called

(A) Bearing stresses

(B) Fatigue stresses

(D) Resultant stresses

Answer: A

182. When a closely-coiled helical spring of mean diameter (D) is subjected to an axial load (W), the stiffness of the spring is given by

(A) Cd⁴/D3n

(B) Cd⁴/2D3n

(D) Cd⁴/8D3n

Answer: D

183. During a tensile test on a specimen of 1 cm cross-section, maximum load observed was 8 tonnes and area of cross-section at neck was 0.5 cm². Ultimate tensile strength of specimen is

(A) 4 tonnes/ cm²

(B) 8 tonnes/ cm²

(D) 22 tonnes/ cm²

Answer: B

184. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σx) in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), the maximum shear stress is

(A) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)

(B) (σx/2) – (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)

(D) (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)

Answer: D

185. The change in the unit volume of a material under tension with increase in its Poisson’s ratio will

(A) Increase

(B) Decrease

(D) Increase initially and then decrease

Answer: B

186. A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy before fracture is known as

(A) Ductility

(B) Toughness

(D) Shock proof

Answer: B

187. The shear force at the ends of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is

(A) Zero at its both ends

(B) wl at one end and -wl at the other end

(D) wl²/2 at one end and -wl²/ 2 at the other end

Answer: C

188. Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is known as

(A) Strain

(B) Lateral strain

(D) Linear stress

Answer: C

189. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain energy.

(B) The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof resilience.

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

190. Rupture stress is

(A) Breaking stress

(B) Maximum load/original cross-sectional area

(D) Load at breaking point/neck area

Answer: D

191. When two shafts of same length, one of which is hollow, transmit equal torques and have equal maximum stress, then they should have equal

(A) Polar moment of inertia

(B) Polar modulus

(D) Angle of twist

Answer: B

192. Longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder is

(A) Equal to the hoop stress

(B) Twice the hoop stress

(D) One fourth of hoop stress

Answer: C

193. A beam of uniform strength may be obtained by

(A) Keeping the width uniform and varying the depth

(B) Keeping the depth uniform and varying the width

(D) Any one of the above

Answer: D

194. Which of the following has no unit?

(A) Kinematic viscosity

(B) Surface tension

(D) Strain

Answer: D

195. The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is known as

(A) Linear strain

(B) Lateral strain

(D) Shear strain

Answer: A

196. In the below figure, __________ represents glass.

(A) Curve A

(B) Curve B

(D) Curve D

Answer: C

197. Hook’s law holds good up to

(A) Yield point

(B) Elastic limit

(D) Breaking point

Answer: B

198. A thin spherical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The stress in the shell material is

(A) pd/t

(B) pd/2t

(D) pd/8t

Answer: C

199. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of

(A) Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain

(B) Longitudinal stress and lateral stress

(D) Lateral stress and lateral strain

Answer: C

200. The rectangular beam ‘A’ has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam ‘B’ has the same length and width but depth is double that of ‘A’. The elastic strength of beam B will be __________ as compared to beam A.

(A) Same

(B) Double

(D) Six times

Answer: C

201. The value of Poisson’s ratio for cast iron is

(A) 0.1 to 0.2

(B) 0.23 to 0.27

(D) 0.4 to 0.6

Answer: B

202. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling load of a column is given by p = π²EI/Cl². In the Euler’s formula, the value of C for a column with one end fixed and the other end free, is

(A) 1/2

(B) 1

(D) 4

Answer: D

203. The elasticity of various materials is controlled by its

(A) Ultimate tensile stress

(B) Proof stress

(D) Stress at elastic limit

Answer: D

204. A simply supported beam of length ‘l’ carries a point load ‘W’ at a point C as shown in the below figure. The maximum deflection lies at

(A) Point A

(B) Point B

(D) Between points B and C

Answer: D

205. The shear force diagram for a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying load from zero at free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is a

(A) Horizontal straight line

(B) Vertical straight line

(D) Parabolic curve

Answer: D

206. The maximum shear stress in a thin cylindrical shell subjected to internal pressure ‘p’ is

(A) pd/t

(B) pd/2t

(D) pd/8t

Answer: D

207. When a beam is subjected to bending moment, the stress at any point is __________ the distance of the point from the neutral axis.

(A) Equal to

(B) Directly proportional to

(D) Independent of

Answer: B

208. In a tensile test, when the material is stressed beyond elastic limit, the tensile strain __________ as compared to the stress.

(A) Decreases slowly

(B) Increases slowly

(D) Increases more quickly

Answer: D

209. A fixed beam is one which is fixed at _________.

(A) One of its ends

(B) Both of its ends

(D) None of these

Answer: B

210. If the modulus of elasticity for a given material is twice its modulus of rigidity, then bulk modulus is equal to

(A) 2C

(B) 3C

(D) 3C/2

Answer: C

211. When a load on the free end of a cantilever beam is increased, failure will occur

(A) At the free end

(B) At the fixed end

(D) At a distance 2l/3 from free end

Answer: B

212. The rectangular beam ‘A ‘ has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam ‘B’ has the same width and depth but length is double that of ‘A’. The elastic strength of beam ‘B’ will be __________ as compared to beam A.

(A) Same

(B) One-half

(D) One-eighth

Answer: B

213. In leaf springs, the maximum bending stress developed in the plates is (where W = Load acting on the spring, l = Span of the spring, n = Number of plates, b = Width of plates, and t = Thickness of plates)

(A) Wl/nbt²

(B) 3Wl/2nbt²

(D) 3Wl/nbt²

Answer: B

214. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d₁ at one end to diameter d₂ at the other end, and subjected to an axial pull of P is _________ the extension of a circular bar of diameter d₁ d₂ subjected to the same load P.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: A

215. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the radial stress across the thickness of the cylinder is

(A) Maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface

(B) Maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface

(D) Maximum at the inner surface arid zero at the outer surface

Answer: D

216. A column with maximum equivalent length has

(A) Both ends hinged

(B) Both ends fixed

(D) One end fixed and the other end free

Answer: D

217. The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called

(A) Linear strain

(B) Lateral strain

(D) Poisson’s ratio

Answer: C

218. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) In the theory of simple bending, the assumption is that the plane sections before bending remains plane after bending.

(B) In a beam subjected to bending moment, the strain is directly proportional to the distance from the neutral axis.

(D) The bending stress in a beam is inversely proportional to the section modulus.

Answer: C

219. The polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter (D) is

(A) πD³/16

(B) πD³/32

(D) πD⁴/64

Answer: C

220. In Mohr’s circle, the center of circle from Y-axis is taken as

(A) (σx – σy)/2

(B) (σx + σy)/2

(D) [(σx + σy)/2] + τ

Answer: B

221. Shear strength of the welded joint for double parallel fillet is (where τ = Allowable shear stress for weld metal)

(A) 0.5 s.l.τ

(B) s.l.τ

(D) 2.s.l.τ

Answer: C

222. When a shaft, is subjected to torsion, the shear stress induced in the shaft varies from

(A) Minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference

(B) Maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference

(D) Maximum at the center to zero at the circumference

Answer: C

223. The strain energy stored in a body, when the load is gradually applied, is (where σ = Stress in the material of the body, V = Volume of the body, and E = Modulus of elasticity of the material)

(A) σE/V

(B) σV/E

(D) σ²V/2E

Answer: D

224. At the neutral axis of a beam, the shear stress is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(D) Infinity

Answer: C

225. In a stress-strain diagram for mild steel, as shown in the below figure, the point ‘A’ represents

(A) Elastic limit

(B) Upper yield point

(D) Breaking point

Answer: A

226. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite forces, acting tangentially across the resisting section, as a result of which the body tends to shear off across the section, the stress and strain induced is

(A) Tensile stress, tensile strain

(B) Compressive stress, compressive strain

(D) Shear stress, shear strain

Answer: D

227. The given figure shows the Mohr’s circle of stress for two unequal and like principal stresses (σx and σy) acting at a body across two mutually perpendicular planes. The tangential stress is given by

(A) OC

(B) OP

(D) PQ

Answer: D

228. The strain energy stored in a hollow circular shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) subjected to shear stress is

(A) (τ²/2C) (D² – d²/D) × Volume of shaft

(B) (τ²/2C) (D² + d²/D) × Volume of shaft

(D) (τ²/4C) (D² + d²/D) × Volume of shaft

Answer: D

229. The center to center distance, between two consecutive rivets in a row, is called

(A) Margin

(B) Pitch

(D) Diagonal pitch

Answer: B

230. Two shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ are made of same material. The shaft ‘A’ is of diameter D and shaft ‘B’ is of diameter D/2. The strength of shaft ‘B’ is _________ as that of shaft ‘A’

(A) One-eighth

(B) One-fourth

(D) Four times

Answer: A

231. According to Unwin’s formula, the relation between diameter of rivet hole (d) and thickness of plate (t) is given by (where d and t are in mm)

(A) d = t

(B) d = 1.6 t

(D) d = 6t

Answer: D

232. A tensile test is performed on a round bar. After fracture, it has been found that the diameter remains approximately same at fracture. The material under test was

(A) Mild steel

(B) Cast iron

(D) Copper

Answer: B

233. A rectangular beam of length l supported at its two ends carries a central point load W. The maximum deflection occurs

(A) At the ends

(B) At l/3 from both ends

(D) None of these

Answer: C

234. The ratio of the lateral strain to the linear strain is called

(A) Modulus of elasticity

(B) Modulus of rigidity

(D) Poisson’s ratio

Answer: D

235. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is _________ at the free end.

(A) Zero

(B) wl/4

(D) wl

Answer: A

236. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies

(A) Linearly

(B) Parabolically

(D) Elliptically

Answer: A

237. The shear force at a point on a beam is the algebraic __________ of all the forces on either side of the point.

(A) Sum

(B) Difference

(D) Division

Answer: A

238. When a cantilever beam is loaded at its free end, the maximum compressive stress shall develop at

(A) Bottom fibre

(B) Top fibre

(D) Center of gravity

Answer: A

239. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as

(A) Resilience

(B) Proof resilience

(D) Modulus of resilience

Answer: A

240. When a body is subjected to biaxial stress i.e. direct stresses (σx) and (σy) in two mutually perpendicular planes accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), then maximum shear stress is

(A) (1/2) × √[(σx – σy)² + 4 τ²xy]

(B) (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4 τ²xy]

(D) √[(σx + σy)² + τ²xy]

Answer: A

241. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling load for a column length (l) hinged at both ends, is

(A) π²EI/l²

(B) π²EI/4l²

(D) 2π²EI/l²

Answer: A

242. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d), length (l) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to hoop strain is

(A) (m – 2)/(2m – 1)

(B) (2m – 1)/(m – 2)

(D) (2m + 1)/(m – 2)

Answer: A

243. Young’s modulus may be defined as the ratio of

(A) Linear stress to lateral strain

(B) Lateral strain to linear strain

(D) Shear stress to shear strain

Answer: C

244. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, lies at a distance of ________ from the end B.

(A) l/2

(B) l/3

(D) l/√3

Answer: D

245. Two closely-coiled helical springs ‘A’ and ‘B’ are equal in all respects but the number of turns of spring ‘A’ is double that of spring ‘B’. The stiffness of spring ‘A’ will be __________ that of spring ‘B’.

(A) One-sixteenth

(B) One-eighth

(D) One-half

Answer: D

246. The bending moment on a section is maximum where shear force is

(A) Minimum

(B) Maximum

(D) Zero

Answer: C

247. The stress developed in the material without any permanent set is called

(A) Elastic limit

(B) Yield stress

(D) Breaking stress

Answer: A

248. Two closely coiled helical springs ‘A’ and ‘B’ are equal in all respects but the diameter of wire of spring ‘A’ is double that of spring ‘B’ The stiffness of spring ‘B’ will be __________ that of spring ‘A’

(A) One-sixteenth

(B) One-eighth

(D) One-half

Answer: A

249. In a riveted joint, when the number of rivets decreases from the inner most row to outer most row, the joint is said to be

(A) Chain riveted

(B) Zig-zag riveted

(D) None of these

Answer: C

250. The polar modulus for a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is

(A) (π/4) × (D² – d²)/D

(B) (π/16) × (D3 – d3)/D

(D) (π/32) × (D⁴ – d⁴)/D

Answer: C

251. A leaf spring is supported at the

(A) Ends and loaded at the center

(B) Center and loaded at the ends

(D) Center and loaded anywhere

Answer: B

252. The assumption made in the theory of the reinforced cement concrete beam is that

(A) All the tensile stresses are taken up by the steel reinforcement only

(B) There is a sufficient bond between steel and concrete

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

253. The ultimate tensile stress for mild steel is __________ the ultimate compressive stress.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: C

254. The neutral axis of the cross-section of a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(D) Infinity

Answer: A

255. When a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure, there will be

(A) A decrease in diameter and length of the shell

(B) An increase in diameter and decrease in length of the shell

(D) An increase in diameter and length of the shell

Answer: D

256. When the shear force diagram is a parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that there is a

(A) Point load at the two points

(B) No loading between the two points

(D) Uniformly varying load between the two points

Answer: D

257. In order to avoid sliding of masonry dam, the force of friction between the dam and soil should be at least __________ the total water pressure per meter length.

(A) Equal to

(B) 1.5 times

(D) 2.5 times

Answer: B

258. The design of thin cylindrical shells is based on

(A) Hoop stress

(B) Longitudinal stress

(D) Geometric mean of the hoop and longitudinal stress

Answer: A

259. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The minimum normal stress will be

(A) 400 MPa

(B) 500 MPa

(D) 1400 MPa

Answer: A

260. In the below figure, the point C represents

(A) Elastic limit

(B) Upper yield point

(D) Breaking point

Answer: C

261. If the section modulus of a beam is increased, the bending stress in the beam will

(A) Not change

(B) Increase

(D) None of these

Answer: C

262. In the below figure, the point E represents.

(A) The maximum stress

(B) The minimum stress

(D) None of these

Answer: A

263. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ with a point load ‘W’ at the free end is

(A) Wl3/3EI

(B) Wl3/8EI

(D) Wl3/48EI

Answer: A

264. The strength of a riveted joint is equal to the

(A) Pull required to tear off the plate per pitch length (Pt)

(B) Pull required to shear off the rivet per pitch length (Ps)

(D) Minimum value of Pt, Ps or Pc

Answer: D

265. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is given by

(A) T/J

(B) T/θ

(D) T/G

Answer: B

266. A localized compressive stress at the area of contact between two members is known as

(A) Tensile stress

(B) Bending stress

(D) Shear stress

Answer: C

267. The product of Young’s modulus (E) and moment of inertia (I) is known as

(A) Modulus of rigidity

(B) Bulk modulus

(D) Torsional rigidity

Answer: C

268. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane. The shear stress is maximum at a section inclined at __________ to the normal of the section.

(A) 45° and 90°

(B) 45° and 135°

(D) 30° and 135°

Answer: B

269. Two solid shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ are made of the same material. The shaft ‘A’ is of 50 mm diameter and shaft ‘B’ is of 100 mm diameter. The strength of shaft ‘B’ is _________ as that of shaft A.

(A) One-half

(B) Double

(D) Eight times

Answer: D

270. For a given stress, the ratio of moment of resistance of a beam of square cross-section when placed with its two sides horizontal to the moment of resistance with its diagonal horizontal, is

(A) 1/2

(B) 1

(D) √2

Answer: D

271. The ductility of the material __________ with the decrease in percentage elongation of a specimen under tensile test.

(A) Increases

(B) Decreases

(D) None of these

Answer: B

272. The length of a conical bar is l, diameter of base is d and weight per unit volume is w. It is fixes at its upper end and hanging freely. The elongation of the bar under the action of its own weight will be

(A) wl²/2E

(B) wl²/4E

(D) wl²/8E

Answer: C

273. The ratio of linear stress to the linear strain is called

(A) Modulus of rigidity

(B) Modulus of elasticity

(D) Poisson’s ratio

Answer: B

274. For no tension condition in the base of a short column of circular section, the line of action of the load should be within a circle of diameter equal to __________ of the main circle.

(A) One-half

(B) One-third

(D) One-eighth

Answer: C

275. The shear modulus of most materials with respect to the modulus of elasticity is

(A) Equal to half

(B) Less than half

(D) None of these

Answer: B

276. Whenever a material is loaded within elastic limit, stress is __________ strain.

(A) Equal to

(B) Directly proportional to

(D) None of these

Answer: B

277. In the below figure, Hook’s law holds good, for the portion from_________.

(A) O to A

(B) B to D

(D) None of these

278. The point of contraflexure occurs in

(A) Cantilever beams

(B) Simply supported beams

(D) Fixed beams

Answer: C

279. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying load from zero at free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is ________ at the fixed end.

(A) wl/2

(B) wl

(D) wl²/6

Answer: D

280. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ with a uniformly distributed load of ‘w’ per unit length is (where W = wl)

(A) Wl³/3EI

(B) Wl³/8EI

(D) Wl³/48EI

Answer: B

281. When a bar of length l, width b and thickness t is subjected to a pull of P, its

(A) Length, width and thickness increases

(B) Length, width and thickness decreases

(D) Length decreases, width and thickness increases

Answer: C

282. A beam of T-section is subjected to a shear force of F. The maximum shear force will occur at the

(A) Top of the section

(B) Bottom of the section

(D) Junction of web and flange

Answer: C

283. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length l carrying a central point load W is

(A) wl³/48 EI

(B) wl³/96 EI

(D) wl³/384 EI

Answer: C

284. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is

(A) (π/4) × τ [(D² – d²)/d]

(B) (π/16) × τ [(D³ – d³)/d]

(D) (π/32) × τ [(D⁴ – d⁴)/d]

Answer: C

285. At the neutral axis of a beam

(A) The layers are subjected to maximum bending stress

(B) The layers are subjected to minimum bending stress

(D) The layers do not undergo any strain

Answer: D

286. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the tangential stress across the thickness of a cylinder is

(A) Maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface

(B) Maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface

(D) Maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface

Answer: B

287. When a bar of length l, width b and thickness t is subjected to a push of P, its

(A) Length, width and thickness increases

(B) Length, width and thickness decreases

(D) Length decreases, width and thickness increases

Answer: D

288. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumptions is that the plane sections before bending remain plane after bending. This assumption means that

(A) Stress is uniform throughout the beam

(B) Strain is uniform throughout the beam

(D) Strain is proportional to the distance from the neutral axis

Answer: D

289. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the maximum deflection lies at

(A) l/3 from B

(B) l/3 from A

(D) √(l² – b²/3) from A

Answer: C

290. In the above question, the ratio of stiffness of spring ‘B’ to spring ‘A’ will be

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

Answer: D

291. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, then normal stress on an oblique section of the body inclined at an angle ‘θ’ to the normal of the section is

(A) σ cosθ

(B) σ cos²θ

(D) σ sin²θ

Answer: B

292. The longitudinal stress in a riveted cylindrical shell of diameter (d), thickness (t) and subjected to an internal pressure (p) is

(A) pd/(η × t)

(B) pd/(η × 2t)

(D) pd/(η × 8t)

Answer: C

293. Lame’s theory is associated with

(A) Thin cylindrical shells

(B) Thick cylindrical shells

(D) None of these

Answer: B

294. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling load of a column is given by p = π² EI/Cl² In this equation, the value of ‘C’ for a column with both ends hinged, is

(A) ¼

(B) ½

(D) 2

Answer: C

295. A riveted joint may fail by

(A) Tearing of the plate at an edge

(B) Tearing of the plate across a row of rivets

(D) Any one of these

Answer: D

296. The tensile strength of ductile materials is _________ its compressive strength.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: C

297. The strain energy stored in a body due to shear stress, is (where τ = Shear stress, C = Shear modulus, and V = Volume of the body)

(A) (τ/2C) × V

(B) 2C/ τV

(D) 2C/ τ²V

Answer: C

298. The maximum shear stress is __________ the algebraic difference of maximum and minimum normal stresses.

(A) Equal to

(B) One-fourth

(D) Twice

Answer: C

299. The object of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint

(A) Free from corrosion

(B) Stronger in tension

(D) Leak proof

Answer: D

300. The Poisson’s ratio for steel varies from

(A) 0.23 to 0.27

(B) 0.27 to 0.30

(D) 0.32 to 0.42

Answer: B

301. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying load from zero at the free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is _________ at the fixed end.

(A) Zero

(B) wl/4

(D) wl

Answer: C

302. The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to

(A) 10 kN/mm²

(B) 80 kN/mm²

(D) 210 kN/mm²

Answer: D

303. The direct stress induced in a long column is __________ as compared to bending stress.

(A) Same

(B) More

(D) Negligible

Answer: D

304. For a 25 mm hole drilled in plates, the diameter of rivet shank should be

(A) 23 mm

(B) 24.5 mm

(D) 26 mm

Answer: A

305. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is __________ that of prismatic bar of the same length.

(A) Equal to

(B) Half

(D) Two-third

Answer: C

306. A bolt is made to pass through a tube and both of them are tightly fitted with the help of washers and nuts. If the nut is tightened, then

(A) Bolt and tube are under tension

(B) Bolt and tube are under compression

(D) Bolt is under tension and tube is under compression

Answer: D

307. Two shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ have the same material. The shaft ‘A’ is solid of diameter 100 mm. The shaft ‘B’ is hollow with outer diameter 100 mm and inner diameter 50 mm. The torque transmitted by shaft ‘B’ is __________ as that of shaft ‘A’.

(A) 1/6

(B) 1/8

(D) 15/16

Answer: D

308. Mohr’s circle is used to determine the stresses on an oblique section of a body subjected to

(A) Direct tensile stress in one plane accompanied by a shear stress

(B) Direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

309. A steel bar 2 m long, 20 mm wide and 10 mm thick is subjected to a pull of 2 kN. If the same bar is subjected to a push of 2 kN, the Poisson’s ratio of the bar in tension will be __________ the Poisson’s ratio for the bar in compression.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: A

310. The assumption, generally, made in the theory of simple bending is that

(A) The beam material is perfectly homogeneous and isotropic

(B) The beam material is stressed within its elastic limit

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

311. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pulls, as a result of which the body tends to extend its length, the stress and strain induced is

(A) Compressive stress, tensile strain

(B) Tensile stress, compressive strain

(D) Compressive stress, compressive strain

Answer: C

312. The thermal stress in a bar is __________ proportional to the change in temperature.

(A) Directly

(B) Indirectly

(D) None of these

Answer: A

313. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress of 200 MPa. The minimum normal stress will be

(A) -100 MPa

(B) 250 MPa

(D) 400 MPa

Answer: A

314. For the beam shown in the below figure, the shear force at A is equal to

(A) wl/6

(B) wl/3

(D) 2wl/3

Answer: B

315. The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of circular section is __________ the average shear stress.

(A) Equal to

(B) 4/3 times

(D) Twice

Answer: B

316. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is __________ at the free end.

(A) Zero

(B) wl/4

(D) wl

Answer: A

317. For a shaft, the shear stress at a point is __________ the distance from the axis of the shaft.

(A) Equal to

(B) Directly proportional to

(D) None of these

Answer: B

318. The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of ‘w’ per unit length, will be

(A) A horizontal line

(B) A vertical line

(D) A parabolic curve

Answer: D

319. When one plate overlaps the other and the two plates are riveted together with two rows of rivets, the joint is known as

(A) Single riveted lap joint

(B) Double riveted lap joint

(D) Double riveted double cover butt joint

Answer: B

320. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, the maximum shear stress is __________ the maximum normal stress.

(A) Equal to

(B) One-half

(D) Twice

Answer: B

321. The ductility of a material __________ with the increase in percentage reduction in area of a specimen under tensile test.

(A) Increases

(B) Decreases

(D) None of these

Answer: A

322. Rivets are generally specified by

(A) Thickness of plates to be joined

(B) Overall length

(D) Diameter of head

Answer: C

323. The simply supported beam ‘A’ of length ‘l’ carries a central point load ‘W’. Another beam ‘B’ is loaded with a uniformly distributed load such that the total load on the beam is ‘W’. The ratio of maximum deflections between beams ‘A’ and ‘B’ is

(A) 5/8

(B) 8/5

(D) 4/5

Answer: B

324. The rectangular beam ‘A’ has length ‘l’, width ‘b’ and depth ‘d’. Another beam ‘B’ has the same length and depth but width is double that of ‘A’. The elastic strength of beam ‘B’ will be _________ as compared to beam ‘A’.

(A) Same

(B) Double

(D) Six times

Answer: B

325. The bending moment in the center of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is

(A) Zero

(B) wl²/2

(D) wl²/8

Answer: D

326. The polar modulus for a solid shaft of diameter (D) is

(A) πD²/4

(B) πD³/16

(D) πD⁴/64

Answer: B

327. The slenderness ratio is the ratio of

(A) Area of column to least radius of gyration

(B) Length of column to least radius of gyration

(D) Least radius of gyration to length of column

Answer: B

328. A simply supported beam ‘A’ of length ‘l’, breadth ‘b’ and depth ‘d’ carries a central load ‘W’. Another beam ‘B’ of the same dimensions carries a central load equal to 2W. The deflection of beam ‘B’ will be __________ as that of beam ‘A’.

(A) One-fourth

(B) One-half

(D) Four times

Answer: C

329. When a bar of length ‘l’ and diameter ‘d’ is rigidly fixed at the upper end and hanging freely, then the total elongation produced in the bar due to its own weight is (where w = Weight per unit volume of the bar)

(A) wl/2E

(B) wl²/2E

(D) wl⁴/2E

Answer: B

330. In a riveted joint, when the rivets in the various rows are opposite to each other, the joint is said to be

(A) Chain riveted

(B) Zig-zag riveted

(D) None of these

Answer: A

331. When a rectangular bar of length l, breadth b and thickness t is subjected to an axial pull of P, then linear strain (ε) is given by (where E = Modulus of elasticity)

(A) ε = P/b.t.E

(B) ε = b.t.E/P

(D) ε = P.E/b.t

Answer: A

332. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) The size of hole drilled in riveting plates is less than the actual size of rivet.

(B) The center to center distance between two consecutive rivets in a row is called margin.

(D) Tearing of plates can be avoided by taking the pitch of rivets equal to 1.5 times the diameter of rivet hole.

Answer: C

333. A beam of triangular section is placed with its base horizontal. The maximum shear stress occurs at

(A) Apex of the triangle

(B) Mid of the height

(D) Base of the triangle

Answer: B

334. The Young’s modulus of a material is 125 GPa and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25. The modulus of rigidity of me material is

(A) 30 GPa

(B) 50 GPa

(D) 100 GPa

Answer: B

335. In the above question, the normal stress on an oblique section will be maximum, when θ is equal to

(A) 0°

(B) 30°

(D) 90°

Answer: A

336. In a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load w per unit length, the point of contraflexure

(A) Lies in the center of the beam

(B) Lies at the ends of the beam

(D) Does not exist

Answer: D

337. In case of eccentrically loaded struts __________ is preferred.

(A) Solid section

(B) Hollow section

(D) Reinforced section

Answer: C

338. In a thin cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure p, the ratio of longitudinal stress to the hoop stress is

(A) 1/2

(B) 3/4

(D) 1.5

Answer: A

339. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of

(A) Stress, strain and pressure

(B) Stress, force and modulus of rigidity

(D) Stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity

Answer: D

340. The stress at which the extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in load, is called

(A) Elastic limit

(B) Yield point

(D) Breaking point

Answer: B

341. Two bars of different materials and same size are subjected to the same tensile force. If the bars have unit elongation in the ratio of 2:5, then the ratio of modulus of elasticity of the two materials will be

(A) 2 : 5

(B) 5 : 2

(D) 3 : 4

Answer: B

342. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the maximum radial stress at the inner surface of the shell is

(A) Zero

(B) p (tensile)

(D) 2p (tensile)

343. When a body is subjected to direct tensile stresses (σx and σy) in two mutually perpendicular directions, accompanied by a simple shear stress τxy, then in Mohr’s circle method, the circle radius is taken as

(A) [(σx – σy)/2] + τ

(B) [(σx + σy)/2] + τ

(D) (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4τ²xy]

Answer: C

344. A section of beam is said to be in pure bending, if it is subjected to

(A) Constant bending moment and constant shear force

(B) Constant shear force and zero bending moment

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

345. Modular ratio of the two materials is the ratio of

(A) Linear stress to linear strain

(B) Shear stress to shear strain

(D) Their modulus of rigidities

Answer: C

346. The relation between modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of rigidity (C) is given by

(A) C = m.E/2 (m + 1)

(B) C = 2(m + 1)/m.E

(D) C = (m + 1)/2m.E

Answer: A

347. The Rankine’s constant for a mild steel column with both ends hinged is

(A) 1/750

(B) 1/1600

(D) 1/9000

Answer: C

348. In a watch, the spring is used to store strain energy. This energy is released

(A) To stop the watch

(B) To run the watch

(D) All of these

Answer: B

349. When a column is subjected to an eccentric load, the stress induced in the column will be

(A) Direct stress only

(B) Bending stress only

(D) Direct and bending stress both

Answer: D

350. Two shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ are made of same material. The shaft ‘A’ is solid and has diameter D. The shaft ‘B’ is hollow with outer diameter D and inner diameter D/2. The strength of hollow shaft in torsion is _________ as that of solid shaft.

(A) 1/16

(B) 1/8

(D) 15/16

Answer: D

351. A thick cylindrical shell having r₀ and ri as outer and inner radii, is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The maximum tangential stress at the inner surface of the shell is

(A) [p (r₀² + ri²)] / (r₀² – ri²)

(B) [p (r₀² – ri²)] / (r₀² + ri²)

(D) (r₀² – ri²) / 2pri²

Answer: A

352. A beam of uniform strength has

(A) Same cross-section throughout the beam

(B) Same bending stress at every section

(D) Same shear stress at every section

Answer: B

353. When a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d₁, at one end to diameter d₂ at the other end, is subjected to an increase in temperature (t), then the thermal stress induced is (where α = Coefficient of linear expansion, and E = Modulus of elasticity for the bar material)

(A) α.t.E.d₁/d₂

(B) α.t.d₁/E.d₂

(D) d₁.t/ α.E.d₂

Answer: A

354. A shaft of diameter D is subjected to a twisting moment (T) and a bending moment (M). If the maximum bending stress is equal to maximum shear stress developed, then M is equal to

(A) T/2

(B) T

(D) 4T

Answer: A

355. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length ‘l’ carrying a total load ‘W’ uniformly distributed over the whole length is

(A) Wl3/48EI

(B) Wl3/96EI

(D) Wl3/384EI

Answer: D

356. Factor of safety is defined as the ratio of

(A) Ultimate stress to working stress

(B) Working stress to ultimate stress

(D) Ultimate stress to breaking stress

Answer: A

357. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin shell when the ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is __________ 1/10.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

358. The unit of stress in S.I. units is

(A) N/mm²

(B) kN/mm²

(D) Any one of these

Answer: D

359. . A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and the assembly is tightened by rigid washers. If the assembly is subjected to a compressive load, then

(A) Rod is under compression

(B) Tube is under compression

(D) Tube is under tension and rod is under compression

Answer: C

360. The load required to produce a unit deflection in a spring is called

(A) Flexural rigidity

(B) Torsional rigidity

(D) Young’s modulus

Answer: C

361. The bending moment at a section tends to bend or deflect the beam and the internal stresses resist its bending. The resistance offered by the internal stresses, to the bending, is called

(A) Compressive stress

(B) Shear stress

(D) Elastic modulus

Answer: C

362. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d), length (l) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The hoop stress in the shell is

(A) pd/t

(B) pd/2t

(D) pd/6t

Answer: B

363. Fatigue test is carried out for

(A) Stresses varying between two limits of equal value, but of opposite sign

(B) Stresses varying between two limits of unequal value, but of opposite sign

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

364. The neutral axis of a beam is subjected to __________ stress.

(A) Zero

(B) Maximum tensile

(D) Maximum compressive

Answer: A

365. Two beams, one of circular cross-section and the other of square cross-section, have equal areas of cross-sections. When these beams are subjected to bending,

(A) Both beams are equally economical

(B) Square beam is more economical

(D) None of these

Answer: B

366. A body is subjected to two normal stresses 20 kN/m² (tensile) and 10 kN/m² (compressive) acting perpendicular to each other. The maximum shear stress is

(A) 5 kN/m²

(B) 10 kN/m²

(D) 20 kN/m²

Answer: C

367. The thermal or temperature stress is a function of

(A) Increase in temperature

(B) Modulus of elasticity

(D) All of these

Answer: D

368. For long columns, the value of buckling load is __________ crushing load.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

369. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, then tangential or shear stress on an oblique section of the body inclined at an angle ‘θ’ to the normal of the section is

(A) σ sin 2θ

(B) σ cos 2θ

(D) σ/2 cos 2θ

Answer: C

370. Whenever some external system of forces acts on a body, it undergoes some deformation. As the body undergoes some deformation, it sets up some resistance to the deformation. This resistance per unit area to deformation, is called

(A) Strain

(B) Stress

(D) Modulus of elasticity

Answer: B

371. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) with one end fixed and the other end hinged, is

(A) π²EI/l²

(B) π²EI/4l²

(D) 4π²EI/l²

Answer: C

372. When there is a sudden increase or decrease in shear force diagram between any two points, it indicates that there is a

(A) Point load at the two points

(B) No loading between the two points

(D) Uniformly varying load between the two points

Answer: A

373. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) fixed at both ends is __________ the crippling load for a similar column hinged at both ends.

(A) Equal to

(B) Two times

(D) Eight times

Answer: C

374. A load which is spread over a beam in such a manner that it varies uniformly over the whole length of abeam is called uniformly ________ load.

(A) Distributed

(B) Varying

(D) None of these

Answer: B

375. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) A continuous beam has only two supports at the ends.

(B) A uniformly distributed load spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam.

(D) The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of length l with a central point load W is Wl/8.

Answer: B

376. The shear force in the center of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of ‘w’ per unit length, is

(A) Zero

(B) wl²/2

(D) wl²/8

Answer: A

377. Every direct stress is always accompanied by a strain in its own direction and an opposite kind of strain in every direction, at right angles to it. Such a strain is known as

(A) Linear strain

(B) Lateral strain

(D) Shear strain

Answer: B

378. A beam extending beyond the supports is called

(A) Simply supported beam

(B) Fixed beam

(D) Cantilever beam

Answer: C

379. The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever beam, if it carries a

(A) Point load at the free end

(B) Point load at the middle of its length

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

380. Compression members always tend to buckle in the direction of the

(A) Axis of load

(B) Perpendicular to the axis of load

(D) Least radius of gyration

Answer: D

381. In order to avoid tearing off the plate at an edge, the distance from the center of the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate (i.e. margin) should be (where d = Diameter of rivet hole in mm)

(A) d

(B) 1.5 d

(D) 2.5 d

Answer: B

382. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) length (l) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The longitudinal stress in the shell is

(A) pd/t

(B) pd/2t

(D) pd/6t

Answer: C

383. The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of rectangular section is __________ the average shear stress.

(A) Equal to

(B) 4/3 times

(D) Twice

Answer: C

384. The distance between the center of a rivet hole to the nearest edge of plate, is called

(A) Margin

(B) Pitch

(D) Diagonal pitch

Answer: A

385. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum tensile stress is developed on the

(A) Top layer

(B) Bottom layer

(D) Every cross-section

Answer: A

386. The strain energy stored in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the strain energy stored when same load is applied gradually.

(A) Equal to

(B) One-half

(D) Four times

Answer: D

387. The load at which the column just buckles, is known as

(A) Buckling load

(B) Critical load

(D) Any one of these

Answer: D

388. The steel bars in a reinforced cement concrete beam are embedded __________ of the beam.

(A) In the center

(B) Near the bottom

(D) At any position

Answer: B

389. A reinforced cement concrete beam is considered to be made of

(A) Homogeneous material

(B) Heterogeneous material

(D) Isotropic material

Answer: B

390. Principle plane is a plane on which the shear stress is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(D) None of these

Answer: A

391. The polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is

(A) π/16 (D³ – d³)

(B) π/16 (D⁴ – d⁴)

(D) π/64 (D⁴ – d⁴)

Answer: C

392. The springs in brakes and clutches are used to

(A) To apply forces

(B) To measure forces

(D) To absorb shocks

Answer: A

393. A beam encastered at both the ends is called

(A) Simply supported beam

(B) Fixed beam

(D) Continuous beam

Answer: B

394. A spring used to absorb shocks and vibrations is

(A) Conical spring

(B) Torsion spring

(D) Disc spring

Answer: C

395. The bending moment at the free end of a cantilever beam is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(D) None of these

Answer: A

396. The hoop stress in a thin cylindrical shell is

(A) Longitudinal stress

(B) Compressive stress

(D) Circumferential tensile stress

Answer: D

397. In a stress-strain diagram as shown in the below figure, the curve ‘A’ represents

(A) Mild steel

(B) Soft brass

(D) Cold rolled steel

Answer: B

398. The ratio of bulk modulus to Young’s modulus for a Poisson’s ratio of 0.25 will be

(A) 1/3

(B) 2/3

(D) 3/2

Answer: B

399. The ratio of shear modulus to the modulus of elasticity for a Poisson’s ratio of 0.4 will be

(A) 5/7

(B) 7/5

(D) 14/5

Answer: C

400. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column of length __________ with one end fixed and the other end free.

(A) l/8

(B) l/4

(D) l

Answer: B

401. The pull required to shear off a rivet, in double shear, per pitch length is

(A) π/4 × d² × σt

(B) π/4 × d² × τ

(D) π/2 × d² × τ

Answer: D

402. The bending stress in abeam is __________ bending moment.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) Directly proportional to

Answer: D

403. When a change in length takes place, the strain is known as

(A) Linear strain

(B) Lateral strain

(D) Shear strain

Answer: A

404. The volumetric strain is the ratio of the

(A) Original thickness to the change in thickness

(B) Change in thickness to the original thickness

(D) Change in volume to the original volume

Answer: D

405. A welded joint as compared to a riveted joint has __________ strength.

(A) Same

(B) Less

(D) None of these

Answer: C

406. In a beam subjected to pure bending, the intensity of stress in any fibre is _________ the distance of the fibre from the neutral axis.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) Directly proportional to

Answer: D

407. The relation between Young’s modulus (E) and bulk modulus (K) is given by

(A) k = (3m – 2)/m.E

(B) k = m.E/(3m – 2)

(D) k = m.E/3(m – 2)

Answer: D

408. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is __________ at the fixed end.

(A) Zero

(B) wl/4

(D) wl

Answer: D

409. The strength of the shaft is judged by the_____________.

(A) Torque transmitted by the shaft

(B) Length of the shaft

(D) None of these

Answer: A

410. A simply supported beam ‘A’ of length l, breadth b, and depth d carries a central point load W. Another beam ‘B’ has the same length and depth but its breadth is doubled. The deflection of beam ‘B’ will be __________ as compared to beam ‘A’.

(A) One-fourth

(B) One-half

(D) Four times

Answer: B

411. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumptions is that the material of the beam is isotropic. This assumption means that the

(A) Normal stress remains constant in all directions

(B) Normal stress varies linearly in the material

(D) Elastic constants varies linearly in the material

Answer: C

412. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying a central point load lies at

(A) Fixed ends

(B) Center of beam

(D) None of these

Answer: B

413. The shear stress at the center of a circular shaft under torsion is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(D) Infinity

Answer: A

414. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress of 200 MPa. The maximum normal stress will be

(A) -100 MPa

(B) 250 MPa

(D) 400 MPa

Answer: D

415. When a closely-coiled helical spring is subjected to an axial load, it is said to be under

(A) Bending

(B) Shear

(D) Crushing

Answer: C

416. In a beam where shear force changes sign, the bending moment will be

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(D) Infinity

Answer: C

417. The strength of the unriveted or solid plate per pitch length is

(A) d.t.σc

(B) p.t.σt

(D) π/2 × d² × τ

Answer: B

418. The tensile test is carried on __________ materials.

(A) Ductile

(B) Brittle

(D) Plastic

Answer: A

419. The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam loaded in its center is

(A) A right angled triangle

(B) An isosceles triangle

(D) A rectangle

Answer: B

420. A bar of length ‘L’ meters extends by ‘l’ mm under a tensile force of ‘P’. The strain produced in the bar is

(A) l/L

(B) 0.1 l/L

(D) 0.001 l/L

Answer: D

421. A closely coiled helical spring is of mean diameter (D) and spring wire diameter (d). The spring index is the ratio of

(A) 1/d

(B) 1/D

(D) d/D

Answer: C

422. The compression test is carried on __________ materials.

(A) Ductile

(B) Brittle

(D) Plastic

Answer: B

423. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then ratio of rivet hole diameter to the pitch of rivets is

(A) 0.20

(B) 0.30

(D) 0.60

Answer: C

424. The breaking stress is __________ the ultimate stress.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

425. The section modulus (Z) of a beam is given by

(A) I/y

(B) I.y

(D) M/I

Answer: A

426. The Rankine’s formula holds good for

(A) Short columns

(B) Long columns

(D) Weak columns

Answer: C

427. When two main plates are kept in alignment butting each other and riveted with cover plate on both sides of the main plates with two rows of rivets in each main plate, the joint is known as ________ double cover butt joint.

(A) Single riveted

(B) Double riveted

(D) None of these

Answer: B

428. When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be under

(A) Tensile stress

(B) Compressive stress

(D) Bending stress

Answer: C

429. The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of span l and carrying a point load W at the center of beam, is

(A) Wl/4

(B) Wl/2

(D) Wl²/4

Answer: A

430. A tensile test is performed on a mild steel round bar. Its diameter after fracture will

(A) Remain same

(B) Increase

(D) Depend upon rate of loading

Answer: C

431. Transverse fillet welds are designed for

(A) Tensile strength

(B) Compressive strength

(D) Bending strength

Answer: A

432. The product of the tangential force acting on the shaft and its distance from the axis of the shaft (i.e. radius of shaft) is known as

(A) Bending moment

(B) Twisting moment

(D) Flexural rigidity

Answer: B

433. The unit of strain is

(A) N-mm

(B) N/mm

(D) No unit

Answer: D

434. In spring balances, the spring is used

(A) To apply forces

(B) To measure forces

(D) To store strain energy

Answer: B

435. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum shear stress will be

(A) 400 MPa

(B) 500 MPa

(D) 1400 MPa

Answer: B

STRENGTH of MATERIALS Questions and Answers pdf free download ::

[PDF Notes] Essay on the Role of Monetary Policy in Developing Countries

The monetary policy in a developing economy will have to be quite different from that of a developed economy mainly due to different economic conditions and requirements of the two types of economies.

A developed country may adopt full employment or price stabilisation or exchange stability as a goal of the monetary policy.

But in a developing or underdeveloped country, economic growth is the primary and basic necessity. Thus, in a developing economy the monetary policy should aim at promoting economic growth, the monetary authority of a developing economy can play a vital role by adopting such a monetary policy which creates conditions necessary for rapid economic growth. Monetary policy can serve the following developmental requirements of developing economies.

1. Developmental Role:

In a developing economy, the monetary policy can play a significant role in accelerating economic development by influencing the supply and uses of credit, controlling inflation, and maintaining balance of payment.

Once development gains momentum, effective monetary policy can help in meeting the requirements of expanding trade and population by providing elastic supply of credit.

2. Creation and Expansion of Financial Institutions:

The primary aim of the monetary policy in a developing economy must be to improve its currency and credit system. More banks and financial institutions should be set up, particularly in those areas which lack these facilities.

The extension of commercial banks and setting up of other financial institutions like saving banks, cooperative saving societies, mutual societies, etc. will help in increasing credit facilities, mobilising voluntary savings of the people, and channelising them into productive uses.

It is also the responsibility of the monetary authority to ensure that the funds of the institutions are diverted into priority sectors or industries as per requirements of are development plan of the country.

3. Effective Central Banking:

To meet the developmental needs the central bank of an underdeveloped country must function effectively to control and regulate the volume of credit through various monetary instruments, like bank rate, open market operations, cash-reserve ratio etc.

Greater and more effective credit controls will influence the allocation of resources by diverting savings from speculative and unproductive activities to productive uses.

4. Integration of Organised and Unorganised Money Market:

Most underdeveloped countries are characterized by dual monetary system in which a small but highly organised money market on the the one hand and large but unorganised money market on the other hand operate simultaneously.

The unorganised money market remains outside the control of the central bank. By adopting effective measures, the monetary authority should integrate the unorganised and organised sect ors of the money market.

5. Developing Banking Habits:

The monetary authority of a less developed country should take appropriate measures to increase the proportion of bank money in the total money supply of the country. This requires increase in the bank deposits by developing the banking habits of the people and popularising the use of credit instruments (e.g, cheques, drafts, etc.).

6. Monetisation of Economy:

An underdeveloped country is also marked by the existence of large non-monetised sector. In this sector, all transactions are made through barter system and changes in money supply and the rate of interest do not influence the economic activity at all. The monetary authority should take measures to monetise this non-monetised sector and bring it under its control.

7. Integrated Interest Rate Structure:

In an underdeveloped economy, there is absence of an integrated interest rate structure. There is wide disparity of interest rates prevailing in the different sectors of the economy and these rates do not respond to the changes in the bank rate, thus making the monetary policy ineffective.

The monetary authority should take effective steps to integrate the interest rate structure of the economy. Moreover, a suitable interest rate structure should be developed which not only encourages savings and investment in the country but also discourages speculative and unproductive loans.

8. Debt Management:

Debt management is another function of monetary policy in a developing country. Debt management aims at (a) deciding proper timing and issuing of government bonds, (b) stabilising their prices, and (c) minimising the cost of servicing public debt.

The monetary authority should conduct the debt management in such a manner that conditions are created “in which public borrowing can increase from year to year and on a big scale without giving any jolt to the system.

And this must be on cheap rates to keep the burden of the debt low.”However, the success of debt management requires the existence of a well- developed money and capital market along with a variety of short- term and long-term securities.

9. Maintaining Equilibrium in Balance of Payments:

The monetary policy in a developing economy should also solve the problem of adverse balance of payments. Such a problem generally arises in the initial stages of economic development when the import of machinery, raw material, etc., increase considerably, but the export may not increase to the same extent.

The monetary authority should adopt direct foreign exchange controls and other measures to correct the adverse balance of payments.

10. Controlling Inflationary Pressures

Developing economies are highly sensitive to inflationary pressures. Large expenditures on developmental schemes increase aggregate demand. But, output of consumer’s goods does not increase in the same proportion. This leads to inflationary rise in prices.

Thus, the monetary policy in a developing economy should serve to control inflationary tendencies by increasing savings by the people, checking expansion of credit by the banking system, and discouraging deficit financing by the government.

11. Long-Term Loans for Industrial Development:

Monetary policy can promote industrial development in the underdeveloped countries by promoting facilities of medium-term and long-term loans to the manufacturing units. The monetary authority should induce these banks to grant long-term loans to the industrial units by providing rediscounting facilities. Other development financial institutions also provide long-term productive loans.

12. Reforming Rural Credit System:

Rural credit system is defective and rural credit facilities are deficient in the underdeveloped countries. Small cultivators are poor, have no finance of their own, and are largely dependent on loans from village money lenders and traders who generally exploit the helplessness, ignorance and necessity of these poor borrowers. The monetary authority can play an important role in providing both short-term and long term credit to the small arrangements, such as the establishment of cooperative credit societies, agricultural banks etc.

1000+ Top Building Materials & Construction MCQs & Answers

Building Materials and Construction Multiple Choice Questions

1. Gypsum is a
A. mechanically formed sedimentary rock
B. igneous rock
C. chemically precipitated sedimentary rock
D. metamorphic rock
Answer: C

2. Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by metamorphic action ?
A. sand stone
B. lime stone
C. shale
D. gypsum
Answer: A

3. Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock?
i) slate
ii) shale
iii) quartzite
The correct answer is
A. only (iii)
B. both (i) and (iii)
C. both (ii) and (iii)
D. all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: B

4. Quartitze is a
A. silicious rock
B. argillaceous rock
C. calcareous rock
D. aqueous rock
Answer: A

5. Which of the following is a mineral ?
A. basalt
B. granite
C. quartz
D. syenite
Answer: C

6. Slate is formed by metamorphic action on
A. shale
B. lime stone
C. sand stone
D. granite
Answer: A

7. Sandstone is a
i) sedimentary rock
ii) aqueous rock
iii) silicious rock
The correct answer is
A. only (i)
B. both (i) and (ii)
C. both (i) and (iii)
D. all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: D

8. Which of the following is a rock ?
A. quartz
B. mica
C. gypsum
D. none of the above
Answer: C

9. Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement, quartz, shale, basalt, granite, marble, gypsum, mica
A. basalt and marble are the only metamorphic rocks
B. there is no sedimentary rock
C. granite is the only igneous rock
D. quartz and mica are minerals
Answer: D

10. A heavy stone is suitable for
A. arches
B. rubble masonry
C. roads
D. retaining walls
Answer: D

11. The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be.
A. hard
B. tough
C. heavy
D. light
Answer: A

12. Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather resisting characteristics?
A. marble
B. quartzite
C. slate
D. lime stone
Answer: B

13. A good building stone should not absorb water more than
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer: A

14. Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics ?
A. marble
B. lime stone
C. compact sand stone
D. granite
Answer: C

15. Jumper is a tool used for
A. testing of stones
B. quarrying of stones
C. dressing of stones
D. none of the above
Answer: B

16. The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbors is-
A. hardness test
B. work ability test
C. weight test
D. toughness test
Answer: C

17. The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite is
A. quartz
B. feldspar
C. mica
D. none of the above
Answer: A

18. Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because
A. it can not be polished
B. it is not a fire proof material
C. it is costly
D. it has less crushing strength
Answer: C

19. Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of a railway bridge ?
A. granite
B. sand stone
C. lime stone
D. quartzite
Answer: A

20. The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of required size and shape is known as
A. quarrying of stones
B. blasting of stones
C. seasoning of stones
D. dressing of stones
Answer: D

21. Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than
A. 50 MPa
B. 100 MPa
C. 150 MPa
D. 200 MPa
Answer: B

22. Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between
A. 1.5 to 2.0
B. 2.0 to 2.5
C. 2.5 to 3.0
D. 3.0 to 3.5
Answer: C

23. Spalling hammer is used for
A. driving wooden headed chisels
B. rough dressing of stones
C. carving of stones
D. breaking small projection of stones
Answer: B

24. Cross cut saw is used for
A. cutting soft stones
B. cutting hard stones
C. cutting large blocks of stones
D. dressing stones
Answer: B

25. Sapwood consists of
A. innermost annular rings around the pith
B. portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
C. thin layers below the bark
D. thin fibre which extends from the pith outwards and holds the annular rings together
Answer: B

26. Which of the following trees yields hard wood ?
A. deodar
B. chir
C. shishum
D. pine
Answer: C

27. The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known as
A. heart shakes
B. cupshakes
C. starshakes
D. rindgalls
Answer: C

28. In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood?
A. deodar and shishum
B. chir and sal
C. sal and teak
D. chir and deodar
Answer: D

29. Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods ?
A. mulberry
B. mahogany
C. sal
D. deodar
Answer: A

30. Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork.
Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an excellent finish.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer: A

31. The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by
A. lack of ventilation
B. alternate wet and dry conditions
C. complete submergence in water
D. none of the above
Answer: A

32. Plywood has the advantage of’
A. greater tensile strength in longer direction
B. greater tensile strength in shorter direction
C. same tensile strength in all directions
D. none of the above
Answer: C

33. In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum ?
A. parallel to grains
B. 45° to grains
C. perpendicular to grains
D. same in all directions
Answer: A

34. The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is
A. 4% to 6%
B. 10% to 12%
C. 15% to 20%
D. 100%
Answer: B

35. The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as
A. log
B. batten
C. plank
D. baulk
Answer: A

36. The age of a tree can be known by examining
A. cambium layer
B. annular rings
C. medullary rays
D. heart wood
Answer: B

37. Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way that the angle between grains of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 90°
Answer: D

38. The plywood
A. has good strength along the panel only
B. can be spilt in the plane of the panel
C. has greater impact resistance to blows than ordinary wood
D. cannot be bent more easily than ordinary wood of same thickness
Answer: C

39. The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 35%
Answer: B

40. First class timber has an average life of
A. less than one year
B. 1 to 5 years
C. 5 to 10 years
D. more than 10 years
Answer: D

41. A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water more than
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 22%
D. 25%
Answer: B

42. Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than
A. 3.5 N/mm2
B. 7.0 N/mm2
C. 10.5 N/mm2
D. 14.0 N/mm2
Answer: C

43. The main function of alumina in brick earth is
A. to impart plasticity
B. to make the brick durable
C. to prevent shrinkage
D. to make the brick impermeable
Answer: A

44. The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between
A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
Answer: B

45. Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick
A. impermeable
B. brittle and weak
C. to lose cohesion
D. to crack and warp on drying
Answer: D

46. The nominal size of the modular brick is
A. 190 mm x 90mmx 80 mm
B. 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm
C. 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
D. 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm
Answer: C

47. Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between
A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%
Answer: C

48. Excess of silica in brick earth results in
A. cracking and warping of bricks
B. loss of cohesion
C. enhancing the impermeability of bricks
D. none of the above
Answer: B

49. Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape ?
A. alumina
B. silica
C. iron
D. magnesia
Answer: B

50. Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents respectively of a good brick earth ?
A. lime stone and alumina
B. silica and alkalies
C. alumina and iron
D. alkalies and magnesium
Answer: B

51. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as
A. kneading
B. moulding
C. pugging
D. drying
Answer: A

52. Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that
A. it takes less time for burning
B. it gives more output of first class bricks
C. it has less initial cost
D. it is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers
Answer: C

53. The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is
A. equal to the size of a fully burnt brick
B. smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
C. greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
D. none of the above
Answer: C

54. Pug mill is used for
A. preparation of clay
B. moulding of clay
C. drying of bricks
D. burning of bricks
Answer: A

55. Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ?
A. overburnt bricks
B. underburnt bricks
C. refractory bricks
D. first class bricks
Answer: C

56. The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on
A. bottom face
B. top face
C. shorter side
D. longer side
Answer: B

57. Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is
A. 400
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550
Answer: C

58. Glazing is used to make earthenware
A. hard
B. soft
C. porous
D. impervious
Answer: D

59. Quick lime is
A. calcium carbonate
B. calcium oxide
C. calcium hydroxide
D. none of the above
Answer: B

60. Quick lime is
i) slow in setting
ii) rapid in slacking
iii) good in strength The correct answer is
A. only (i)
B. only (ii)
C. both (i) and (ii)
D. both (ii) and (iii)
Answer: C

61. Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength.
Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer: A

62. Hydraulic lime is obtained by
A. burning of lime stone
B. burning of kankar
C. adding water to quick lime
D. calcination of pure clay
Answer: B

63. The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is
A. calcium oxide
B. silica
C. clay
D. water
Answer: C

64. Study the following statements.
i) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing,
ii) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing,
iii) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar,
iv) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar.
The correct answer is
A. (i) and (iv)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) and (ii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
Answer: B

65. The main ingredients of Portland cement are
A. lime and silica
B. lime and alumina
C. silica and alumina
D. lime and iron
Answer: A

66. The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement is
A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. tetra calcium alumino ferrite
Answer: C

67. Le Chatelier’s device is used for determining the
A. setting time of cement
B. soundness of cement
C. tensile strength of cement
D. compressive strength of cement
Answer: B

68. The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement is
A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. all of the above
Answer: C

69. The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less than
A. 10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 600 minutes
Answer: B

70. As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 6 hours
D. 10 hours
Answer: D

71. For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is
A. 50 mm
B. 70.6 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 150 mm
Answer: A

72. The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
Answer: C

73. Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to
A. gypsum
B. finer grinding
C. tricalcium silicate
D. tricalcium aluminate
Answer: B

74. After storage, the strength of cement
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains same
D. may increase or decrease
Answer: A

75. According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary portland cement after three days should not be less than
A. 7 MPa
B. 11.5 MPa
C. 16 MPa
D. 21 MPa
Answer: C

Building Materials and Construction Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Free Download

76. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases
A. bleeding
B. shrinkage
C. permeability
D. heat of hydration
Answer: B

77. Gypsum consists of
A. H2S and C02
B. CaS04 and H20
C. Lime and H20
D. C02 and calcium
Answer: B

78. For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement and standard sand in the proportions of
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 1:4
D. 1:6
Answer: B

79. The slump recommended for mass concrete is about
A. 25 mm to 50 mm
B. 50 mm to 100 mm
C. 100 mm to 125 mm
D. 125 mm to 150 mm
Answer: A

80. With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases
D. first decreases to a certain minimum value and then increases
Answer: C

81. Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams ?
A. ordinary Portland cement
B. low heat cement
C. rapid hardening cement
D. sulphate resisting cement
Answer: B

82. Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in
i) better workability
ii) better resistance to freezing and thawing
iii) lesser workability
iv) less resistance to freezing and thawing The correct answer is
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i)and(iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
Answer: A

83. The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. calcium carbonate
D. none of the above
Answer: B

84. The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by weight of cement is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

85. The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is
A. to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
B. to decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
C. to render the concrete more water tight
D. to improve the workability of concrete mix
Answer: A

86. Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?
A. ordinary Portland cement
B. low heat cement
C. rapid hardening cement
D. sulphate resisting cement
Answer: B

87. The most commonly used retarder in cement is
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. calcium carbonate
D. none of the above
Answer: A

88. Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel are
A. iron ore, coal and sulphur
B. iron ore, carbon and sulphur
C. iron ore, coal and lime stone
D. iron ore, carbon and lime stone
Answer: C

89. Compared to mild steel, cast iron has
i) high compressive strength
ii) high tensile strength
iii) low compressive strength
iv) low tensile strength
The correct answer is
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (iii) and (iv)
D. (i)and(iv)
Answer: D

90. Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel?
A. iron
B. carbon
C. manganese
D. sulphur
Answer: B

91. Which of the following is the purest form of iron ?
A. cast iron
B. wrought iron
C. mild steel
D. high carbon steel
Answer: B

92. The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about
A. 160N/mm2
B. 260N/mm2
C. 420 N/mm2
D. 520 N/mm2
Answer: C

93. Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is
A. less than 0.25
B. between 0.25 and 0.7
C. between 0.7 and 1.5
D. greater than 1.5
Answer: A

94. Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel ?
A. ultimate stress
B. yield stress
C. proof stress
D. none of the above
Answer: B

95. The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels is
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. greater than 1
D. less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels
Answer: A

96. Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of
A. wood work
B. iron work
C. both wood work and iron work
D. none of the above
Answer: A

97. Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works.
Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
A. Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer: A

98. The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is
A. 0.2 liter
B. 0.4 liter
C. 0.6 liter
D. 0.8 liter
Answer: C

99. The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually
A. linseed oil
B. water
C. varnish
D. none of the above
Answer: C

100. Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting.
Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer: B

101. In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is known as
A. English bond
B. double flemish bond
C. zigzag bond
D. single flemish bond
Answer: B

102. The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is
A. 90 mm
B. 180 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 280 mm
Answer: A

103. The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be
A. along the direction of bedding planes
B. at 45° to the direction of bedding planes
C. at 60° to the direction of bedding planes
D. perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
Answer: D

104. Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls ?
A. headers
B. stretchers
C. brick bats
D. queen closer
Answer: A

105. A queen closer is a
A. brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
B. brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of wall
C. brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth
D. brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other
Answer: C

106. Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is
A. half brick thick
B. one brick thick
C. one and a half bricks thick
D. two bricks thick
Answer: C

107. The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints is
A. trowel
B. square
C. bolster
D. scutch
Answer: A

108. Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than
A. 10 m
B. 20 m
C. 30 m
D. 40 m
Answer: D

109. The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is
A. single flemish bond
B. double flemish bond
C. English bond
D. zigzag bond
Answer: C

110. A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as
A. bed joint
B. wall joint
C. cross joint
D. bonded joint
Answer: C

111. The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than
A. 10
by 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: B

112. The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are
A. 1:2
B. 1:4
C. 1:6
D. 1:8
Answer: A

113. Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header course, where x is equal to
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1/4
Answer: A

114. As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. equal or more
Answer: A

115. As compared to English bond, double flemish bond is
A. stronger
B. more compact
C. costly
D. none of the above
Answer: B

116. Single flemish bond consists of
A. double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course
B. English bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
C. stretcher bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
D. double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
Answer: A

117. The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandv soils should not exceed
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm
Answer: A

118. In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing capacity of soils is to
A. increase the depth of foundation
B. drain the soil
C. compact the soil
D. replace the poor soil
Answer: D

119. The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is
A. raft foundation
B. grillage foundation
C. well foundation
D. isolated footing
Answer: B

120. The maximum total settlement for isolated foundations on clayey soils should be limited to
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm
Answer: C

121. The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as
A. friction pile
B. sheet pile
C. batter pile
D. anchor pile
Answer: C

122. The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is
A. 0.5 m
B. 0.7 m
C. 0.9 m
D. 1.2 m
Answer: C

123. The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to
A. 25 mm
B. 25 to 40 mm
C. 40 to 65 mm
D. 65 to 100 mm
Answer: D

124. The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by
A. compacting the soil
B. draining the soil
C. increasing the depth of foundation
D. grouting
Answer: B

125. The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where noiseless floor covering is desired is
A. cork flooring
B. glass flooring
C. wooden flooring
D. linoleum flooring
Answer: A

126. The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the innercurve of an arch is known as
A. intrados
B. rise
C. spandril
D. extrados
Answer: B

127. Depth or height of the arch is the
A. perpendicular distance between intra-dos and extrados
B. vertical distance between springing line and intrados
C. perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados
D. none of the above
Answer: A

128. The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the crown of an arch is known as
A. haunch
B. spandril
C. voussoirs
D. skewbacks
Answer: B

129. The lintels are preferred to arches because
A. arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
B. arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
C. arches are difficult in construction
D. all of the above
Answer: D

130. In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for
A. centring
B. actual laying of arch work
C. striking of centring
D. none of the above
Answer: C

131. The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of carrying the load of the wall above is
A. segmental arch
B. pointed arch
C. relieving arch
D. flat arch
Answer: C

132. The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber trussess is
A. mortise and tennon joint
B. oblique mortise and tennon joint
C. butt joint
D. mitred joint
Answer: B

133. The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is
A. pitched and sloping roof
B. flat roof
C. shell roof
D. none of the above
Answer: B

134. Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for
A. coastal regions
B. plain regions
C. covering large areas
D. all of the above
Answer: A

135. The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known as
A. gable roof
B. hip roof
C. gambrel roof
D. mansard roof
Answer: C

136. Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in
A. two directions without break in the slope on each side
B. two directions with break in the slope on each side
C. four directions without break in the slope on each side
D. four directions with break in the slope on each side
Answer: D

137. The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the common rafter is called
A. ridge board
B. hip rafter
C. eaves board
D. valley rafter
Answer: A

138. The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops down, is known as
A. hip
B. gable
C. ridge
D. eaves
Answer: D

139. Higher pitch of the roof
i) results in stronger roof
ii) results in weaker roof
iii) requires more covering material
iv) requires less covering material
The correct answer is
A. (i) and (iii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: A

140. Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m
Answer: C

141. In a colar beam roof
A. there is no horizontal tie beam
B. there is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only
C. there is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
D. there are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the rafters
Answer: C

142. The function of king post in a king post roof truss is
A. to support the frame work of the roof
B. to receive the ends of principal rafter
C. to prevent the walls from spreading outward
D. to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre
Answer: D

143. The function of cleats in a roof truss is
A. to support the common rafter
B. to support purlins
C. to prevent the purlins from tilting
D. all of the above
Answer: C

144. The term string is used for
A. the underside of a stair
B. outer projecting edge of a tread
C. a sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
D. a vertical member between two treads
Answer: C

145. The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are known as
A. balusters
B. newal posts
C. balustrades
D. railings
Answer: B

146. The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. no limit
Answer: B

147. The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. no limit
Answer: B

148. Sum of tread and rise must lie between
A. 300 to 350 mm
B. 400 to 450 mm
C. 500 to 550 mm
D. 600 to 650 mm
Answer: B

149. Minimum width of landing should be
A. equal to width of stairs
B. half the width of stairs
C. twice the width of stairs
D. one fourth the width of stairs
Answer: A

150. In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be
A. 90° and 0°
B. 75° and 30°
C. 60° and 10°
D. 40° and 25°
Answer: D

BUILDING MATERIALS and CONSTRUCTION Questions Answers pdf free download ::

[PDF Notes] Essay on Reservation – Mere Politics or More

After the release of Arakshan, a Bollywood movie… the public debate on this notorious issue has again fired on every news channel and among every citizen of this country.

India is the only country in the world where reservation is provided on the grounds of caste in the educational institutes, government jobs etc.

During the framing of constitution the legendary leaders of the country supported and included the reservation criterion for the SCs and STs of the country. The policy was made an integral part of Constitution by the efforts of Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar, regarded as the father of the Indian constitution, who participated in Round Table Conferences and fought for the rights of depressed class.

Talking of the pre independence time:

In 1935 the British passed the Government of India Act 1935. The Act brought the term “Scheduled Castes” into use, and defined the group as including “such castes, races or tribes or parts of groups within castes, races or tribes, which appear to His Majesty in Council to correspond to the classes of persons formerly known as the ‘Depressed Classes’, as His Majesty in Council may prefer.”

Our mother India has been facing the politics from years, pre-independence was the period when the Britishers exploited the discrimination on the basis of caste under the motto “divide and rule” and coming back to the present this reservation is literally a vote bank gimmick and the OBC reservation add pepper to it. Of the total population of the country OBC,SC and ST comprise 51%,16.2%,8.1% respectively and the reservation is 27%,15%,7.5% respectively

I, concord that some communities i.e SC and ST have been treated brutally and their rights have been curtailed for years. But is reservation a solution to it? NO!

An SC or ST if gets a seat under quota generally he/she is assaulted in class. He or she is generally not able to clear the course annual exams. So where is the upliftment of the depressed class? A child getting a deceased ladder of success and upliftment where instead of finding equality he/she finds assault.

My Suggestions

1. We need to work on grass roots. Special schools should be made for SC and ST where best teachers should be employed to teach them who will build them upto the level of upper category students. For competitions, copious number of coaching institutes should be setup for them and that too should be cost free.

2. If this country wants equality in practical sense the practice of introducing self with our surname should be discouraged and the schools or the higher educational institute should admit the students with his name only excluding his caste.

It is well said “we can change the system by being in the system” complying this, i would like to express some measures within the reservation policies.

3. If the reservation is that mandatory then the community list should be regulated every year. The reservation policy advocates equality and provision of rights but if it is capitalized by few SC/ST communities like meena ,then again everyone would long to know what is the fate of the upliftment of the rest SC/ST communities.

4. Coming to the OBC reservation its a masterpiece of the astute political leaders and vote bank based politics of this largest democratic country. OBC also includes some castes that have never been assaulted and some of them are rich land owners too for e.g. yadav. From which angle or criterion they have been included in backward list. It is said that it is framed to uplift those communities who have been neglected during the SC/ST survey. My point is why the SC/ST list amended wasn’t and those neglected communities are included.

I firmly believe in equality.

I respect the cause with which this quota system was framed during the drafting of the constitution. But the way it has shaped up is definitely not fruitful to the community for which it has been made.

The politicians should think of the country and should halt their avarice of being the ruling party by adopting some vote bank based strategies and policies and start stalking some policies which can actually unite this country.

Name: Preeti Kumari Chaurasia

Email: 09pihu92-at-gmail.com

300+ TOP Soil Mechanics & Foundation Engineering MCQs Pdf

Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. Residual soils are formed by
A. glaciers
B. wind
C. water
D. none of the above
Answer: D

2. Water content of soil can
A. never be greater than 100 %
B. take values only from 0 % to 100 %
C. be less than 0 %
D. be greater than 100 %
Answer: D

3. Which of the following types of soil is transported by gravitational forces ?
A. loess
B. talus
C. drift
D. dune sand
Answer: B

4. A fully saturated soil is said to be
A. one phase system
B. two phase system with soil and air
C. two phase system with soil and water
D. three phase system
Answer: C

5. Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil in percentage is
A. S>0
B. S<0
C. 0<S<100
D. 0 < S < 100
Answer: D

SOIL MECHANICS and FOUNDATION Engineering Questions — SOIL MECHANICS and FOUNDATION Engineering MCQs

6. Constant head permeameter is used to test permeability of
A. silt
B. clay
C. coarse sand
D. fine sand
Answer: C

7. A soil has a bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and water content 10 %. The dry density of soil is
A. 18.6 kN/m3
B. 20.0 kN/m3
C. 22.0 kN/m3
D. 23.2 kN/m3
Answer: B

8. If the voids of a soil mass are full of air only, the soil is termed as
A. air entrained soil
B. partially saturated soil
C. dry soil
D. dehydrated soil
Answer: C

9. Valid range for n, the percentage voids, is
A. 0<n<100
B. 0<n<100
C. n>0
D. n<0
Answer: A

10. Select the correct statement.
A. Unit weight of dry soil is greater than unit weight of wet soil.
B. For dry soils, dry unit weight is less than total unit weight.
C. Unit weight of soil increases due to submergence in water.
D. Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water.
Answer: D

11. Voids ratio of a soil mass can
A. never be greater than unity
B. be zero
C. take any value greater than zero
D. take values between 0 and 1 only
Answer: C

12. If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, then the values of porosity and voids ratio respectively are
A. 1.0 and 0.0
B. 0.0 and 1.0
C. 0.5 and 1.0
D. 1.0 and 0.5
Answer: C

13. When the degree of saturation is zero, the soil mass under consideration represents
A. one phase system
B. two phase system with soil and air
C. two phase system with soil and water
D. three phase system
Answer: B

14. Select the correct range of density index,ID
A. lD>0
B. ID>0
C. 0 < lD < 1
D. 0 < ID < 1
Answer: D

15. If the degree of saturation of a partially saturated soil is 60%, then air content of the soil is
A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 80%
D. 100%
Answer: A

16. If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the voids ratio of the sample is
A. less than specific gravity of soil
B. equal to specific gravity of soil
C. greater than specific gravity of soil
D. independent of specific gravity of soil
Answer: B

17. The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil mass is called
A. air content
B. porosity
C. percentage air voids
D. voids ratio
Answer: B

18. Relative density of a compacted dense sand is approximately equal to
A. 0.4
B. 0.6
C. 0.95
D. 1.20
Answer: C

19. If the sand in-situ is in its densest state, then the relative density of sand is
A. zero
B. 1
C. between 0 and 1
D. greater than 1
Answer: B

20. Which of the following methods is most accurate for the determination of the water content of soil ?
A. oven drying method
B. sand bath method
C. calcium carbide method
D. pycnometer method
Answer: A

21. For proper field control, which of the following methods is best suited for quick determination of water content of a soil mass ?
A. oven drying method
B. sand bath method
C. alcohol method
D. calcium carbide method
Answer: D

22. A pycnometer is used to determine
A. water content and voids ratio
B. specific gravity and dry density
C. water content and specific gravity
D. voids ratio and dry density
Answer: C

23. Stoke’s law is valid only if the size of particle is
A. less than 0.0002 mm
B. greater than 0.2 mm
C. between 0.2 mm and 0.0002 mm
D. all of the above
Answer: C

24. In hydrometer analysis for a soil mass
A. both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are additive
B. both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are subtractive
C. meniscus correction is additive and dispersing agent correction is subtractive
D. meniscus correction is subtractive and dispersing agent correction is additive
Answer: C

25. The hydrometer method of sedimentation analysis differs from the pipette analysis mainly in
A. the principle of test
B. the method of taking observations
C. the method of preparation of soil suspension
D. all of the above
Answer: B

26. Which of the following is a measure of particle size range ?
A. effective size
B. uniformity coefficient
C. coefficient of curvature
D. none of the above
Answer: B

27. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Uniformity coefficient represents the shape of the particle size distribution curve.
B. For a well graded soil, both uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are nearly unity.
C. A soil is said to be well graded if it has most of the particles of about the same size
D. none of the above
Answer: D

28. Uniformity coefficient of a soil is
A. always less than 1
B. always equal to 1
C. equal to or less than 1
D. equal to or gi eater than 1
Answer: D

29. According to Atterberg, the soil is said to be of medium plasticity if the plasticity index PI is
A. 0 < PI < 7
B. 7<PI< 17
C. 17<PI<27
D. PI>27
Answer: B

30. If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the soil mass is said to be in
A. liquid state
B. plastic state
C. semi-solid state
D. solid state
Answer: B

32. When the plastic limit of a soil is greater than the liquid limit, then the plasticity index is reported as
A. negative
B. zero
C. non-plastic (NP)
D. 1
Answer: B

33. Toughness index is defined as the ratio of
A. plasticity index to consistency index
B. plasticity index to flow index
C. liquidity index to flow index
D. consistency index to liquidity index
Answer: B

34. If the plasticity index of a soil mass is zero, the soil is
A. sand
B. silt
C. clay
D. clayey silt
Answer: A

35. The admixture of coarser particles like sand or silt to clay causes
A. decrease in liquid limit and increase in plasticity index
B. decrease in liquid limit and no change in plasticity index
C. decrease in both liquid limit and plasticity index
D. increase in both liquid limit and plasticity index
Answer: C

36. Select the correct statement.
A. A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a non-uniform soil.
B. A uniform soil has less strength and stability than a non-uniform soil.
C. Uniformity coefficient does not affect strength and stability.
D. Uniformity coefficient of a poorly graded soil is more than that of a well graded soil.
Answer: B

38. The water content of soil, which represents the boundary between plastic state and liquid state, is known as
A. liquid limit
B. plastic limit
C. shrinkage limit
D. plasticity index
Answer: A

39. Which of the following soils has more plasticity index ?
A. sand
B. silt
C. clay
D. gravel
Answer: C

40. At liquid limit, all soils possess
A. same shear strength of small magnitude
B. same shear strength of large magnitude
C. different shear strengths of small magnitude
D. different shear strengths of large magnitude
Answer: A

41. If the material of the base of the Casagrande liquid limit device on which the cup containing soil paste drops is
softer than the standard hard rubber, then
A. the liquid limit of soil always increases
B. the liquid limit of soil always decreases
C. the liquid limit of soil may increase
D. the liquid limit of soil may decrease
Answer: A

42. According to IS classification, the range of silt size particles is
A. 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm
B. 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
C. 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm
D. 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm
Answer: D

43. Highway Research Board (HRB. classification of soils is based on
A. particle size composition
B. plasticity characteristics
C. both particle size composition and plasticity characteristics
D. none of the above
Answer: C

44. Inorganic soils with low compressibility are represented by
A. MH
B. SL
C. ML
D. CH
Answer: C

45. Sand particles are made of
A. rock minerals
B. kaolinite
C. illite
D. montmorillonite
Answer: A

46. The clay mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is
A. kaolinite
B. illite
C. montmorillonite
D. none of the above
Answer: C

47. Dispersed type of soil structure is an arrangement comprising particles having
A. face to face or parallel orientation
B. edge to edge orientation
C. edge to face orientation
D. all of the above
Answer: A

48. Effective stress is
A. the stress at particles contact
B. a physical parameter that can be measured
C. important because it is a function of engineering properties of soil
D. all of the above
Answer: C

49. Rise of water table above the ground surface causes
A. equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress
B. equal decrease in pore water pressure and total stress
C. increase in pore water pressure but decrease in total stress
D. decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress
Answer: A

50. The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a swimming pool are respectively
A. zero and zero
B. 0.5 kg/cm2 and zero
C. 0.5 kg/cm2 and 0.5 kg/cm2
D. 1.0 kg/cm2 and 0.5 kg/cm2
Answer: B

51. If the water table rises upto ground surface, then the
A. effective stress is reduced due to decrease in total stress only but pore water pressure does not change
B. effective stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but total stress does not change
C. total stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but effec-tive stress does not change
D. total stress is increased due to de-crease in pore water pressure but effective stress does not change
Answer: B

53. Quick sand is a
A. type of sand
B. flow condition occurring in cohesive soils
C. flow condition occurring in cohesionless soils
D. flow condition occurring in both cohesive and cohesionless soils
Answer: A

54. The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5 m, specific gravity 2.67 and voids ratio 0.67 is equal to
A. 1.0m
B. 1.5 m
C. 2.0 m
D. 3m
Answer: B

55. Physical properties of a permeant which influence permeability are
A. viscosity only
B. unit weight only
C. both viscosity and unit weight
D. none of the above
Answer: C

56. Select the correct statement.
A. The greater the viscosity, the greater is permeability.
B. The greater the unit weight, the greater is permeability.
C. The greater the unit weight, the smaller is permeability.
D. Unit weight does not affect per-meability.
Answer: B

57. Effective stress on soil
A. increases voids ratio and decreases permeability
B. increases both voids ratio and permeability
C. decreases both voids ratio and permeability
D. decreases voids ratio and increases permeability
Answer: C

58. If the permeability of a soil is 0.8 mm/sec, the type of soil is
A. gravel
B. sand
C. silt
D. clay
Answer: B

59. Which of the following methods is more suitable for the determination of permeability of clayey soil ?
A. constant head method
B. falling head method
C. horizontal permeability test
D. none of the above
Answer: B

60. Which of the following methods is best suited for determination of permeability of coarse-grained soils ?
A. constant head method
B. falling head method
C. both the above
D. none of the above
Answer: A

61. Due to a rise in temperature, the viscosity and the unit weight of the percolating fluid are reduced to 60% and 90% respectively.
If other things remain constant, the coefficient of permeability
A. increases by 25%
B. increases by 50%
C. increases by 33.3%
D. decreases by 33.3%
Answer: B

62. Coefficient of permeability of soil
A. does not depend upon temperature
B. increases with the increase in temperature
C. increases with the decrease in temperature
D. none of the above
Answer: B

63. The average coefficient of permeability of natural deposits
A. parallel to stratification is always greater than that perpendicular to stratification
B. parallel to stratification is always less than that perpendicular to stratification
C. is always same in both directions
D. parallel to stratification may or may not be greater than that perpendicular to stratification
Answer: A

64. The total discharge from two wells situated near to each other is
A. sum of the discharges from individual wells
B. less than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
C. greater than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
D. equal to larger of the two discharges from individual wells
Answer: B

65. The flownet for an earthen dam with 30 m water depth consists of 25 potential drops and 5 flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of dam material is 0.03 mm/sec. The discharge per meter length of dam is
A. 0.00018 nrVsec
B. 0.0045 m3/sec
C. 0.18m3/sec
D. 0.1125m3/sec
Answer: A

66. The most suitable method for drainage of fine grained cohesive soils is
A. well ppint system
B. vacuum method
C. deep well system
D. electroosmosis method
Answer: D

67. Total number of stress components at a point within a soil mass loaded at its boundary is
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 16
Answer: C

Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering Interview Questions

76. The slope of isochrone at any point at a given time indicates the rate of change of
A. effective stress with time
B. effective stress with depth
C. pore water pressure with depth
D. pore water pressure with time
Answer: C

77. Within the consolidation process of a saturated clay
A. a gradual increase in neutral pressure and a gradual decrease in effective pressure takes place and sum of the two is constant
B. a gradual decrease in neutral pressure and a gradual increase in effective pressure takes place and sum of the two is constant
C. both neutral pressure and effective pressure decrease
D. both neutral pressure and effective pressure increase
Answer: B

78. The value of compression index for a remoulded sample whose liquid limit is 50% is
A. 0.028
B. 0.28
C. 036
D. 0.036
Answer: B

79. Which one of the following clays behaves like a dense sand ?
A. over-consolidated ciay with a high over-consolidation ratio
B. over-consolidated clay with a low over-consolidation ratio
C. normally consolidated clay
D. under-consolidated clay
Answer: A

80. Coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by
A. compressibility
B. permeability
C. both compressibility and permeability
D. none of the above
Answer: C

81. Degree of consolidation is
A. directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to drainage path
B. directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to square of drainage path
C. directly proportional to drainage path and inversely proportional to time
D. directly proportional to square of drainage path and inversely proportional to time
Answer: B

82. Time factor for a clay layer is
A. a dimensional parameter
B. directly proportional to permeability of soil
C. inversely proportional to drainage path
D. independent of thickness of clay layer
Answer: B

84. Clay layer A with single drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv takes 6 months to achieve 50% consolidation. The time taken by clay layer B of the same thickness with double drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv/2 to achieve the same degree of consolidation is
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months
Answer: A

85. Coefficient of consolidation for clays normally
A. decreases with increase in liquid limit
B. increases with increase in liquid limit
C. first increases and then decreases with increase in liquid limit
D. remains constant at all liquid limits
Answer: A

86. Direct measurement of permeability of the specimen at any stage of loading can be made
A. only in fixed ring type consolido-meter
B. only in floating ring type consolido-meter
C. both (A. and (B.
D. none of the above
Answer: A

87. Compressibility of sandy soils is
A. almost equal to that of clayey soils
B. much greater than that of clayey soils
C. much less than that of clayey soils
D. none of the above
Answer: C

88. Select the correct statement.
A. coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is less than that of a normally consolidated clay
B. coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is greater than that of a normally consolidated clay
C. coefficient of compressibility is cons-tant for any clay
D. none of the above
Answer: A

89. Coefficient of compressibility is
A. constant for any type of soil
B. different for different types of soils and also different for a soil under different states of consolidation
C. different for different types of soils but same for a soil under different states of consolidation
D. independent of type of soil but depends on the stress history of soil
Answer: B

90. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a structure resting on a soil
A. decreases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
B. decreases with the decrease in the plastic limit
C. increases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
D. increases with the decrease in the porosity of the soil
Answer: A

91. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a soil is
A. directly proportional to the voids ratio
B. directly proportional to the compression index
C. inversely proportional to the compression index
D. none of the above
Answer: B

92. A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm when effective stress was increased from 100 kN/m2 to 200 kN/ m2. If the effective stress is further increased from 200 kN/ m2 to 400 kN/ m2, then the settlement of the same clay is
A. 10 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 40 mm
D. none of the above
Answer: A

93. Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a
A. drum roller
B. rubber tyred roller
C. sheep’s foot roller
D. vibratory roller
Answer: D

94. With the increase in the amount of compaction energy
A. optimum water content increases but maximum dry density decreases
B. optimum water content decreases but maximum dry density increases
C. both optimum water content and maximum dry density increase
D. both optimum water content and maximum dry density decrease[ES 93]
Answer: B

95. The maximum dry density upto which any soil can be compacted depends upon
A. moisture content only
B. amount of compaction energy only
C. both moisture content and amount of compaction energy
D. none of the above
Answer: C

97. For better strength and stability, the fine grained soils and coarse grained soils are compacted respectively as
A. dry of OMC and wet of OMC
B. wet of OMC and dry of OMC
C. wet of OMC and wet of OMC
D. dry of OMC and dry of OMC where OMC is optimum moisture content
Answer: B

98. Select the incorrect statement.
A. Effective cohesion of a soil can never have a negative value.
B. Effective angle of internal friction for coarse grained soils is rarely below 30°.
C. Effective angle of internal friction for a soil increases as state of compact-ness increases.
D. Effective angle of internal friction is a complicated function of mineralogy and clay size content.
Answer: A

99. For a loose sand sample and a dense sand sample consolidated to the same effective stress
A. ultimate strength is same and also peak strength is same
B. ultimate strength is different but peak strength is same
C. ultimate strength is same but peak strength of dense sand is greater than that of loose sand
D. ultimate strength is same but peak
Answer: C

100. The shear strength of a soil
A. is directly proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
B. is inversely proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
C. decreases with increase in normal stress
D. decreases with decrease in normal stress
Answer: D

101. In a consolidated drained test on a normally consolidated clay, the volume of the soil sample during shear
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains unchanged
D. first increases and then decreases
Answer: A

102. Skempton’s pore pressure coefficient B for saturated soil is
A. 1
B. zero
C. between 0 and 1
D. greater than 1 [CS 95]
Answer: A

103. Shear strength of a soil is a unique function of
A. effective stress only
B. total stress only
C. both effective stress and total stress
D. none of the above
Answer: A

104. In a deposit of normally consolidated clay
A. effective stress increases with depth but water content of soil and un-drained strength decrease with depth
B. effective stress and water content increase with depth but undrained strength decreases with depth
C. effective stress and undrained strength increase with depth but water content decreases with depth
D. effective stress, water content and undrained strength decrease with depth
Answer: C

105. Select the incorrect statement.
Effective angle of shearing resistance
A. increases as the size of particles increases
B. increases as the soil gradation im-proves
C. is limited to a maximum value of 45°
D. is rarely more than 30° for fine grained soil
Answer: C

106. Unconfmed compressive strength test is
A. undrained test
B. drained test
C. consolidated undrained test
D. consolidated drained test
Answer: A

107. A cylindrical specimen of saturated soil failed under an axial vertical stress of 100kN/m2 when it was laterally unconfmed. The failure plane was inclined to the horizontal plane at an angle of 45°.
The values of cohesion and angle of internal friction for the soil are respectively
A. 0.5 N/mm2 and 30°
B. 0.05 N/mm2 and 0°
C. 0.2 N/mm2 and 0°
D. 0.05 N/mm2 and 45°
Answer: B

109. The angle that Coulomb’s failure envelope makes with the horizontal is called
A. cohesion
B. angle of internal friction
C. angle of repose
D. none of the above
Answer: A

111. If a cohesive soil specimen is subjected to a vertical compressive load, the inclination of the cracks to the horizontal is
A. 90°
B. 45°
C. 22.5°
D. 0°
Answer: B

112. Select the incorrect statement.
A. In a direct shear box test, the plane of shear failure is predetermined.
B. Better control is achieved on the drainage of the soil in a triaxial compression test.
C. Stress distribution on the failure plane in the case of triaxial compression test is uniform.
D. Unconfined compression test can be carried out on all types of soils.
Answer: D

113. If the shearing stress is zero on two planes, then the angle between the two planes is
A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 135°
D. 225°
Answer: B

114. In the triaxial compression test, the application of additional axial stress (i.e. deviator stress) on the soil specimen produces shear stress on
A. horizontal plane only
B. vertical plane only
C. both horizontal and vertical planes
D. all planes except horizontal and vertical planes
Answer: D

116. In a triaxial compression test when drainage is allowed during the first stage (i. e. application of cell pressure) only and not during the second stage (i.e. application of deviator stress at constant cell pressure), the test is known as
A. consolidated drained test
B. consolidated undrained test
C. unconsolidated drained test
D. unconsolidated undrained test
Answer: B

120. During the first stage of triaxial test when the cell pressure is increased from 0.10 N/mm2 to 0.26 N/mm2, the pore water pressure increases from 0.07 N/mm2 to 0.15 “N/mm2. Skempton’s pore pressure parameter B is
A. 0.5
B. -0.5
C. 2.0
D. – 2.0
Answer: A

121. Sensitivity of a soil can be defined as
A. percentage of volume change of soil under saturated condition
B. ratio of compressive strength of unconfined undisturbed soil to that of soil in a remoulded state
C. ratio of volume of voids to volume of solids
D. none of the above
Answer: B

122. Rankine’s theory of earth pressure assumes that the back of the wall is
A. plane and smooth
B. plane and rough
C. vertical and smooth
D. vertical and rough
Answer: C

123. The coefficient of active earth pressure for a loose sand having an angle of internal friction of 30° is
A. 1/3
B. 3
C. 1
D. 1/2
Answer: A

124. The major principal stress in an element of cohesionless soil within the backfill of a retaining wall is
A. vertical if the soil is in an active state of plastic equilibrium
B. vertical if the soil is in a passive state of plastic equilibrium
C. inclined at 45° to the vertical plane
D. none of the above
Answer: A

126. The effect of cohesion on a soil is to
A. reduce both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
B. increase both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
C. reduce the active earth pressure in-tensity but to increase the passive earth pressure intensity
D. increase the active earth pressure in-tensity but to reduce the passive earth pressure intensity [GATE 99]
Answer: C

127. A retaining wall 6m high supports a backfill with a surcharge angle of 10°. The back of the wall is inclined to the vertical at a positive batter angle of 5°. If the angle of wall friction is 7°, then the resultant active earth pressure will act at a distance of 2 m above the base and inclined to the horizontal at an angle of
A. 7°
B. 10°
C. 12°
D. 17°
Answer: C

128. Coefficient of earth pressure at rest is
A. less than active earth pressure but greater than passive earth pressure
B. greater than active earth pressure but less than passive earth pressure
C. greater than both the active earth pressure and passive earth pressure
D. less than both the active and passive earth pressures
Answer: B

137. Bishop’s method of stability analysis
A. is more conservative
B. neglects the effect of forces acting on the sides of the slices
C. assumes the slip surface as an arc of a circle
D. all of the above
Answer: C

138. Allowable bearing pressure for a foundation depends upon
A. allowable settlement only
B. ultimate bearing capacity of soil only
C. both allowable settlement and ultimate bearing capacity
D. none of above
Answer: C

142. The rise of water table below the foundation influences the bearing capacity of soil mainly by reducing
A. cohesion and effective angle of shearing resistance
B. cohesion and effective unit weight of soil
C. effective unit weight of soil and effective angle of shearing resistance
D. effective angle of shearing resistance
Answer: B

143. Terzaghi’s general bearing capacity formula for a strip footing
(C Nc + y D Nq + 0.5 Y NTB. gives
A. safe bearing capacity
B. net safe bearing capacity
C. ultimate bearing capacity
D. net ultimate bearing capacity where C = unit cohesion
Y =unit weight of soil D = depth of foundation B = width of foundation N„ Nq, NY = bearing capacity factors
Answer: C

144. Terzaghi’s bearing capacity factors Nc, Nq and Nr are functions of
A. cohesion only
B. angle of internal friction only
C. both cohesion and angle of internal friction
D. none of the above
Answer: B

145. In the plate loading test for determining the bearing capacity of soil, the size of square bearing plate should be
A. less than 300 mm
B. between 300 mm and 750 mm
C. between 750 mm and 1 m
D. greater than 1 m
Answer: B

146. Select the incorrect statement.
A. Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon the amount and direction of load.
B. Bearing capacity of a soil depends on the type of soil.
C. Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon shape and size of footing.
D. Bearing capacity of a soil is indepen-dent of rate of loading.
Answer: A

147. A 600 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in plate load test on a cohesionless soil under an intensity of loading of 0.2 N/ram2. The settlement of a prototype shallow footing 1 m square under the same intensity of loading is
A. 15 mm
B. between 15 mm and 25 mm
C. 25 mm
D. greater than 25 mm
Answer: B

148. A 300 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in a plate load test on a cohesive soil when the intensity of loading is 0.2 N/mm2. The settlement of a prototype shallow footing 1 m square under the same intensity of loading is
A. 15 mm
B. 30 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 167 mm
Answer: C

149. Rise of water table in cohesionless soils upto ground surface reduces the net ultimate bearing capacity approximately by
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
Answer: B

150. Contact pressure beneath a rigid footing resting on cohesive soil is
A. less at edges compared to middle
B. more at edges compared to middle
C. uniform throughout
D. none of the above
Answer: B

151. In active state of plastic equilibrium in a non cohesive soil with horizontal ground surface

A. major principal stress is horizontal
B. minor principal stress is vertical
C. major principal stress is vertical
D. minor and major principal stresses are equally inclined to horizontal.
Answer: C

152. The reduction in volume of soil due to squeezing out of water from the voids, is termed

A. primary consolidation
B. primary compression
C. primary time effect
D. all the above.
Answer: D

153. ‘Drift’ is the material picked up, mixed, disintegrated, transported and redeposited by

A. wind
B. gravitational force
C. glaciated water
D. all the above.
Answer: C

154. The consistency index of a soil is defined as the ratio of

A. liquid limit plus the natural water content to the plasticity index of the soil
B. liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index of the soil
C. natural water content of a soil minus plastic limit to the plasticity index of the soil
D. natural water content of a soil plus its plastic limit to the plasticity index of the soil.
Answer: B

155. A clay subjected to pressure in excess to its present over-burden, is said to be

A. pre-compressed
B. pre-consolidated
C. over-consolidated
D. all the above.
Answer: D

156. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The void ratio in soils is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of solids
B. The porosity of a soil is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the gross volume of the soil
C. The bulk density of a soil is defined as the unit weight of the soil
D. The dry density of a soil is defined as weight of solids to the total volume of the soil
E. All the above.
Answer: E

157. The shear strength of a soil

A. increases with an increase in the normal stress
B. is proportional to the cohesion of the soil
C. is generally known as the strength of the soil
D. is proportional to the tangent of the angle of internal friction
E. all the above.
Answer: E

158. The property of a soil which permits water to percolate through it, is called

A. moisture content
B. permeability
C. capillarity
D. none of these.
Answer: B

159. The triaxial apparatus is usually used for

A. unconsolidated-undrained test
B. consolidated-undrained test
C. drained test
D. all the above tests.
Answer: D

160. A pycnometer is used to determine

A. voids ratio
B. dry density
C. water content
D. density index.
Answer: C

161. Soils containing organic matters

A. are of spongy nature
B. swell with decrease of moisture
C. shrink with increase of moisture content
D. none of these.
Answer: A

162. A soil not fully consolidated under the existing over-burden pressure, is called

A. pre-consolidated
B. normally consolidated
C. under-consolidated
D. none of these.
Answer: C

163. The angle of internal friction is maximum for

A. angular-grained loose sand
B. angular-grained dense sand
C. round-grained dense sand
D. round-grained loose sand
E. clays.
Answer: B

164. A grillage foundation

A. is provided for heavily loaded isolated columns
B. is treated as spread foundation
C. consists of two sets of perpendicularly placed steel beams
D. all the above.
Answer: D

165. The plasticity of fine soils may be assessed by means of

A. dry strength test
B. toughness test
C. dilatancy test
D. all of these.
Answer: D

166. The density of soil can be increased

A. by reducing the space occupied by air
B. by elastic compression of soil grains
C. by expelling water from pores
D. All the above.
Answer: D

167. The length/diameter ratio of cylindrical specimens used in triaxial test, is generally

A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 2.5
E. 3
Answer: C

168. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The object of classifying soils is to arrange them into groups according to their properties and behaviour
B. A soil classification system is meant to provide an accepted and systematic method of describing the various types of soils eliminating personal factors
C. The first category of soil classification is based on grain size of the soil
D. The second category of soil classification is based on fine as well as coarse grains
E. All the above.
Answer: E

169. The bearing capacity of a soil depends upon

A. size of the particles
B. shape of the particles
C. cohesive properties of particles
D. internal frictional resistance of particles
E. all the above.
Answer: E

170. A direct shear test possesses the following disadvantage:

A. A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick drainage
B. A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick dissipation of pore pressure developed during the test
C. As the test progresses the area under shear, gradually changes
D. none of these.
Answer: C

171. Through a point in a loaded soil mass, there exists n typical planes mutually orthogonal on which the stress is wholly normal and no shear stress acts, if n is

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

172. The pressure that builds up in pore water due to load increment on the soil, is termed

A. excess pore pressure
B. excess hydrostatic pressure
C. hydrodynamic pressure
D. all the above.
Answer: D

173. The ratio of emax and emin of silty sand, is

A. 2.0
B. 5
C. 3.0
D. 3.5
E. 4.0
Answer: C

174. A flow net may be utilised for the determination of

A. exit gradient
B. seepage
C. hydrostatic pressure
D. seepage pressure
E. all the above.
Answer: E

175. The neutral stress in a soil mass is

A. force per neutral area
B. force per effective area
C. stess taken up by the pore water
D. stress taken up by solid particles.
Answer: C

176. If voids ratio is 0.67, water content is 0.188 and specific gravity is 2.68, the degree of saturation of the soil, is

A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 75%
Answer: D

177. If water content of a soil is 40%, G is 2.70 and void ratio is 1.35, the degree of saturation is

A. 70%
B. 75%
C. 80%
D. 85%
E. 90%
Answer: C

178. On wetting, cohesive soils,

A. loose permeability
B. gain shear strength
C. loose elasticity
D. decrease their shear strength.
Answer: D

179. Which one of the following statements is true for Mohr-Coulomb envelope ?

A. Coulomb suggests that the relationship between shear strength and normal stress, is adequately represented by the straight line
B. The generalised Mohr theory suggests that, though the shear stress depends on the normal stress, the relation is not linear
C. Coulomb and Mohr suggest that a definite relationship exists among the principal stress and the angle of internal friction
D. For an ideal pure friction material, the straight line passes through the origin.
E. All the above.
Answer: E

180. A structure is erected on an impervious clay whose thickness is 12 m. Drainage is possible both at upper and lower surfaces. Coefficient of consolidation is 0.015 cm2 per minute. For attaining 50% consolidation with a time factor 0.20, the number of days required

A. 3233
B. 3123
C. 33331
D. 3313
Answer: C

181. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The range of water content between the liquid limit and plastic limit, is called plasticity index.
B. The ratio of the liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index of soils, is called consistency index
C. The ratio of natural water content minus its plastic limit to its plasticity index is called liquidity index
D. The ratio between plasticity index and flow index (i.e. slope of flow curve in case of liquid limit), is called toughness index
E. All the above.
Answer: E

182. ‘Talus’ is the soil transported by

A. wind
B. water
C. glacier
D. gravitational force.
Answer: D

183. A triaxial shear test is prefered to direct shear test, because

A. it can be performed under all three driange conditions with complete control
B. precise measurement of pore pressure and change in volume during test, is not posible
C. stress distribution on the failure plane, is non uniform
D. none of these.
Answer: A

184. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. When stress decreases, void, ratio decreases
B. When stress decreases, coefficient of permeability decreases
C. When stress decreases, coefficient of volume change decreases
D. When stress decreases void ratio, co-effi-cients of per-meability and volume change decrease.
Answer: D

185. Chemical weathering of soil is caused due to

A. oxidation
B. carbonation
C. hydration
D. leaching
E. all the above.
Answer: E

186. Hydrometer readings are corrected for:

A. temperature correction
B. meniscus correction
C. dispersing agent correction
D. meniscus and dispersing agent corrections
E. temperature, meniscus and dispersing agent corrections.
Answer: E

187. Tergazhi’s theory of one dimensional consolidation assumes

A. soil is homogeneous and fully saturated
B. water and soil particles are incompressible
C. deformation of the soil, is entirely due to change in volume
D. Darcey’s law for the velocity of flow of water through soil, is perfectly valid
E. all the above.
Answer: E

188. The specific gravity of Calcite is

A. 2.65
B. 2.72
C. 2.85
D. 2.90
Answer: B

189. The ratio of volume of air voids to the volume of total voids, is known as

A. air content
B. percentage air voids
C. percentage voids
D. porosity.
Answer: A

190. A plane inclined at an angle φ to the horizontal at which the soil is expected to stay in the absence of any lateral support, is known as

A. natural slope line
B. repose line
C. the φ line
D. all the above.
Answer: D

191. Tergazhi’s theory of one dimensional consolidation assumes

A. load is applied in one direction
B. coefficient of permeability is constant
C. excess pore water drains out only in the vertical direction
D. time lag in consolidation is due entirely to permeability
E. all the above.
Answer: E

192. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The dry density reduces by addition of water after attaining optimum moisture content
B. The line joining the peak of three moisture content graphs obtained by using three compactive energies, is called line of optimus
C. Well graded coarse grained soils can be compacted to a very high density as compared to fine grained soils
D. All the above. .
Answer: D

193. A soil mass is said to be in plastic equilibrium if

A. it is stressed to maximum
B. it is on the verge of failure
C. it is in plastic stage
D. it starts flowing.
Answer: B

194. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The permeability of the coarse-grained soils may be reduced by grouting.
B. The process of injecting fluids (i.e. grouts) into the pores space of the soil, is called grouting.
C. The grouting increases the soil strength.
D. All the above.
Answer: D

195. A soil sample of mass specific gravity 1.92, has a moisture content 30%. If the specific gravity of solids is 2.75, the void ratio, is

A. 0.858
B. 0.860
C. 0.862
D. 0.864
Answer: C

196. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids in a given mass of soil, is known

A. porosity
B. specific gravity
C. void ratio
D. water content.
Answer: D

197. During seepage through a soil, direction of seepage is always

A. parallel to equipotential lines
B. perpendicular to stream lines
C. perpendicular to equipotential lines
D. none of these.
Answer: C

198. The property of a soil which allows it to be deformed rapidly without rupture, elastic rebound and also a volume change, is known

A. porosity
B. plasticity
C. permeability
D. ductility.
Answer: B

199. The slip at critical angle, is generally known

A. δ 1-line
B. rupture plane
C. slip plane
D. all the above.
Answer: D

200. Pick up the cohesive soil from the following:

A. Red earth
B. Clay
C. Black cotton soil
D. Compacted ground.
Answer: C

201. Pile foundations are generally preferred to for

A. bridge foundations
B. sky scrapper buildings
C. residential buildings
D. runways.
Answer: B

202. The angle of internal friction of clays, is usually

A. 0° to 5°
B. 5° to 20°
C. 20° to 30°
D. 30° to 45°
Answer: B

203. The specific yield of soil depends upon

A. compaction of stratum
B. distribution of pores
C. shape and size of particles
D. all the above.
Answer: D

204. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Coefficient of compressibility is the decrease in void ratio per unit increase of pressure
B. The percent settlement at any time is called degree of consolidation
C. Time factor is a dimensionless quantity
D. The initial curve on either side of the point of unloading and reloading is called ‘virgin curve’
E. All the above.
Answer: E

205. ‘Loess’ is silty clay formed by the action of

A. water
B. glacier
C. wind
D. gravitational force.
Answer: C

206. The maximum possible value nf dry density is referred to as

A. dry density
B. zero air voids
C. saturation dry density
D. all the above.
Answer: D

207. Failure of a slope occurs only when total shear force is

A. equal to total shearing strength
B. greater than total shearing strength
C. less than total shearing strength
D. none of these.
Answer: B

208. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. A soil having pH value more than 7 is an acidic soil
B. A soil having pH value less than 7 is an acidic soil
C. A soil having pH value more than 7 is an alkaline soil
D. A soil containing chemicals for the manufacture of portland cement is preferred.
Answer: B

209. Cohesionless soil is

A. sand
B. silt
C. clay
D. clay and silt.
Answer: A

210. The shearing force acting along the slice of a curved surface of slippage, causes the soil to slide

A. down at the centre
B. down at the toe
C. upward at the centre
D. none of these.
Answer: A

211. The seepage exit gradient in a soil is the ratio of

A. total head to the length of seepage
B. flow line to slope
C. head upstream to that at downstream
D. head loss to the length of the seepage
E. none of these.
Answer: D

212. Sedimentation analysis is based on the assumption:

A. soil particles are spherical
B. particles settle independent of other particles
C. walls of the jar do not affect the settlement .
D. all the above.
Answer: D

213. The maximum pressure which a soil can carry without shear failure, is called

A. safe bearing capacity
B. net safe bearing capacity
C. net ultimate bearing capacity
D. ultimate bearing capacity.
Answer: A

214. For general engineering purposes, soils are classified by

A. particle size classification system
B. textural classification system
C. High Way Research Board (HRB), classification system
D. unified soil classification system.
Answer: D

215. If there is no impervious boundary at the bottom of a hydraulic structure, stream lines tend to follow :

A. a straight line
B. a parabola
C. a semi-ellipse
D. a semi-circle.
Answer: C

216. The change of moisture content of soils, changes the

A. value of the angle of repose
B. amount of compaction required
C. cohesive strength of soil
D. all the above.
Answer: D

217. A failure wedge develops if a retaining wall

A. moves away from the backfill
B. moves towards the backfill
C. sinks downwards
D. stresses equally by vertical and horizontal forces.
Answer: A

218. For determining the ultimate bearing capacity of soil, the recommended size of a square bearing plate to be used in load plate test should be 30 to 75 cm square with a minimum thickness of

A. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 20 mm
E. 25 mm
Answer: E

219. The water content in a soil sample when it continues to loose weight without loosing the volume, is called

A. Shrinkage limit
B. Plastic limit
C. liquid limit
D. semi-solid limit.
Answer: A

220. When a cohesionless soil attains quick condition, it looses

A. shear strength
B. bearing capacity
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (6).
Answer: C

221. Pick up the correct definition from the following:

A. The lateral pressure exerted by the soil when the retaining wall moves away from the back fill, is generally known as active earth pressure of the soil
B. The lateral pressure exerted by the soil when the retaining wail moves towards the soil, is generally known as ‘Passive earth pressure of the soil’
C. The lateral pressure exerted by the soil when the retaining wall has no movement relative to the back fill, is known as ‘earth pressure at rest of the soil’
D. All the above.
Answer: D

SOIL MECHANICS and FOUNDATION Engineering Objective Type Questions Answers pdf free download ::

[PDF Notes] Breton Woods system provided a compromise between fixed and floating exchange rate systems

The new international monetary arrangement agreed in the Breton Woods conference is often called Breton Woods system. The Breton Woods system provided a compromise between fixed and floating exchange rate systems.

It was a modified gold exchange standard in which the member countries maintained adjustable pegs relative to U.S. dollar. The U.S. undertook to exchange gold for dollars with foreign central banks at a fixed rate.

The new system aimed at (a) establishing international harmony and exchange rate stability associated with the gold standard; and (b) allowing individual countries the freedom to pursue their own macroeconomic policy.

The Breton Woods system of adjustable pegging faced recurrent crises and finally collapsed in 1973. The fundamental defect of the system was its own contradictory framework.

The three basic features of the system, i.e., constant exchange rates, autonomous national macroeconomic policies, and international capital mobility, could not continue together for a long time.

Despite the collapse of the Breton Woods System, the IMF, which was founded as part of this system, still plays an important role as an international financial institution.