300+ TOP Railway Engineering MCQs and Answers Quiz

RAILWAY ENGINEERING Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. On a single rail track, goods trains loaded with heavy iron material run starting from ‘A’ to ‘B’ and then empty wagons run from ‘B’ to ‘A’. The amount of creep in the rails:

A. Will be more in the direction of B to A

B. Will be more in the direction of A to B

C. Will be maximum at the middle of A and B

D. Cannot be determined from the given data

Answer: B

2. A triangle is used for

A. Changing the direction of engine

B. Transferring wagons to and from parallel tracks without shunting

C. Separating all the sidings and shunting lines from main lines

D. Preventing the vehicles from running off the track

Answer: A

3. Heel divergence is

A. Always less than flange-way clearance

B. Equal to flange-way clearance

C. Always greater than flange-way clearance

D. Sometimes greater than flange-way clearance

Answer: C

4. Stretcher bar is provided

A. To permit lateral movement of the tongue rail

B. To maintain the two tongue rails at the exact distance

C. To ensure exact gauge at the toe of the switch as well as the nose of crossing

D. To prevent any vertical movement between the wing rail and nose of crossing

Answer: B

5. Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle travels around a curve at

A. Equilibrium speed

B. Speeds higher than equilibrium speed

C. Speeds lower than equilibrium speed

D. Booked speed

Answer: B

6. The type of spike used for fixing chairs of bull headed rails to wooden sleepers is

A. Dog spike

B. Rail screw

C. Elastic spike

D. Round spike

Answer: D

7. Flat mild steel bearing plates are used

A. For points and crossings in the lead portion

B. With wooden sleepers at locations where creep is likely to be developed

C. On all joints and curves

D. On all the above

Answer: A

8. Composite sleeper index is the index of

A. Hardness and strength

B. Strength and toughness

C. Toughness and wear resistance

D. Wear resistance and hardness

Answer: A

9. Staggered joints are generally provided

A. On curves

B. On straight track

C. When two different rail sections are required to be joined

D. None of the above

Answer: A

10. Creep is the

A. Longitudinal movement of rail

B. Lateral movement of rail

C. Vertical movement of rail

D. Difference in level of two rails

Answer: A

Railway Engineering MCQs

11. Due to battering action of wheels over the end of the rails, the rails get bent down and are deflected at ends. These rails are called

A. Roaring rails

B. Hogged rails

C. Corrugated rails

D. Buckled rails

Answer: B

12. The main function of a fish plate is

A. To join the two rails together

B. To join rails with the sleeper

C. To allow rail to expand and contract freely

D. None of the above

Answer: A

13. The purpose of providing fillet in a rail section is to

A. Increase the lateral strength

B. Increase the vertical stiffness

C. Avoid the stress concentration

D. Reduce the wear

Answer: C

14. Two important constituents in the composition of steel used for rail are

A. Carbon and silicon

B. Manganese and phosphorous

C. Carbon and manganese

D. Carbon and sulphur

Answer: C

15. Flange-way clearance is the distance

A. Between the adjoining faces of the running rail and the check rail near the crossing

B. Between the gauge faces of the stock rail and the tongue rail

C. Through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch

D. None of the above

Answer: A

16. Which of the following types of sleepers is preferred on joints?

A. CST-9 sleeper

B. Steel trough sleeper

C. Wooden sleeper

D. Concrete sleeper

Answer: C

17. Total effective bearing area of both the bowls of a pot sleeper, is

A. Slightly more than that of a wooden sleeper

B. Slightly less than that of a wooden sleeper

C. Equal to that of a wooden sleeper

D. None of these

Answer: C

18. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Sleepers hold the rails at proper gauge on straights

B. Sleepers provide stability to the permanent way

C. Sleepers act as an elastic cushion between rails and ballast

D. None of these

Answer: D

19. On Indian Railways, number of a crossing is defined as

A. Sine of angle of crossing

B. Cosine of angle of crossing

C. Tangent of angle of crossing

D. Contingent of angle of crossing

Answer: D

20. Pandrol clips cannot be used with

A. Wooden sleepers

B. Concrete sleepers

C. CST-9 sleepers

D. Steel trough sleepers

Answer: C

21. For providing the required tilt of rails, adazing of wooden sleepers, is done for

A. Bull headed rails

B. Double headed rails

C. Flat footed rails

D. Any type of rails

Answer: C

22. If n is length of a rail in meters, the number of sleepers per rail length generally varies from

A. n to (n + 2)

B. (n + 2) to (n + 4)

C. (n + 3) to (n + 6)

D. (n + 4) to (n + 5)

Answer: C

23. Normally maximum cant permissible in Meter Gauge is

A. 75 mm

B. 90 mm

C. 140 mm

D. 165 mm

Answer: B

24. Type of switch rails generally adopted for modern track, is

A. Straight switch

B. Curved switch

C. Loose heel switch

D. Bent switch

Answer: B

25. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. An extra width of 7.5 cm ballast is provided on outside a curve if track is laid with short welded rails

B. An extra width of 7.5 cm ballast is provided on outside a curve sharper than 3° on B.G. and M.G. tracks

C. An extra width of 15 cm ballast is provided on each shoulder if the track is laid with welded rails

D. All the above

Answer: D

26. Lead of crossing is the distance from the

A. Heel of the switch to the toe of the switch

B. Heel of the switch to the theoretical nose of the crossing

C. Toe of the switch to the theoretical nose of crossing

D. Toe of the switch to the actual nose of crossing

Answer: B

27. The place where a railway line and a road cross each other at the same level, is known as

A. Cross over

B. Railway junction

C. Road junction

D. Level crossing

Answer: D

28. If the stock rails are B.H. rails, the type of switch generally provided, is

A. Articulated

B. Undercut

C. Over riding

D. Straight cut

Answer: D

29. The object of providing a point lock is

A. To ensure that each switch is correctly set

B. To ensure that the point may not be operated while the train is on it

C. To detect any obstruction between and tongue rail

D. None of the above

Answer: A

30. Minimum composite sleeper index for wooden sleepers used in cross-overs, is

A. 1152

B. 1252

C. 1352

D. 1452

Answer: C

31. The rails get out of their original positions due to insufficient expansion gap. This phenomenon is known

A. Hogging

B. Buckling

C. Creeping

D. None of these

Answer: B

32. When semaphore and warner are installed on the same post, then the stop indication is given when

A. Both arms are horizontal

B. Semaphore arm lowered but warner arm horizontal

C. Both semaphore and warner arms lowered

D. None of the above

Answer: A

33. The standard dimensions of a wooden sleeper for M.G. railway track are

A. 2.74 m × 25 cm × 13 cm

B. 1.83 m × 20 cm × 11 cm

C. 1.52 m × 15 cm × 10 cm

D. 1.75 m × 20 cm × 12 cm

Answer: B

34. To avoid the damage of nose of crossing, the wing rails are ramped so that nose of crossing remains at a lower level by

A. 3 mm

B. 4 mm

C. 5 mm

D. 6 mm

Answer: A

35. Wear of rails is maximum in weight of

A. Tangent track

B. Sharp curve

C. Tunnels

D. Coastal area

Answer: B

36. Degree of a railway curve is defined as number of degrees subtended at the centre of a curve by an arc of

A. 10 m

B. 15 m

C. 20 m

D. 30.5 m

Answer: D

37. For even distribution of load through ballast, load dispersal is assumed as

A. 30° to the vertical

B. 45° to the vertical

C. 60° to the vertical

D. None of these

Answer: B

38. For a sleeper density of (n + 5), the number of sleepers required for constructing a broad gauge railway track of length 650 m is

A. 975

B. 918

C. 900

D. 880

Answer: C

39. Mr. W. Simms, the consulting Engineer to the Government of India recommended the gauge for Indian railways

A. 1.435 m as adopted in England

B. 1.800 m as per Indian conditions

C. 1.676 m as a compromise gauge

D. 1.000 m as a standard gauge

Answer: C

40. The distance between theoretical nose of crossing and actual nose of crossing for practical purposes, is

A. Nose thickness × tan α

B. Nose thickness × cot α

C. Nose thickness × sin α

D. Nose thickness × cos α

Answer: B

41. The rail is designated by its

A. Length

B. Weight

C. Cross-section

D. Weight per unit length

Answer: D

42. Best ballast contains stones varying in size from

A. 1.5 cm to 3 cm

B. 2.0 cm to 4 cm

C. 2.0 cm to 5 cm

D. 2.5 cm to 6 cm

Answer: C

43. A turn-in-curve is defined as

A. A curve introduced between two straights

B. A reverse curve

C. A reverse curve introduced in continuity of a turn out

D. A spiral transition curve

Answer: C

44. Ordinary rails are made of

A. Mild steel

B. Cast iron

C. Wrought iron

D. High carbon steel

Answer: D

45. In India the rails are manufactured by

A. Open hearth process

B. Duplex process

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: C

46. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. Required tilt of 1 in 20 is provided

A. To the tops of rails

B. At rail seats in bearing plates

C. At rail seats in chairs

D. At rail seats in metal sleepers

Answer: A

47. The formation width for a railway track depends on the
(i) Type of gauge
(ii) Number of tracks to be laid side by side
(iii) Slope of sides of embankment or cutting
The correct answer is

A. Only (i)

B. Both (i) and (ii)

C. Both (i) and (iii)

D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: B

48. If a 0.7% upgrade meets a 0.65% downgrade at a summit and the permissible rate of change of grade per chain length is 0.10%, the length of the vertical curve, is

A. 10 chains

B. 12 chains

C. 14 chains

D. 16 chains

Answer: C

49. Main disadvantage of steel sleepers, is:

A. It gets rusted quickly

B. Its lugs sometimes get broken

C. Its lugs sometimes get split

D. All the above

Answer: D

50. For a Broad Gauge route with (M + 7) sleeper density, number of sleepers per rail length is

A. 18

B. 19

C. 20

D. 21

Answer: C

51. Bearing plates are used to fix

A. Flat footed rails to the wooden sleepers

B. Double headed rails to the wooden sleepers

C. Bull headed rails to the wooden sleepers

D. Flat footed rails to the cast iron sleepers

Answer: A

52. On a single line track, 10 goods trains loaded with iron ore run from A to B and empty wagons return from B to A daily. Amount of creep of the rails will be

A. Zero

B. More in the direction A to B

C. More in the direction B to A

D. None of these

Answer: B

53. The desirable rate of change of cant deficiency in case of Metre Gauge is

A. 20 mm/sec

B. 35 mm/sec

C. 55 mm/sec

D. 65 mm/sec

Answer: B

54. At a rail joint, the ends of adjoining rails, are connected with a pair of fish plates and

A. 2 fish bolts

B. 4 fish bolts

C. 6 fish bolts

D. 8 fish bolts

Answer: B

55. If the standard length of a B.G. crossing is 597 cm, the number of crossing, is

A. 1 in 8½

B. 1 in 12

C. 1 in 16

D. None of these

Answer: B

56. Switch angle is the angle between

A. The gauge face of the stock rail and tongue rail

B. The outer face of the stock rail and tongue rail

C. The gauge face of the stock rail and outer face of the tongue rail

D. The outer face of the stock rail and the gauge face of the tongue rail

Answer: A

57. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Sleepers transfer the load of moving locomotive to the girders of the bridges

B. Sleepers act as a non-elastic medium between the rails and ballast

C. Sleepers hold the rails at 1 in 20 tilt inward

D. Sleepers hold the rails loose on curve

Answer: B

58. On Broad Gauge main lines with maximum traffic loads, the rail section preferred to, is

A. 29.8 to 37.3 kg/m

B. 32.5 to 42.5 kg/cm

C. 44.7 to 56.8 kg/m

D. None of these

Answer: C

59. The treadle bar is provided

A. In the middle of the track a little in front of the toes of the tongue rail

B. Near and parallel to inner side of one of the rails

C. At right angle to the rail

D. Near and parallel to inner side of both the rails

Answer: B

60. Heel of crossing is the line joining

A. Ends of splice rail and point rail

B. Ends of lead rails butting the crossing

C. Ends of wing rails

D. Throat and actual nose of crossing

Answer: A

61. The main advantage of a cement concrete sleeper, is:

A. Its heavy weight which improves the track modulus

B. Its capacity to maintain gauge

C. Its suitability for track circuiting

D. All the above

Answer: D

62. For laying the railway track, materials required are

A. Rails

B. Fish-Plates

C. Fish Bolts

D. Bearing Plates

Answer: B

63. The quantities required for one kilometer of Broad Gauge track will be

A. Parts of crossing

B. Fitted against check rails

C. Fitted against tongue rails

D. Laid between heel of switch and nose of crossing

Answer: C

64. Continuity of electric current across welded rail joints, is maintained by

A. Welding ends of a wire to each rail

B. Placing an insulated plate underneath the rails

C. Placing insulation in expansion gaps

D. None of these

Answer: D

65. Consider the following statements about concrete sleepers.
1. They improve the track modulus.
2. They have good scrap value.
3. They render transportation easy.
4. They maintain the gauge quite satisfactorily.
Of these statements

A. 1 and 2 are correct

B. 2 and 3 are correct

C. 3 and 4 are correct

D. 1 and 4 are correct

Answer: D

66. The arrangement of rails which permit trains to cross another track and also to divert to the other track, is called

A. Diamond crossing

B. Diamond crossing with single slip

C. Diamond crossing with double slip

D. Cross over

Answer: C

67. On either side of the centre line of rails, a cant of 1 in 20 in the sleeper is provided for a distance of

A. 150 mm

B. 165 mm

C. 175 mm

D. 185 mm

Answer: C

68. In a B.G. railway track, the specified ruling gradient is 1 in 250. The horizontal curve of 3° on a gradient of 1 in 250 will have the permissible gradient of

A. 1 in 257

B. 1 in 357

C. 1 in 457

D. 1 in 512

Answer: B

69. A CST-9 sleeper consists of

A. Two inverted triangular pots on either side of rail seat

B. A central plate with a projected key and box on the top of plate

C. A tie bar and 4 cotters to connect two cast iron plates

D. All the above

Answer: D

70. Staggered rail joints are generally provided

A. On curves

B. On tangents

C. On bridges

D. In tunnels

Answer: A

71. The following tests are conducted for rails:
(i) Falling weight test
(ii) Tensile test
(iii) Hammer test
The compulsory tests are

A. Only (i)

B. (i) and (ii)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (i) and (iii)

Answer: B

72. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Fish plates fit the underside of the rail head

B. Fish plates fit the top of the rail foot

C. Fish plates fit the web of the rail section

D. Cross sectional area of fish plates, is normally the same as that of the rail section

Answer: C

73. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Length of tongue rail should be greater than rigid wheel base of vehicle

B. Stock rail should be longer than tongue rail

C. Length of stock rail ahead of the toe should be a minimum of 1.65 m

D. All the above

Answer: D

74. Fish plate is in contact with rail at

A. Web of rail

B. Fishing plane

C. Head of rail

D. Foot of rail

Answer: B

75. In railways a triangle is mainly provided for

A. Diverting trains from the main line to branch line

B. Crossing over between parallel tracks

C. Changing direction of engines through 180°

D. Shunting wagons in yards

Answer: C

76. Minimum gradient in station yards is generally limited to

A. 1 in 1000

B. 1 in 750

C. 1 in 500

D. Zero

Answer: D

77. The formation width for a single line meter gauge track in embankment as adopted on Indian Railways is

A. 4.27 m

B. 4.88 m

C. 5.49 m

D. 6.10 m

Answer: B

78. If L1 and L2 are actual and theoretical lengths of a tongue rail, d is heel divergence and t is thickness of tongue rail at toe, the switch angle α is

A. sinˉ1 (d – t/L1)

B. tanˉ1 (d – t/L1)

C. sinˉ1 (d – t/L2)

D. tanˉ1 (d – t/L2)

Answer: A

79. If a is average number of peaks more than 10 mm of unevenness per kilometre, b is average number peaks more than 6 mm for gauge variation per kilometre and c is average number of peaks more than 2 mm twist per metre, then composite current recording index (Ic), as recommended by Indian Northern Railways, is

A. Ic = 10 – a – b – c/4

B. Ic = 20 – a – b – c/4

C. Ic = 30 – a – b – c/4

D. Ic = 40 – a – b – c/4

Answer: D

80. Minimum depth of ballast cushion for a Broad Gauge wooden sleeper of size 275 × 25 × 13 cm with 75 cm sleeper spacing is

A. 15 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 25 cm

D. 30 cm

Answer: C

81. On a straight railway track, absolute levels at point A on two rails are 100.550 m and 100.530 m and the absolute levels at point B 100 m apart are 100.585 m and 100.515 m respectively, the value of twist of rails per metre run, is

A. 0.4 mm

B. 0.5 mm

C. 0.7 mm

D. 0.8 mm

Answer: B

82. If D is the distance between the parallel sidings and α is the angle of crossing, the distance between the noses of crossing measured parallel to the main track, is

A. D tan α

B. D sec α

C. D cosec α

D. D cot α

Answer: C

83. The sleepers resting directly on girder are fastened to the top flange of girder by

A. Hook bolts

B. Dog spikes

C. Fang bolts

D. Rail screws

Answer: A

84. The sleepers which satisfy the requirements of an ideal sleeper, are

A. Cast iron sleepers

B. R.C.C. sleepers

C. Steel sleepers

D. Wooden sleepers

Answer: D

85. The side of a rail diamond may be obtained by dividing the gauge of track by

A. Sine of acute crossing

B. Cosine of acute crossing

C. Tangent of acute crossing

D. Cotangent of acute crossing

Answer: A

86. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge and Meter Gauge are respectively

A. 12 m and 12 m

B. 12 m and 13 m

C. 13 m and 12 m

D. 13 m and 13 m

Answer: C

87. Coning of wheels is provided

A. To check lateral movement of wheels

B. To avoid damage to inner faces of rails

C. To avoid discomfort to passengers

D. All the above

Answer: D

88. On Indian Railways, angle of crossing between gauge faces of Vee, is generally calculated by

A. Cole’s method

B. Centre line method

C. Isosceles triangle method

D. Both (a) and (b)

Answer: A

89. Which of the following factors govern the choice of the gauge?
(i) Volume and nature of traffic
(ii) Speed of train
(iii) Physical features of the country
The correct answer is

A. Only (i)

B. Both (i) and (ii)

C. Both (ii) and (iii)

D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: D

90. Ballast packed below and around the sleepers to transfer the load from sleepers to formation, generally consists of

A. Broken stones

B. Gravels

C. Moorum

D. All the above

Answer: D

91. On Indian Railways, the approximate weight of a rail section is determined from the formula

A. Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/10

B. Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/410

C. Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/510

D. Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/610

Answer: C

92. The maximum degree of curvature for Meter Gauge is limited to

A. 10°

B. 16°

C. 30°

D. 40°

Answer: B

93. The grade compensation on B.G. tracks on Indian Railways, is

A. 0.02 %

B. 0.03 %

C. 0.04 %

D. 0.05 %

Answer: C

94. The factor for deciding the type of sleeper, is

A. Easy fixing and removal of rails

B. Provision of sufficient bearing area for rails

C. Initial and maintenance costs

D. All the above

Answer: D

95. Number of keys used in CST-9 sleeper is

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. None of the above

Answer: A

96. Wheels of a rolling stock are provided flanges on

A. Outer side

B. Inner side

C. Both sides

D. Neither side

Answer: B

97. For inspection and packing of ballast, each pot sleeper is provided with

A. One hole

B. Two holes

C. Three holes

D. Four holes

Answer: B

98. The compensation for curvature on gradient for Meter Gauge is given by

A. 70/R

B. 52.5/R

C. 35/R

D. 105/R

Where ‘R’ is radius of curve

Answer: B

99. To design a cross-over between parallel tracks, the required components are:

A. Two switch points, two acute angle crossings and two check rails

B. Two switch points, two acute angle crossings and four check rails

C. Two switch points, two acute angle crossings and six check rails

D. None of these

100. The standard width of ballast for M.G. track in Indian Railways, is kept

A. 3.35 m

B. 3.53 m

C. 2.30 m

D. 2.50 m

Answer: C

101. The correct relation between curve lead (CL), switch lead (SL) and lead of crossing (L) is given by

A. CL = L – SL

B. L = CL – SL

C. SL = L + CL

D. L = (CL + SL)/2

Answer: B

102. Pot sleepers are in the form of

A. A number of bowls connected together with a tie bar

B. Two bowls placed under each rail and connected together with a tie bar

C. Two bowls placed under two rails and the one between the rails

D. None of these

Answer: B

103. Bending of rail ends due to loose packing under a joint and loose fish Bolts, is known

A. Buckling

B. Hogging

C. Creeping

D. None of these

Answer: B

104. In a shunting signal if the red band is inclined at 45° it indicates

A. Stop

B. Proceed

C. Proceed cautiously

D. None of the above

Answer: B

105. If D is distance between centres of two parallel track of gauge G, then, total length of cross-over (from the point of commencement to the point of termination) with an intermediate straight portion and N crossing, is given by

A. DN + G [N + √(1 + N2)]

B. DN + G [2N + √(1 + N2)]

C. DN + G [3N + √(1 + N2)]

D. DN + G [4N + √(1 +N2)]

Answer: C

106. Rail tops of a track are placed

A. Horizontal

B. At an inward slope of 1 in 20

C. At an outward slope of 1 in 20

D. At an outward slope of 1 in 30

Answer: B

107. A train is hauled by 2-8-2 locomotive with 22.5 tonnes and on each driving axle. Assuming the coefficient of rail-wheel friction to be 0.25, what would be the hauling capacity of the locomotive?

A. 15.0 tonnes

B. 22.5 tonnes

C. 45.0 tonnes

D. 90.0 tonnes

Answer: B

108. The type of switch generally used for B.G. and M.G. tracks, is

A. Articulated

B. Undercut

C. Over riding

D. Straight cut

Answer: C

109. For an effective administration, Indian railway system has been divided into

A. Four railway zones

B. Six railway zones

C. Seven railway zones

D. Nine railway zones

Answer: D

110. If ‘A’ is the angle formed by two gauge faces, the crossing number will be

A. tan A

B. cot A

C. sec A

D. A rad

Answer: B

111. Heel divergency, the distance between the running faces of stock rail and gauge face of tongue rail, as recommended for Indian B.G. tracks, is

A. 100 mm

B. 119 mm

C. 125 mm

D. 135 mm

Answer: D

112. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Ends of adjoining rails should be in true alignment

B. Rail joints should be as strong as the rail section itself

C. Rail joints should be elastic laterally as well as vertically

D. All the above

Answer: D

113. Tensile strength of steel used in rails should not be less than

A. 450 MPa

B. 500 MPa

C. 700 MPa

D. 850 MPa

Answer: C

114. On Indian Railways standard length of rails for B.G. track, is

A. 33 ft (10.06 m)

B. 36 ft (10.97 m)

C. 39 ft (11.89 m)

D. 42 ft (12.8 m)

Answer: D

115. Wing rails are provided

A. Near tongue rails

B. Near check rails

C. Near stock rails

D. In crossing

Answer: D

116. The side slope of embankments for a railway track is generally taken as

A. 1 : 1

B. 1.5 : 1

C. 2 : 1

D. 1 : 2

Answer: C

117. If S and H are strength and hardness index of a timber at 12% moisture content, the composite sleeper index, is

A. (H + 10S)/20

B. (S + 10H)/20

C. (20S + H)/10

D. (S + 20H)/10

Answer: B

118. If D is the distance between parallel tracks G is the gauge and α is angle of crossings, the distance between theoretical noses of two crossings measured parallel to tracks, is

A. (D – G – G sec α) cot α

B. (D – G + G sec α) cot α

C. (D – G – G sec α) tan α

D. (D + G + G sec α) cot α

Answer: A

119. Minimum composite sleeper index prescribed on Indian Railways for a track sleeper is

A. 552

B. 783

C. 1352

D. 1455

Answer: B

120. To achieve best performance, the type of switch preferred to, is

A. Undercut switch

B. Straight-cut switch

C. Overriding switch

D. Both (a) and (b)

Answer: C

121. On B.G. tracks the distance of outer signal from station limit is kept

A. 510 m

B. 520 m

C. 530 m

D. 540 m

Answer: D

122. The limiting value of cant deficiency for Meter Gauge routes is

A. 40 mm

B. 50 mm

C. 75 mm

D. 100 mm

Answer: B

123. The weight of the rails depends upon

A. Gauge of the tracks

B. Speed of trains

C. Spacing of sleepers

D. All the above

Answer: D

124. The main advantage of a long rail over short one, is

A. It requires less number of rail fastenings

B. It provides smooth running of trains

C. It involves less maintenance cost

D. All the above

Answer: D

125. In a scissors crossover, the crossings provided are
(i) 2 obtuse angle crossings
(ii) 4 obtuse angle crossings
(iii) 4 acute angle crossings
(iv) 6 acute angle crossings
The correct answer is

A. (i) and (iii)

B. (i)and(iv)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (ii) and (iv)

Answer: B

126. Rail section first designed on Indian railways, was

A. Double headed

B. Bull headed

C. Flat footed

D. (a) and (b) simultaneously

Answer: A

127. The lengths of the standard crossings in India for Broad gauge and Metre gauge tracks is same for

A. 1 in 8½ B.G. and, in 12 M.G.

B. 1 in 12 B.G. and, 1 in 16 M.G.

C. 1 in 12 B.G. and 1 in 8½ M.G.

D. 1 in 16 B.G. and 1 in 12 M.G.

Answer: A

128. For the purpose of track maintenance, the number of turn out equivalent to one track km is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 10

Answer: D

129. Dimensions of a plate girder are:

A. 851 mm × 851 mm

B. 255 mm × 254 mm

C. 851 mm × 254 mm

D. 551 mm × 254 mm

Answer: C

130. The check rails are placed opposite the crossing so that

A. It is symmetrically placed opposite nose of crossing

B. Its one-third length is ahead of the nose of crossing

C. Its two-third length is ahead of the nose of crossing

D. Its three fourth length is ahead of the nose of crossing

Answer: C

131. Consider the following surveys.
1. Reconnaissance survey
2. Preliminary survey
3. Traffic survey
4. Location survey
The correct sequence in which these surveys are conducted before the alignment of a track is finalized is

A. 1, 3, 2, 4

B. 1, 3, 4, 2

C. 3, 1, 4, 2

D. 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: D

132. The difference in the lengths of two diagonals of a rail diamond is

A. (2G/sin α) × (cos α/2 + sin α/2)

B. (2G/sin α) × (cos α/2 – sin α/2)

C. (2G/sin α) × (sin α/2 – cos α/2)

D. (2G/sin α) × (tan α/2 – cot α/2)

Answer: A

133. Check rails are provided on inner side of inner rails if sharpness of a B.G. curve, is more than

A. 3°

B. 5°

C. 6°

D. 8°

Answer: D

134. Largest percentage of material in the rail is in its

A. Head

B. Web

C. Foot

D. Head and foot both

Answer: A

135. The spread between the point and splice rails at a distance of 4.25 m is 50 cm. The size of the crossing is

A. 1 in 6

B. 1 in 8½

C. 1 in 12

D. 1 in 16

Answer: B

136. Packing of ballast is done

A. Near the ends of sleepers

B. On the shoulders

C. Under sleepers

D. Between two rails

Answer: C

137. The total gap on both sides between the inside edges of wheel flanges and gauge faces of the rail is kept as

A. 10 mm

B. 13 mm

C. 16 mm

D. 19 mm

Answer: D

138. The rail section which is not used on Indian Broad Gauge tracks, is

A. 35 R

B. 40 R

C. 45 R

D. 55 R

Answer: B

139. In a diamond crossing, numbers of noses are

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Answer: D

140. Number of cotters used in CST-9 sleepers is

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Answer: C

141. In Indian railways, plate laying is usually done by

A. Side method

B. Telescopic method

C. American method

D. All the above

Answer: B

142. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The line which connects a number of parallel tracks, and also provides an access to main track, is called a gathering line

B. With a diagonal gathering line, the length of the siding decreases with increase of its distance from main track

C. To have sidings of same length, a diagonal line is laid at one end and a parallel gathering line at the other end

D. All the above

Answer: D

143. A Broad Gauge branch line takes off as a contrary flexure from a main line. If the super-elevation required for branch line is 10 mm and cant deficiency is 75 mm, the super-elevation to be actually provided on the branch line will be

A. 10 mm

B. 64 mm

C. 85 mm

D. 65 mm

Answer: D

144. The angle between the gauge faces of the stock rail and tongue rail, is called

A. Switch angle

B. Angle of crossing

C. Angle of turnout

D. None of these

Answer: A

145. In permanent way, ballast

A. Transfers load from sleepers to the formation

B. Provides an elastic bed to the track

C. Provides a drainage of track

D. All the above

Answer: D

146. Which of the following devices is used to transfer the wagons or locomotives to and from parallel tracks without any necessity of shunting?

A. Triangle

B. Turntable

C. Traverser

D. Scotch block

Answer: C

147. If absolute levels of rails at the consecutive axles A, B, and C separated by 1.8 metres are 100.505 m, 100.530 m, and 100.525 m respectively, the unevenness of rails, is

A. 0.065 m

B. 0.055 m

C. 0.045 m

D. 0.035 m

Answer: A

148. Spacing of sleepers

A. Throughout the length of a rail is kept uniform

B. Near rail joints, is kept closer

C. At the middle of rails, is kept closer

D. None of these

Answer: C

149. For a 8° curve track diverging from a main curve of 5° in an opposite direction in the layout of a broad gauge yard, the cant to be provided for the branch track for maximum speed of 45 km/h on the main line and ‘G’ = 1.676 m is (Permitted cant deficiency for the main line = 7.6 cm)

A. 0.168 cm

B. -0.168 cm

C. 7.432 cm

D. 7.768 cm

Answer: B

150. Distance between the inner rail and check rail provided on sharp curve, is

A. 40 mm

B. 42 mm

C. 44 mm

D. 46 mm

Answer: C

151. The load on each axle of a locomotive is 22 tonnes. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2, then the hauling capacity due to 3 pairs of driving wheels will be

A. 26.41

B. 19.81

C. 13.21

D. 6.61

Answer: C

152. 30 m long rails are used in

A. India

B. U.K.

C. Russia

D. U.S.A.

Answer: D

153. Overall depth of a dog spike, is

A. 120.6 mm

B. 155.90 mm

C. 135 mm

D. 150 mm

Answer: A

154. To prevent creep in rails, the steel sleepers are fixed with rails by clips, bolts and

A. One key

B. Two keys

C. Three keys

D. Four keys

Answer: D

155. 52 kg rails are mostly used in

A. Broad Gauge

B. Metre Gauge

C. Narrow Gauge

D. Both (A) and (B)

Answer: A

156. Safe speed (V) on a curve of radius 970 metres provided with two transition curves on Board Gauge track, is

A. 112 km/hour

B. 122 km/hour

C. 132 km/hour

D. 142 km/hour

157. Widening of gauge is provided if degree of the curve, is

A. 3° or less

B. 3° to 4½°

C. More than 4½°

D. None of these

Answer: C

158. The height of the rail for 52 kg rail section is

A. 143 mm

B. 156 mm

C. 172 mm

D. 129 mm

Answer: B

159. The life of a wooden sleeper depends upon

A. Quality of its timber

B. Ability to resist decay

C. Resistance to weathering

D. All the above

Answer: D

160. Anti-creep anchors are fixed to rails by

A. Wedging

B. Spring grip

C. Clamping

D. All the above

Answer: D

161. Sleeper density in India is normally kept as

A. (M + 2) to (M + 7)

B. M to (M + 2)

C. (M + 5) to (M + 10)

D. M

Where ‘M’ is the rail length in meters

Answer: A

162. Composite sleeper index determines

A. Number of sleepers per rail length

B. Suitability of wooden sleepers

C. Permissible stresses in steel sleepers

D. None of these

Answer: B

163. If G is gauge distance and a is crossing, the distance between the nose of acute crossing and nose of obtuse crossing of a rail diamond, measured along the rail not forming the diamond, is

A. G cot α

B. G tan α

C. G sin α

D. G cos α

Answer: A

164. Loose jaws of steel trough sleepers are made of

A. Cast steel

B. Mild steel

C. Cast iron

D. Spring steel

Answer: D

165. Regional Indian railways use different types of sleepers according to their

A. Availability

B. Economy

C. Suitability

D. All the above

Answer: D

166. In Indian railways, the ratio of axle load and weight of rail, is

A. 312

B. 412

C. 512

D. 600

Answer: C

167. Maximum value of ‘throw of switch’ for Broad Gauge track is

A. 89 mm

B. 95 mm

C. 100 mm

D. 115 mm

Answer: D

168. Top surface of steel sleepers, is

A. Kept level throughout

B. Provided a cant of 1 in 20 inward

C. Provided a cant of 1 in 20 outward

D. None of these

Answer: B

169. If D is the distance between the parallel sidings and β is the limiting angle of crossings, the distance between the noses of crossing measured parallel to the main track, is

A. D sin β

B. D cot β

C. D tan β

D. D sec β

Answer: B

170. Metal sleepers are superior to wooden sleepers with respect to

A. Cost

B. Life

C. Track circuiting

D. Fastening

171. Charles Blacker Vignoles invented the flat footed rails in

A. 1814

B. 1836

C. 1846

D. 1856

172. A triangle of railway consists of

A. Three turn outs

B. One turn out and two diamonds

C. Two turn outs and one split

D. One turn out, one split and one diamond

Answer: C

173. A treadle bar is used for

A. Interlocking points and signal

B. Setting points and crossings

C. Setting marshalling yard signals

D. Track maintenance

Answer: A

174. If L is length of a rail and R is the radius of a curve, the versine h for the curve, is

A. a = L/4R

B. a = L2/4R

C. h = L2/8R

D. h = L2/16R

Answer: C

175. For metal sleepers with rounded edges, maximum size of ballast, is

A. 50 mm

B. 40 mm

C. 30 mm

D. 25 cm

Answer: B

176. Head width of 52 kg rail section is

A. 61.9 mm

B. 66.7 mm

C. 67 mm

D. 72.33 mm

Answer: C

177. Rail joint supported on a single sleeper, is known

A. Suspended rail joint

B. Bridge rail joint

C. Supported rail joint

D. Square rail joint

Answer: C

178. Each block of a two-block concrete sleeper is

A. 722 mm × 295 mm × 271 mm and 215 kg in weight

B. 250 mm × 154 mm × 196 mm and 260 kg in weight

C. 525 mm × 350 mm × 275 mm and 280 kg in weight

D. None of these

Answer: A

179. The formation width for a double line Broad Gauge track in cutting (excluding drains) as adopted on Indian Railways is

A. 6.10 m

B. 8.84 m

C. 10.21 m

D. 10.82 m

Answer: C

180. Arrangement made to divert the trains from one track to another, is known as

A. Railway point

B. Railway crossing

C. Turnout

D. Railway junction

Answer: C

181. The standard dimensions of a wooden sleeper for a B.G. railway track are

A. 2.74 m × 25 cm × 13 cm

B. 1.83 m × 20 cm × 11 cm

C. 1.52 m × 15 cm × 10 cm

D. 1.75 cm × 20 cm × 12 cm

Answer: A

182. The limiting value of cant excess for Broad Gauge is

A. 55 mm

B. 65 mm

C. 75 mm

D. 100 mm

Answer: C

183. Indian Railways detects the rail flow by

A. Mitsubishi Rail flow detector

B. Soni Rail flow detector

C. Audi-gauge Rail flow detector

D. Kraut Kramer Rail flow detector

Answer: D

184. The gradient on which an additional engine is required to negotiate the gradient, is called

A. Momentum gradient

B. Pusher gradient

C. Ruling gradient

D. Steep gradient

Answer: B

185. One degree of curve is equivalent to

A. 1600/R

B. 1700/R

C. 1750/R

D. 1850/R

Where ‘R’ is the radius of curve in meters

Answer: C

186. If D is the distance between the parallel sidings and α is the angle of crossing, the distance between the noses of crossing measured parallel to the gathering line, is

A. D tan α

B. D cot α

C. D sin α

D. D cos α

Answer: B

187. If D is distance between centres of two parallel tracks of gauge G with entire curved leads and equal angles of crossing, total length of crossover, is

A. √[D (4R – 2G – D)]

B. √[D (3R – 2G -D)]

C. √[D (3R + 2G – D)]

D. √[D (4 + 2G – D)]

Answer: A

188. Which of the following mechanical devices is used to ensure that route cannot be changed while the train is on the point even after putting back the signal?

A. Detectors

B. Point lock

C. Lock bar

D. Stretcher bar

Answer: C

189. Pot sleepers are used if degree of the curve does not exceed

A. 4°

B. 5°

C. 6°

D. 7°

Answer: A

190. Burnettising is done for the preservation of

A. Wooden sleepers

B. Rails

C. Ballast

D. None of these

Answer: A

191. Consider the following statements:
Automatic signalling system results in
1. Greater risk
2. Higher efficiency
3. Avoidance of block instruments
4. Higher operating cost
Of these statements

A. 1 and 2 are correct

B. 3 and 4 are correct

C. 1 and 4 are correct

D. 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: D

192. A kink is made in stock rails, ahead of the toe of switch at a distance of

A. 10 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 20 cm

D. 30 cm

Answer: B

193. Rails are fixed on steel sleepers

A. By bearing plates

B. By dog spikes

C. By keys in lugs or jaws

D. None of these

Answer: C

194. Largest dimension of a rail is its

A. Height

B. Foot width

C. Head width

D. Any of the above

Answer: A

195. The rail section which is not used on Indian metre gauge tracks, is

A. 25 R

B. 30 R

C. 35 R

D. 40 R

Answer: D

196. Advantage of automatic signalling, is:

A. Increased safety

B. Reduction in delays

C. Increase in track capacity

D. All the above

Answer: D

197. For developing thinly populated areas, the correct choice of gauge is

A. Broad Gauge

B. Meter Gauge

C. Narrow Gauge

D. Any of the above

Answer: C

198. Coning of wheels

A. Prevent lateral movement of wheels

B. Provide smooth running of trains

C. Avoid excessive wear of inner faces of rail

D. All the above

Answer: D

199. An extra 7.5 cm ballast width is not provided on outer side on a curve, if its degree is

A. 6°

B. 5°

C. 4°

D. 3°

Answer: D

200. Standard size of wooden sleeper for Broad Gauge track is

A. 275 × 25 × 13 cm

B. 180 × 20 × 11.5 cm

C. 225 × 23 × 13 cm

D. 250 × 26 × 12 cm

Answer: A

201. By interchanging gibs and cotters of a pot sleeper, gauge may be slackened by

A. 1.2 mm

B. 2.2 mm

C. 3.2 mm

D. 4.2 mm

Answer: C

202. The main function of sleepers, is

A. To support rails

B. To hold rails at correct gauge

C. To distribute load from the rails to ballast

D. All the above

Answer: D

203. The limiting value of cant gradient for all gauges is

A. 1 in 360

B. 1 in 720

C. 1 in 1000

D. 1 in 1200

Answer: B

204. The spike commonly used to fix rails to wooden sleepers in Indian railways, is

A. Dog spike

B. Screw spike

C. Round spike

D. All the above

Answer: D

205. Track construction involves preparation of

A. Sub-grade

B. Plate laying

C. Ballasting

D. All the above

Answer: D

206. Study the following statements regarding creep.
(i) Creep is greater on curves than on tangent railway track,
(ii) Creep in new rails is more than that in old rails,
(iii) Creep is more on steep gradients than on level track.
The correct answer is

A. Only (i)

B. (i) and (ii)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: B

207. According to Indian Railway Board, no diamond crossing should be flatter than

A. 1 in 6

B. 1 in 8½

C. 1 in 12

D. 1 in 16

Answer: B

208. Smith diamond is provided if the angle of diamond is less than

A. 2°

B. 4°

C. 6°

D. 8°

Answer: C

209. 60 R rails are mostly used in

A. Broad Gauge

B. Metre Gauge

C. Narrow Gauge

D. None of the above

Answer: B

210. A welded rail joint is generally

A. Supported on a sleeper

B. Supported on a metal plate

C. Suspended

D. None of these

Answer: C

211. If the standard length of a crossing is 480 cm, the number of crossing is

A. 1 in 8½ of B.G.

B. 1 in 8½ of M.G.

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of these

Answer: C

212. Width of ballast section for Broad Gauge is

A. 1.83 m

B. 2.25 m

C. 3.35 m

D. 4.30 m

Answer: C

213. Minimum length of a transition curve required for

A. 2° curves for a maximum permissible speed of 135 km/hr, is 220 metres

B. 4° curves for a maximum permissible speed of 95 km/hr, is 220 metres

C. 6° curves for a maximum permissible speed of 80 km/hr, is 220 metres

D. All the above

Answer: D

214. For points and crossings, maximum size of ballast, is

A. 50 mm

B. 40 mm

C. 30 mm

D. 25 mm

Answer: D

215. Which of the following methods of designation of crossing is mostly used in India?

A. Center line method

B. Right angle method

C. Isosceles angle method

D. None of the above

Answer: B

216. For calculating the length of curve lead (C.L.), the correct formula is

A. C.L. = G. cot α/2

B. C.L. = √(2IG)

C. C.L. = 2 GN

D. All the above

Answer: D

217. In a railway track, permissible gauge with tolerance under loaded condition, is

A. G + 0.1 mm

B. G + 1.5 mm

C. G – 1.0 mm

D. G – 1.5 mm

Answer: B

218. Yellow light-hand signal indicates

A. Stop

B. Proceed

C. Proceed cautiously

D. None of the above

Answer: C

219. The first Indian railway was laid in

A. 1775

B. 1804

C. 1825

D. 1853

Answer: D

220. Sand may be used as ballast for

A. Wooden sleepers

B. Steel sleepers

C. Cast iron sleepers

D. All the above

Answer: C

221. What will be the curve lead for a 1 in 8.5 turnout taking off from a straight broad gauge track?

A. 28.49 m

B. 21.04 m

C. 14.24 m

D. 7.45 m

Answer: A

222. A scissors cross-over consists of

A. Two pairs of points, four acute angle crossings and two obtuse angle crossings

B. Four pairs of points, four acute angle crossings and four obtuse angle crossings

C. Four pairs of points, six acute angle crossings and two obtuse angle crossings

D. Two pairs of points, six acute angle crossings and four obtuse angle crossings

Answer: C

223. The effective bearing area of all types of sleepers, is

A. 0.40 m2

B. 0.42 m2

C. 0.44 m2

D. 0.46 m2

Answer: D

224. The cross-sectional area of 52 kg flat footed rail is

A. 6155 mm2

B. 6615 mm2

C. 7235 mm2

D. 7825 mm2

Answer: B

225. If α is switch angle and R is radius of the turnout, the length of the tongue rail, is

A. R sin α

B. R tan α

C. R sin α/2

D. R tan α/2

Answer: D

226. Steel sleepers are

A. Rectangular is cross section throughout

B. Hollow circular pipes

C. 6 mm thick steel sheets with ends bent down

D. 6 mm thick steel sheets with ends bent up

Answer: C

227. Number of dog spikes normally used per rail seat on curved track is

A. One on either side

B. Two outside and one inside

C. One outside and two inside

D. Two outside and two inside

Answer: B

228. If sleeper density is M + 7 for 13 m rails, the minimum depth of ballast under wooden sleepers (25 cm × 13 cm), is

A. 15 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 25 cm

D. 30 cm

Answer: B

229. Minimum composite sleeper index for wooden sleepers used over bridge girders, is

A. 1455

B. 1355

C. 1255

D. 1155

Answer: A

230. The shape of transition curve used by Indian Railways is

A. Cubic parabola

B. Spiral

C. Sine curve

D. Lemniscates of Bernoulli

Answer: A

231. Gauge of a permanent way, is

A. Minimum distance between running faces of rails

B. Minimum distance between outer faces of rails

C. Distance between centres of rails

D. Width of formation

Answer: A

232. If w is width of sleepers, s is sleeper spacing and d is depth of ballast then

A. d = (s – w)/2

B. d = (s – w)/3

C. d = (s – w)/4

D. d = (s – w)/5

Answer: A

233. The reception signal is
(i) Outer signal
(ii) Home signal
(iii) Starter
(iv) Advanced starter
The correct answer is

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iii)

C. (iii) and (iv)

D. (i) and (iv)

Answer: A

234. The standard width of ballast for B.G. Track in Indian Railways, is kept

A. 3.35 m

B. 3.53 m

C. 2.35 m

D. 2.53 m

Answer: A

235. In India, metre gauge permanent way was adopted in

A. 1855

B. 1860

C. 1866

D. 1871

Answer: D

236. Which one of the following rail failures is caused by loose fish bolts at expansion joints?

A. Crushed head

B. Angular break

C. Split head

D. Transverse fissures

Answer: A

237. Best wood for wooden sleepers is

A. Chir

B. Deodar

C. Sal

D. Teak

Answer: D

238. Bull headed rails are generally provided on

A. Points and crossing

B. Straight tangents

C. Curved tracks

D. Metre gauge tracks

Answer: A

239. The type of bearing plate used in all joints and on curves to give better bearing area to the rails is

A. Flat mild steel bearing plate

B. Mild steel canted bearing plate

C. Cast iron anti-creep bearing plate

D. None of the above

Answer: B

240. For holding a rail in position, no chairs are used for

A. Flat footed rails

B. Bull headed rails

C. Double headed rails

D. Both (a) and (b)

Answer: A

241. Cast iron sleeper, is

A. Pot sleeper

B. Box sleeper

C. Duplex sleeper

D. All the above

Answer: D

242. Gauge is the distance between

A. Center to center of rails

B. Running faces of rails

C. Outer faces of rails

D. None of the above

Answer: B

243. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Rails are directly laid over hard wooden sleepers and fixed with spikes

B. Adzing is done on hard wooden sleepers

C. Bearing plates are used on soft wooden sleepers

D. All the above

Answer: D

244. Rail section is generally designated by its

A. Total weight

B. Total length

C. Weight per metre length

D. Area of its cross-section

Answer: C

245. At points and crossings, the total number of sleepers for 1 in 12 turnouts in Broad Gauge is

A. 51

B. 62

C. 70

D. 78

Answer: C

246. The quantity of stone ballast required per metre tangent length, is

A. 1.15 m3

B. 1.14 m3

C. 1.13 m3

D. 1.11 m3

Answer: D

247. Weight and cross section of the rails are decided on

A. Gauge of tracks

B. Speed of trains

C. Spacing of sleepers

D. All the above

Answer: D

248. Number of switches provided on a Gaunt-letted track is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. None of the above

Answer: D

249. If S is cant deficiency in centimetres and V is maximum permissible speed in kmph, the maximum length of transition curves, is

A. SV/13.6

B. SV/19.8

C. SV/127

D. SV/16.8

Answer: A

250. A train is hauled by 4-8-2 locomotive. The number of driving wheels in this locomotive is

A. 4

B. 8

C. 12

D. 14

Answer: B

251. Maximum cant deficiency prescribed on Indian Board Gauge Railways, is

A. 40 mm

B. 50 mm

C. 75 mm

D. 100 mm

Answer: D

252. Vertical curves are provided where algebraic difference between grades is equal to or

A. Less than 2 mm/m

B. More than 2 mm/m

C. Less than 4 mm/m

D. More than 4 mm/m

Answer: D

253. A scissors cross over consists of one diamond and

A. One turn out

B. Two turn outs

C. Three turn outs

D. Four turn outs

Answer: D

254. The slipping of driving wheels of locomotives on the rail surface causes

A. Wheel burns

B. Hogging of rails

C. Scabbing of rails

D. Corrugation of rails

Answer: A

255. Wooden sleepers used on the girders of bridges, are generally made of

A. Sal

B. Chir

C. Teak

D. Deodar

Answer: C

256. To ensure exact gauge, the gauge tie plates are provided at

A. Toe of the switch

B. Nose of crossing

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Answer: C

257. If G is gauge is metres, V is speed of trains in km/hour and R is radius of a curve in metres, the equilibrium super elevation is

A. GV2/R

B. GV2/17R

C. GV2/127R

D. GV2/130R

Answer: C

258. The height of the center of arm of a semaphore signal above the ground is

A. 5.5 m

B. 6.5 m

C. 7.5 m

D. 8.5 m

Answer: C

259. A wing rail is renewed or reconditioned if its maximum vertical wear is

A. 9.5 m

B. 7.5 m

C. 5.5 m

D. 5.0 m

Answer: A

260. The steepest gradient permissible on a 2.5° curve for Broad Gauge line having ruling gradient of 1 in 200 is

A. 1 in 250

B. 1 in 222

C. 1 in 235

D. 1 in 275

Answer: A

261. The tread of wheels is provided an outward slope of

A. 1 in 10

B. 1 in 15

C. 1 in 20

D. 1 in 25

Answer: C

262. When the rail ends rest on a joint sleeper, the joint is termed as

A. Supported rail joint

B. Suspended rail joint

C. Bridge joint

D. Base joint

Answer: A

263. To prevent percolation of water into formation, moorum is used as a blanket for

A. Black cotton soil

B. Sandy soil

C. Clayey soil

D. All the above

Answer: A

264. Number of fish bolts per fish plate is

A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Answer: B

265. For flat bottom sleepers, maximum size of ballast, is

A. 50 mm

B. 40 mm

C. 33 mm

D. 25 mm

Answer: A

266. Which of the following turnouts is most commonly used for goods train on Indian Railways?

A. 1 in 8’/2

B. 1 in 12

C. 1 in 16

D. 1 in 20

Answer: A

267. On Indian Railways standard length of rails for M.G. track, is

A. 33 ft (10.06 m)

B. 36 ft (10.97 m)

C. 39 ft (11.89 m)

D. 42 ft (12.8 m)

Answer: C

268. The nominal size of ballast used for points and crossings is

A. 25 mm

B. 40 mm

C. 50 mm

D. 10 mm

Answer: A

269. The overall length of a turn out is the distance between the end of stock rail and

A. Heel of crossing

B. Actual nose of crossing

C. Throat of crossing

D. Toe of crossing

Answer: A

270. The width of foot for 90 R rail section is

A. 100 mm

B. 122.2 mm

C. 136.5 mm

D. 146.0 mm

Answer: C

271. Monnier, the inventor of R.C.C., suggested the introduction of reinforced cement concert sleepers for the railways in

A. 1857

B. 1867

C. 1877

D. 1887

Answer: C

272. Switch angle depends on
(i) Heel divergence
(ii) Length of tongue rail
(iii) Flange-way clearance
(iv) Throw of switch
The correct answer is

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iii)

C. (iii) and (iv)

D. (i) and (iv)

Answer: A

273. Minimum packing space provided between two sleepers, is between

A. 20 to 25 cm

B. 25 to 30 cm

C. 30 to 35 cm

D. 35 to 40 cm

Answer: C

274. Dog spikes are used for fixing rail to the

A. Wooden sleepers

B. CST-9 sleepers

C. Steel trough sleepers

D. Concrete sleepers

Answer: A

275. Distance between inner faces of the flanges, is kept

A. Equal to the gauge distance

B. Slightly less than the gauge distance

C. Slightly more than the gauge distance

D. None of these

Answer: B

276. Anti-creep bearing plates are provided on

A. Bridges and approaches

B. Joints

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Answer: D

277. A mono-block sleeper has

A. Square section

B. Rectangular section

C. Trapezoidal section

D. Semi-circular section

Answer: C

278. The distance through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch for movement of trains is called

A. Flange-way clearance

B. Heel divergence

C. Throw of the switch

D. None of the above

Answer: C

279. Coal ash (or cinder) is used in initial stages of a new construction of railway for

A. Wooden sleepers

B. Steel sleepers

C. Cast iron sleepers

D. None of these

Answer: A

280. Normally the limiting value of cant is

A. G/8

B. G/10

C. G/12

D. G/15

Where ‘G’ is the gauge

Answer: B

281. Width of the top portion of a flat footed, rail, is

A. 69.85 mm

B. 63.50 mm

C. 66.77 mm

D. 136.52 mm

Answer: C

282. Rails are bent to correct curvature if the degree of curve, is more than

A. 1°

B. 2°

C. 3°

D. 4°

Answer: D

283. Minimum depth of ballast prescribed of B.G. trunk lines of Indian Railways, is

A. 20 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 25 cm

D. 30 cm

Answer: C

284. Boxing of ballast is done

A. Under rails

B. At the rails

C. In between two rails

D. In between two sleepers

Answer: B

285. Maximum wheel base distance provided on Indian B.G. tracks, is

A. 4.096 m

B. 5.096 m

C. 6.096 m

D. 7.096 m

Answer: C

RAILWAY ENGINEERING Objective Questions and Answers pdf free download Online Quiz Test

[PDF Notes] Essay on Critical Appraisal ofInternational Monetary fund

The IMF has been quite successful and its working quite satisfactory in many fields as discussed below:

1. Expansion of Fund:

Since its inception, the IMF has progressed greatly both in membership and resources. Initially, the Fund started with only 30 members with quotas totaling $ 7,000 million.

In April 1986, the membership has increased to 149 quotas aggregating about SDR 90 billion. During 1948 to 1986, the member countries have purchased various currencies from the Fund equal to SDR 97 billion.

2. Provision of Credit:

The performance of the IMF has also been satisfactory in respect of the provision of financial assistance to its member countries. The total outstanding credit increased from SDR 8038 million 1980 to SDR 34640 million in 1986.

3. Exchange Stability:

The IMF has been making sincere efforts to promote exchange stability among the member countries. The exchange stability as experienced during the IMF era is definitely superior to the chaotic condition of fluctuating exchange rates.

Under the IMF system, exchange stability does not mean rigidity of exchange rates. The IMF aims at combing the merits of stability with flexibility in the exchange management.

4. Expansion of World Trade:

The IMF has contributed to the expansion of international trade in the following ways: (a) By providing credit facilities to member countries, the Fund has reduced the necessity of imposing trade and exchange controls, (b) The IMF helps the deficit countries to correct their disequilibrium in balance of payments, (c) The IMF also promotes world trade by providing facilities for multilateral trade and payments.

5. Machinery for Consolation:

The IMF machinery set up for providing expert guidance to the member countries in monetary matters has proved very useful. The fiscal and financial policies of the member countries are formulated keeping in view the guidelines suggested by the Fund.

6. Increase in International Liquidity:

With the establishment of the scheme of SDRs. the IMF has increased the international liquidity. It provides credit to the needy countries through its two accounts, i.e. the General Account and the Special Drawing Account.

7. Reform of International Monetary System:

The IMF attempts to reform international monetary system. In July 1972, the IMF set up the Committee on Reform of the International Monetary System and Related Issues, known as the Committee of Twenty, which submitted its report in June 1974 and its recommendations were implemented.

In January 1976, the Ministerial Committee of the Board of Governors of the IMF agreed to adopt a package of measures to reform the world’s monetary system, including the steps to help the developing countries. The main features of the agreement were as follows:

(i) Members were allowed be borrow 45% more from the Fund through its normal credit channels.

(ii) The IMF was to set up a special Trust Fund to help poor countries (i.e., the countries with per capita income of less than $ 360)

(iii) The IMF has sold one-sixth of its holding of gold i.e. 25 million ounces). The profit of $ 4.6 billion was credited into the Trust Fund.

(iv) The Ministerial Committee had given formal sanction to the floating of currencies as a legal system, specifying that no currency value need be set in terms of gold.

(v) Paper gold in the form of SDRs, had been recognised as the principal reserve asset in the international monetary system.

400+ TOP Highway Engineering MCQs and Answers Quiz

HIGHWAY Engineering Multiple Choice Questions Pdf 

1. Group index method of design of flexible pavement is

A. A theoretical method

B. An empirical method based on physical properties of sub-grade soil

C. An empirical method based on strength characteristics of sub-grade soil

D. A semi empirical method

Answer: B

2. Which of the following is considered to be the highest quality construction in the group of black top pavements?

A. Mastic asphalt

B. Sheet asphalt

C. Bituminous carpet

D. Bituminous concrete

Answer: D

3. Los Angeles testing machine is used to conduct

A. Abrasion test

B. Impact test

C. Attrition test

D. Crushing strength test

Answer: A

4. When the width of car parking space and width of street are limited, generally preferred parking system is

A. Parallel parking

B. 45° angle parking

C. 65° angle parking

D. 90° angle parking

Answer: A

5. When the bituminous surfacing is done on already existing black top road or over existing cement concrete road, the type of treatment given is

A. Seal coat

B. Tack coat

C. Prime coat

D. Spray of emulsion

Answer: B

6. In the penetration macadam construction, the bitumen is

A. Sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted

B. Premixed with aggregates and then spread

C. Sprayed before the aggregates are spread and compacted

D. None of the above

Answer: A

7. The drain which is provided parallel to roadway to intercept and divert the water from hill slopes is known as

A. Sloping drain

B. Catch-water drain

C. Side drain

D. Cross drain

Answer: B

8. The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to

A. Relieve warping stresses

B. Relieve shrinkage stresses

C. Resist stresses due to expansion

D. Allow free expansion

Answer: D

9. Select the correct statement.

A. More the value of group index, less thickness of pavement will be required

B. More the value of CBR, greater thickness of pavement will be required

C. Minimum and maximum values of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively

D. All of the above

Answer: C

10. Penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its

A. Grade

B. Viscosity

C. Ductility

D. Temperature susceptibility

Answer: A

Highway Engineering Mcqs

11. In soils having same values of plasticity index, if liquid limit is increased, then

A. Compressibility and permeability decrease and dry strength increases

B. Compressibility, permeability and dry strength decrease

C. Compressibility, permeability and dry strength increase

D. Compressibility and permeability increase and dry strength decreases

Answer: D

12. The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road construction is

A. 0.4 %

B. 0.6 %

C. 0.8 %

D. 1.0 %

Answer: B

13. The critical combination of stresses for corner region in cement concrete roads is

A. Load stress + warping stress frictional stress

B. Load stress + warping stress + frictional stress

C. Load stress + warping stress

D. Load stress + frictional stress

Answer: C

14. In highway construction, rolling starts from

A. Sides and proceed to center

B. Center and proceed to sides

C. One side and proceed to other side

D. Any of the above

Answer: A

15. The most economical lighting layout which is suitable for narrow roads is

A. Single side lighting

B. Staggered system

C. Central lighting system

D. None of the above

Answer: A

16. The ideal shape of a transition curve, is

A. Clothoid

B. Cubic spiral

C. Cubic parabola

D. Lamniscate

Answer: A

17. The full width of land acquired before finalizing a highway, alignment is known

A. Width of formation

B. Right of way

C. Carriage way

D. Roadway

Answer: B

18. Tyre pressure influences the

A. Total depth of pavement

B. Quality of surface course

C. Both the above

D. None of the above

Answer: B

19. Any gradient on a road is said to be an exceptional gradient, if it is

A. More than ruling gradient

B. Less than average gradient

C. More than floating gradient

D. Less than minimum gradient or more than maximum gradient

Answer: D

20. During last phase of the reconnaissance, details of the grade line is recorded on 2 metre poles to indicate

A. Direction of the proposed alignment

B. Distance between the previous and forward pegs

C. Relative elevations of pegs

D. All the above

Answer: D

21. The most suitable equipment for compacting clayey soils is a

A. Smooth wheeled roller

B. Pneumatic tyred roller

C. Sheep foot roller

D. Vibrator

Answer: C

22. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Seasonal cycle of traffic volume during April and November, is usually near the annual average

B. Mid-winter seasonal cycle of traffic is least

C. Mid-summer seasonal cycle of traffic is highest

D. All the above

Answer: D
23. Three points A, B and C 500 m apart on a straight road have 500 m, 505 m and 510 m as their reduced levels. The road is said to have

A. No gradient between A and C

B. A positive gradient between A and C

C. A negative gradient between A and C

D. A negative gradient between A and B

Answer: D

24. Select the correct statement.

A. Quantity of binder required for tack coat is less than that required for prime coat

B. Prime coat treatment is given for plugging the voids in water bound macadam during bituminous road construction

C. Seal coat is the final coat over certain previous bituminous pavements

D. A bitumen primer is a high viscosity cutback

Answer: D

25. The minimum design speed of various types of highways in plain terrain is the same as the ruling design speed of

A. Rolling terrain

B. Mountainous terrain

C. Steep terrain

D. None of these

Answer: A

26. Excessive camber on pavements may cause

A. Deterioration of central portion

B. Slip of the speedy vehicles towards the edges

C. Erosion of the berms

D. All the above

Answer: D

27. In hill roads the side drains arc provided

A. Only on the hill side of road

B. Only on the opposite side of hill

C. On both sides of road

D. None of the above

Answer: A

28. Selection of the routes, of highways depends upon

A. Feasibility of attaining ruling gradient

B. Avoidance of cutting hard rocks

C. Minimum number of bridges

D. All the above

Answer: D

29. Maximum number of vehicles that can pass a given point on a lane during one hour without creating unreasonable delay, is known as

A. Traffic density of lane

B. Basic capacity of lane

C. Probable capacity of lane

D. Practical capacity of lane

Answer: D

30. A traffic rotary is justified where

A. Number of intersecting roads is between 4 and 7

B. Space is limited and costly

C. When traffic volume is less than 500 vehicles per hour

D. When traffic volume is more than 5000 vehicles per hour

Answer: A

31. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Minimum desirable width of medians on rural highways is 5 meters

B. Minimum width of medians should be 3 meters

C. On long bridges and viaducts, the width of medians should be 1.5 m

D. All the above

Answer: D

32. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The cross fall of the shoulder should be at least 0.5% steeper than camber

B. On super-elevated sections, the shoulders should be provided a cross fall equal to camber

C. Earthen roads in general are provided steepest cross-fall

D. All the above

Answer: D

33. If aggregate impact value is 20 to 30 percent, then it is classified as

A. Exceptionally strong

B. Strong

C. Satisfactory for road surfacing

D. Unsuitable for road surfacing

Answer: C

34. Design of horizontal curves on highways, is based on

A. Design speed of vehicles

B. Permissible friction on the road surface

C. Permissible centrifugal ratio

D. All the above

Answer: D

35. Set-back distance is the distance between

A. Road land boundary and building line

B. Road land boundary and control line

C. Building line and control line

D. Road land boundary and control line

Answer: A

36. RC-2, MC-2 and SC-2 correspond to

A. Same viscosity

B. Viscosity in increasing order from RC-2 to SC-2

C. Viscosity in decreasing order from RC-2 to SC-2

D. None of the above

Answer: A

37. Speed regulations on roads is decided on the basis of

A. 60 percentile cumulative frequency

B. 75 percentile cumulative frequency

C. 80 percentile cumulative frequency

D. 85 percentile cumulative frequency

Answer: D

38. At intersection of roads, the traffic volume study is carried out to ascertain the number of vehicles

A. Moving along straights

B. Turning left

C. Turning right

D. All the above

Answer: D

39. Flexible pavement distribute the wheel load

A. Directly to sub-grade

B. Through structural action

C. Through a set of layers to the sub-grade

D. None of the above

Answer: C

40. The most commonly adopted method to provide super-elevation on roads, is by pivoting the road surface about

A. Outer edge so that the inner edge is lowered

B. Crown so that outer edge is raised and inner edge is lowered

C. Inner edge so that outer edge is raised

D. None of these

Answer: C

41. When load is applied on concrete pavement

A. Away from edges, the maximum bending moment is negative

B. Away from edges, the maximum bending moment cause compression

C. On the edges, the maximum stress is parallel to the edge of the slab

D. None of these

Answer: C

42. The fundamental factor in the selection of pavement type is

A. Climatic condition

B. Type and intensity of traffic

C. Sub-grade soil and drainage conditions

D. Availability of funds for the construction project

Answer: B

43. If the coefficient of friction on the road surface is 0.15 and a maximum super-elevation 1 in 15 is provided, the maximum speed of the vehicles on a curve of 100 metre radius, is

A. 32.44 km/hour

B. 42.44 kg/hour

C. 52.44 km/hour

D. 62.44 km/hour

Answer: C

44. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Various geometric design features and generally guided by ruling design speed

B. The design speed for a given highway should preferably be uniform

C. Abrupt change in the design speed should not be permitted

D. All the above

Answer: D

45. For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of operations after spreading coarse aggregates is

A. Dry rolling, wet rolling, application of screening and application of filler

B. Dry rolling, application of filler, wet rolling and application of screening

C. Dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler

D. Dry rolling, application of screening, application of filler and wet rolling

Answer: C

46. In case of a multi-lane road, overtaking is generally permitted

A. From right

B. From left

C. From both sides right and left

D. Not at all

Answer: C

47. If degree of a road curve is defined by assuming the standard length of an arc as 30 meters, the radius of 1° curve is equal

A. 1719 m

B. 1146 m

C. 1046 m

D. 1619 m

Answer: A

48. The walls which are necessary on the hill side of roadway where earth has to be retained from slipping is known as

A. Retaining wall

B. Breast wall

C. Parapet wall

D. None of the above

Answer: B

49. If cross slope of a country is greater than 60%, the terrain is classified as

A. Rolling

B. Mountainous

C. Steep

D. Plain

Answer: C

50. The length of a transition curve, is governed by

A. Rate of change of radial acceleration

B. Rate of change of super-elevation

C. BothA. andB.

D. NeitherA. norB.

Answer: C

51. When a number of roads are meeting at a point and only one of the roads is important, then the suitable shape of rotary is

A. Circular

B. Tangent

C. Elliptical

D. Turbine

Answer: B

52. A gradient along which the vehicle does not require any tractive effort to maintain a specified speed, is known as

A. Ruling gradient

B. Pushing gradient

C. Floating gradient

D. Minimum gradient

Answer: C

53. In welded wire mesh, the longitudinal wire is placed at

A. 10 cm centers

B. 15 cm centers

C. 20 cm centers

D. 25 cm centers

Answer: B

54. Percentage of free carbon in bitumen is

A. More than that in tar

B. Less than that in tar

C. Equal to that in tar

D. None of the above

Answer: B

55. Pavement is said to be flexible if it contains

A. Water bound macadam surface

B. Stabilized soil base constructed of lime cement or tar

C. Bitumen-bound stone layer of varying aggregates

D. All the above

Answer: D

56. Hill roads are

A. Provided camber along spur curves

B. Provided camber along valley curves

C. Seldom provided a camber

D. None of these

Answer: C

57. The method of design of flexible pavement as recommended by IRC is

A. Group index method

B. CBR method

C. Westergaard method

D. Benkelman beam method

Answer: B

58. A district road with a bituminous pavement has a horizontal curve of 1000 m for a design speed of 75 km ph. The super-elevation is

A. 1 in 40

B. 1 in 50

C. 1 in 60

D. 1 in 70

Answer: A

59. The head of public works department of any Indian state, is

A. Transport Minister

B. Chief Engineer

C. Superintending Engineer

D. Executive Engineer

Answer: B

60. Tie bars in cement concrete pavements are at

A. Expansion joints

B. Contraction joints

C. Warping joints

D. Longitudinal joints

Answer: D

61. As per recommendations of I.R.C., traffic volume study is carried out for rural roads for 7 days continuously during

A. Harvesting

B. Lean season

C. Harvesting and lean season

D. None of these

Answer: C

62. Formation width of a hill road is the distance between

A. Outer end of side drain to outer end of parapet wall

B. Outer end of side drain to inner end of parapet wall

C. Inner end of side drain to outer end of parapet wall

D. Inner end of side drain to inner end of parapet wall

Answer: A

63. The camber of shoulders in water bound macadam roads is

A. Equal to the cross slope of pavement

B. Less than the cross slope of pavement

C. Greater than the cross slope of pavement

D. Zero

Answer: A

64. Traffic surveys are carried out

A. To know the type of traffic

B. To determine the facilities to traffic regulations

C. To design proper drainage system

D. All the above

Answer: D

65. The difference in gradients after full super-elevation and the initial alignment of a road, is known as

A. Ruling gradient

B. Rising gradient

C. Compensated gradient

D. Differential gradient

Answer: D

66. The camber for hill roads in case of bituminous surfacing is adopted as

A. 2 %

B. 2.5 %

C. 3 %

D. 4 %

Answer: B

67. If C is basic capacity per lane, V is velocity in km/hour, S is stopping distance plus length of the vehicles in meters, the formula C = 1000V/S is applicable to

A. District roads

B. Two lane roads

C. Two lane roads in one direction

D. None of these

Answer: C

68. To prevent movement of moisture from sub-grade to road pavement on embankments about 0.6 m to 1 m higher than water table, the thickness of cut off layer of coarse sand used, is

A. 15 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 30 cm

D. None of these

Answer: D

69. The direct interchange ramp involves

A. Diverging to the right side and merging from left

B. Diverging to the left side and merging from right

C. Diverging to the right side and merging from right

D. Diverging to the left side and merging from left

Answer: C

70. Design of flexible pavements is based on

A. Mathematical analysis

B. Empirical formula

C. A compromise of pure theory and pure empirical formula

D. None of these

Answer: C

71. The total value of extra widening required at a horizontal curve on a two lane hill road of radius 42 m for a design speed of 50 kmph and for vehicles with wheel base 6 m, is

A. 0.500 m

B. 0.589 m

C. 1.089 m

D. 0.089 m

Answer: C

72. Which of the following represents hardest grade of bitumen?

A. 30/40

B. 60/70

C. 80/100

D. 100/120

Answer: A

73. The weight of vehicles affects

A. Pavement thickness

B. Ruling gradient

C. Limiting gradient

D. All the above

Answer: D

74. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The height of head light above road surface, is taken as 0.75 m

B. The beam of head light is up to one degree upwards from the grade of road

C. While designing the valley curve, the height of the object is assumed nil

D. All the above

Answer: D

75. The number of repetitions, which the pavement thickness designed for a given wheel load should be able to support during the life pavement is

A. 1000

B. 10,000

C. 1,00,000

D. 10,00,000

Answer: D

76. According to the recommendations of Nagpur Conference, the width formation of an ideal National Highway in hard rock cutting, is

A. 8.9 m

B. 7.9 m

C. 6.9 m

D. 6.5 m

Answer: B

77. Setting out of Lemniscate transition curves, is done with

A. Perpendicular offsets

B. Radial offsets

C. Deflection angles

D. Polar deflection angles

Answer: D

78. Maximum daily traffic capacity of bituminous pavements is

A. 500 tonnes per day

B. 1000 tonnes per day

C. 1500 tonnes per day

D. 2000 tonnes per day

Answer: C

79. The head light of vehicles should be such that its lower beam illuminates objects at

A. 10 m

B. 20 m

C. 30 m

D. 40 m

Answer: C

80. The gradients of trace cuts for hilly roads, are kept

A. Equal to ruling gradient

B. 10 to 20 percent easier than ruling gradients

C. 10 to 20 percent steeper than ruling gradients

D. None of these

Answer: B

81. Which of the following represents a carpet of sand-bitumen mix without coarse aggregates?

A. Mastic asphalt

B. Sheet asphalt

C. Bituminous carpet

D. Bituminous concrete

Answer: B

82. Reinforcement in cement concrete slab of road pavements, is placed

A. Longitudinally

B. Transversely

C. Longitudinally and transversely

D. In the form of welded wire mesh

Answer: D

83. The ability of a driver to stop the vehicle moving with the designed speed, depends upon:

A. Perception time

B. Brake reaction time

C. Efficiency of the brakes

D. All the above

Answer: D

84. Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with

A. Parallel parking

B. 30° angle parking

C. 45° angle parking

D. 90° angle parking

Answer: D

85. On concrete roads, the camber generally provided, is

A. 1 in 20 to 1 in 24

B. 1 in 30 to 1 in 48

C. 1 in 36 to 1 in 48

D. 1 in 60 to 1 in 72

Answer: D

86. If d is the economic designed depth of a slab, the thickness of the cement concrete pavement slab at interior, is kept

A. 1.275 d

B. 1.125 d

C. 0.85 d

D. 0.75 d

Answer: C

87. The ductility value of bitumen for suitability in road construction should not be less than

A. 30 cm

B. 40 cm

C. 50 cm

D. 60 cm

Answer: C

88. If L is the length of a moving vehicle and R is the radius of curve, the extra mechanical width b to be provided on horizontal curves,

A. L/R

B. L/2R

C. L²/2R

D. L/3R

Answer: C

89. Interior thickness of concrete road slab for design wheel load 6300 kg and permissible flexural stress 21 kg/cm2, is

A. 17.0 cm

B. 25.5 cm

C. 34.0 cm

D. 42.5 cm

Answer: B

90. For rapid curing cutbacks, the oil used is

A. Gasoline

B. Kerosene oil

C. Light diesel

D. Heavy diesel

Answer: A

91. The width of different roads as recommended in Nagpur plan by the Indian Road Conference for hilly region, is

A. Same for National Highways

B. Different for National Highways

C. Same for State Highways

D. Same for Major District roads

Answer: B

92. To prevent a head-on-collision of vehicles traveling in opposite directions along four-lane roads

A. Markings on the road are provided

B. Physical dividers are provided

C. Area dividers are provided

D. Medians of wide area are provided

Answer: D

93. The maximum thickness of expansion joint in rigid pavements is

A. 0

B. 25 mm

C. 50 mm

D. 100 mm

Answer: B

94. Length of vehicles does not affect

A. Extra widening

B. Minimum radius of turning

C. Passing sight distance

D. Width of shoulders

Answer: D

95. The type of curves generally provided on highways, is

A. Critical curve

B. Transition curve

C. Vertical curve

D. All the above

Answer: D

96. The thickness of bituminous carpet varies from

A. 20 to 25 mm

B. 50 to 75 mm

C. 75 to 100 mm

D. 100 to 120 mm

Answer: A

97. The advantage of providing super-elevation on roads, is

A. Higher speed of vehicles

B. Increased volume of traffic

C. Reduced maintenance cost of the roads

D. All the above

Answer: D

98. Gradient resistance of moving vehicles along down slopes, is

A. + 7 kg/tonne

B. + 9 kg/tonne

C. – 9 kg/tonne

D. – 7 kg/tonne

Answer: C

99. As per IRC recommendations, the average level of illumination on important roads carrying fast traffic is

A. 10 Lux

B. 15 Lux

C. 20 Lux

D. 30 Lux

Answer: D

100. Camber in pavements is provided by

A. Straight line method

B. Parabola method

C. Straight at the edges and parabolic at the crown

D. All the above

Answer: D

101. Over taking time required for a vehicle with design speed 50 km ph and overtaking acceleration 1.25 m/sec2 to overtake a vehicle moving at a speed 30 km ph, is

A. 5.0 secs

B. 6.12 secs

C. 225.48 secs

D. 30 secs

Answer: B

102. The group index for a soil, whose liquid limit is 40 percent, plasticity index is 10 percent and percentage passing 75 micron IS sieve

A. 0

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7

Answer: A

103. For night travel, the length of a valley curve should be such that the head light beam distance is the same as

A. Stopping sight distance

B. Overtaking sight distance

C. Sum ofA. andB.

D. Difference ofA. andB.

Answer: A

104. According to Indian Road Congress, the width of carriageway, is

A. 3.75 m for single lane

B. 7.0 m for two lanes without raised kerbs

C. 7.5 m for two lanes with raised kerbs

D. All the above

Answer: D

105. The binder normally used in flexible pavement construction is

A. Cement

B. Lime

C. Bitumen

D. None of the above

Answer: C

106. Intermediate catch water drains are provided only, if

A. Catchment area of the watershed above road is large

B. Intensity of rainfall is heavy

C. Single catch water drain is inadequate

D. All the above

Answer: D

107. In retaining and breast walls, weep holes are provided at

A. 50 cm vertical height and 50 cm centre to centre horizontally

B. 100 cm vertical height and 100 cm centre to centre horizontally

C. 100 cm vertical height and 120 cm centre to centre horizontally

D. 120 cm vertical height and 100 cm centre to centre horizontally

Answer: C

108. In highway construction on super-elevated curves, the rolling shall proceed from

A. Sides towards the centre

B. Centre towards the sides

C. Lower edge towards the upper edge

D. Upper edge towards the lower edge

Answer: C

109. An upgrade g1% is followed by a downgrade g2%. The equation of the parabolic curve of length L to be introduced, is given by

A. y = g [(g₁ – g₂)/100 L] x²

B. y = [(g₁ + g₂)/200 L] x²

C. y = [(g₁ – g₂)/400 L] x²

D. y = [(g₁ + g₂)/800 L] x²

Answer: B

110. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Borrow pits are located outside the right of way

B. Borrow pits may be located on either side of the right of way

C. Spoil bank is located on one side of the right of way

D. All the above

Answer: D

111. Which of the following tests measures the toughness of road aggregates?

A. Crushing strength test

B. Abrasion test

C. Impact test

D. Shape test

Answer: C

112. Reconnaissance is best done with the help of

A. Aerial photographic survey

B. Cadastral surveys

C. Topographical surveys

D. Triangulation surveys

Answer: A

113. To ensure that bullock carts may not overturn on curves, the maximum value of super-elevation, recommended by I.R.C., is

A. 1 in 10

B. 1 in 12

C. 1 in 15

D. 1 in 20

Answer: C

114. If the group index value of sub-grade is between 5 and 9, then the sub-grade is treated as

A. Good

B. Fair

C. Poor

D. Very poor

Answer: C

115. An Executive Engineer of roads, executes works under direct control of

A. Superintending Engineer

B. Secretary to the Govt.

C. Chief Engineer

D. None of these

Answer: A

116. The distance travelled by revolving the wheel of a vehicle more than its circumferential movement, is known as

A. Slip

B. Skid

C. NeitherA. norB.

D. BothA. andB.

Answer: B

117. The suitable surfacing material for a bridge deck slab is

A. Sheet asphalt

B. Bituminous carpet

C. Mastic asphalt

D. Rolled asphalt

Answer: C

118. If the velocity of moving vehicles on a road is 24 km/per hour, stopping distance is 19 meters and average length of vehicles is 6 meters, the basic capacity of lane, is

A. 500 vehicles per hour

B. 700 vehicles per hour

C. 1000 vehicles per hour

D. 1250 vehicles per hour

Answer: C

119. Traffic census is carried out for

A. Speed and delay study

B. Road parking study

C. Traffic volume study

D. All the above

Answer: D

120. In CBR test the value of CBR is calculated at

A. 2.5 mm penetration only

B. 5.0 mm penetration only

C. 7.5 mm penetration only

D. Both 2.5 mm and 5.0 mm penetrations

Answer: D

121. If the radii of a compound curve and a reverse curve are respectively the same, the length of common tangent

A. Of compound curve will be more

B. Of reverse curve will be more

C. Of both curves will be equal

D. None of these

Answer: C

122. The best compromise between the increase of the length of a highway and reduction in its load carrying capacity, is the ruling gradient

A. 1 in 10

B. 1 in 15

C. 1 in 20

D. 1 in 25

Answer: C

123. Bottom most layer of pavement is known as

A. Wearing course

B. Base course

C. Sub-base course

D. Sub-grade

Answer: D

124. The number of vehicles moving in a specified direction on a roadway that pass a given point during specified unit of time, is called

A. Traffic volume

B. Traffic density

C. Basic capacity

D. Traffic capacity

Answer: A

125. Ruling gradient on hill roads 300 m above M.S.L. is kept

A. 4 %

B. 5 %

C. 7 %

D. 8 %

Answer: B

126. The aggregates required for one kilometer length of water bound macadam road per meter width and for 10 mm thickness is

A. 8 cubic meter

B. 10 cubic meter

C. 12 cubic meter

D. 15 cubic meter

Answer: C

127. The minimum value of camber provided for thin bituminous surface hill roads, is

A. 2.2 %

B. 2.5 %

C. 3.0 %

D. 3.5 %

Answer: B

128. Roundabouts are not suitable if number of vehicles exceed

A. 3000

B. 4000

C. 5000

D. 6000

Answer: A

129. The minimum design speed for hairpin bends in hill roads is taken as

A. 20 kmph

B. 30 kmph

C. 40 kmph

D. 50 kmph

Answer: A

130. Thickness of a pavement may be reduced considerably by

A. Compaction of soil

B. Stabilization of soil

C. Drainage of soil

D. Combination of all the above

Answer: D

131. To compensate the loss of tractive force of vehicles along curves of radius R, the percentage reduction of gradient, is

A. 50/R

B. 75/R

C. 100/R

D. 125/R

Answer: B

132. The maximum allowable Los Angeles abrasion value for high quality surface course is

A. 10 %

B. 20 %

C. 30 %

D. 45 %

Answer: C

133. The minimum ratio of the radii of two circular curves of a compound curve, is kept

A. 1.25

B. 1.5

C. 1.75

D. 2.0

Answer: B

134. The distance traveled by a moving vehicle during perception and brake reaction times, is known as

A. Sight distance

B. Stopping distance

C. Lag distance

D. None of these

Answer: C

135. Rigidity factor for a tyre pressure greater than 7 kg/cm² is

A. Equal to 1

B. Less than 1

C. Greater than 1

D. Zero

Answer: B

136. The formula for calculating the depth of concrete pavements suggested by Gold beck, is

A. d = 3W/σmax

B. d = √(3W/σmax)

C. d = √(2W/σmax)

D. d = √(1.5W/σmax)

Answer: B

137. If a Lemniscate curve having an angle of deflection Δ, is transitional throughout, the maximum polar angle is

A. Δ/2

B. Δ/3

C. Δ/4

D. Δ/6

Answer: D

138. Most suitable material for highway embankments is

A. Granular soil

B. Organic soil

C. Silts

D. Clays

Answer: A

139. The road foundation for modern highways construction, was developed by

A. Tresguet

B. Telford

C. Tresguet and Telford simultaneously

D. Telford and Macadam simultaneously

Answer: D

140. Longitudinal pavement lines marked broken in white paint

A. Are for the guidance of the drivers

B. Are not to be crossed over

C. May be crossed over at the discretion of the driver

D. All the above

Answer: C

141. The recommended grade of tar for grouting purpose is

A. RT-1

B. RT-2

C. RT-3

D. RT-5

Answer: D

142. According to Highway Research Board of U.S.A. practical land width, is

A. 2.7 m

B. 3.0 m

C. 3.3 m

D. 3.6 m

Answer: D

143. If the radius of a main curve is 300 m and length of the transition curve is 100 m, the angle with tangent to locate the junction point, is

A. 1° 11′

B. 2° 11′

C. 3° 11′

D. 4° 11′

Answer: C

144. Which of the following premix methods is used for base course?

A. Bituminous carpet

B. Mastic asphalt

C. Sheet asphalt

D. Bituminous bound macadam

Answer: D

145. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. During reconnaissance, the general route of the alignment is selected

B. After reconnaissance, a trace is cut for the alignment

C. Last stage is the detailed surveys for desired geometries’ of the highway

D. All the above

Answer: D

146. The statement, regarding the size of stones used at the wearing surface. “The size of a stone used on a road must be in due proportion to the space occupied by a wheel of ordinary dimensions on a smooth level surface. The point of contact will be found to be longitudinal about 2.5 cm and every piece of stone put into the road which exceeds 2.5 cm in any of its dimension is mischievous” was made by

A. Telford

B. Macadam

C. Tresguet

D. Sully

Answer: B

147. Bitumen of grade 80/100 means

A. Its penetration value is 8 mm

B. Its penetration value is 10 mm

C. Its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm

D. Its penetration value is 8 to 10 cm

Answer: C

148. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Safety fences are provided on either side of a roadway if embankments are in excess of 6 meters

B. Safety fences are provided on outside of the curves of radii less than 750 m if the embankments are between 3 meters and 6 meters

C. Guard stones are provided at 2.5 meters intervals if embankments are between 1.6 meters to 3 meters

D. All the above

Answer: C

149. I.R.T.D.A. (Indian Roads and Transport Development Association) was set up at Bombay in

A. 1907

B. 1917

C. 1027

D. 1937

Answer: C

150. The maximum spacing of contraction joints in rigid pavements is

A. 2.5 m

B. 3.5 m

C. 4.5 m

D. 5.5 m

Answer: C

151. A single lane carriage way whenever changes to two-lane carriage way, is affected through a taper of

A. 1 in 10

B. 1 in 15

C. 1 in 20

D. 1 in 15 to 1 in 20

Answer: D

152. If N is deviation angle, the length L, of a parabolic vertical curve for safe stopping distance S, is

A. NS2/4.4 if L > S

B. 2S – 4.4/N if L < S C. 2S – 4.4/N if L > S

D. BothA. andB.

Answer: D

153. Softening point of bitumen to be used for read construction at a place where maximum temperature is 40°C should be

A. Less than 40°C

B. Greater than 40°C

C. Equal to 40°C

D. None of the above

Answer: B

154. According to IRC : 52-1973, for a single lane National Highway in hilly region,

A. Width of the carriageway must be 3.75 m

B. Shoulders on either side must be 1.25 m

C. Total width of the road-way must be 6.25 m

D. All of the above

Answer: D

155. If a Lemniscate curve of transition throughout is introduced to connect two parallel roads, the maximum polar angle of the curve, is

A. 10°

B. 15°

C. 20°

D. 30°

Answer: D

156. Minimum thickness of a layer of fine sand required to cut off capillary rise of water completely, should be

A. 40 cm

B. 52 cm

C. 64 cm

D. 76 cm

Answer: D

157. The standard equation of a cubical spiral transition curve provided on roads, is

A. y = l2/6RL

B. y = x3/6RL

C. y = x2/6RL

D. y = x/6RL

Answer: B

158. If N is the algebraic difference of grades, S is the head light beam distance in metres, the length (L) of a valley curve, is

A. NS2/4

B. NS2/6

C. NS2/9.6

D. NS2/4.8

Answer: A

159. To prevent compressive stresses in a rigid concrete pavement, the joint provided, is

A. Expansion joint

B. Contraction joint

C. Hinged joint

D. All the above

Answer: D

160. Along high ways confirmatory route markers are generally fixed

A. Before the crossing on the left side

B. After the crossing on the left side

C. Before the crossing on the right side

D. After the crossing on the right side

Answer: B

161. If the width of carriage way is 12.5 meters, outer edge 50 cm higher than the inner edge, the required super elevation is

A. 50 cm

B. 1 in 25

C. 1 in 400

D. 1 in 40

Answer: B

162. If N is the net difference of grades, S is the minimum overtaken sight distance in meters, the length (L) of a summit curve, is

A. NS/4

B. NS2/4

C. NS2/4.8

D. NS2/9.6

Answer: D

163. Super-elevation on roads in snow bound areas, should generally not exceed

A. 15 %

B. 12 %

C. 10 %

D. 7 %

Answer: D

164. Passing zones are generally not provided on

A. Summit curves

B. Horizontal curves

C. Two lane highways

D. All the above

Answer: D

165. In a braking test, a vehicle traveling at 36 km ph was stopped at a braking distance of 8.0 m. The average value of the vehicle’s skid resistance (friction coefficient) is

A. 0.64

B. 6.25

C. 0.16

D. None of these

Answer: C

166. The first stage of deciding the alignment of a hill road, is

A. Reconnaissance

B. Detailed survey

C. Trace-out

D. Preliminary survey

Answer: A

167. The normal road land width for a National or State highway, in open areas should be

A. 45 m

B. 30 m

C. 24 m

D. 20 m

Answer: A

168. Floating gradients are generally provided

A. Along maximum gradients

B. Along minimum gradients

C. At summit curves

D. At valley curves

Answer: C

169. If cross slope of a country is up to 10% the terrain is classified as

A. Plain

B. Rolling

C. Mountainous

D. Steep

Answer: A

170. Area of steel required per metre width of pavement for a length of 20 m for design wheel load 6300 kg and permissible stress in steel 1400 kg/cm2, is

A. 70 kg/sq cm

B. 80 kg/sq cm

C. 90 kg/sq cm

D. 100 kg/sq cm

Answer: C

171. In case of a hair pin bend of a highway,

A. Minimum radius of inner curve is 14 m

B. Minimum radius of transition is 15 m

C. Circular compound curve may be provided

D. All the above

Answer: D

172. The minimum vertical clearance of overhanging cliffs or any other structure above the surface of a hill road, should be

A. 3 m

B. 4 m

C. 5 m

D. 6 m

Answer: C

173. The camber on pavements, is provided by

A. Straight line method

B. Parabolic method

C. Straight line and parabolic at crown

D. Elliptical method

Answer: C

174. One-way streets are generally provided in crowded cities as, these

A. Are inexpensive means of traffic flow

B. Reduce delays to vehicles

C. Permit higher speed

D. All the above

Answer: D

175. The width of the right of way, is influenced by

A. Formation width

B. Shoulders or berms

C. Classification of road

D. All the above

Answer: D

176. The maximum distance of the apex of a vertical curve of length L from the point of intersection of two grades + g1%, and – g2% (g1 > g2), is

A. L(g1 – g2)/400

B. L(g1 – g2)/800

C. L(g1 + g2)/800

D. L(g2 – g1)/300

Answer: C

177. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. On highways circular curves may be

A. Simple curves

B. Compound curves

C. Reverse curves

D. Vertical curves

Answer: D

178. The desirable camber for straight roads with thin bituminous surfacing, is

A. 1 in 33 to 1 in 25

B. 1 in 40 to 1 in 33

C. 1 in 150 to 1 in 140

D. 1 in 160 to 1 in 140

Answer: C

179. If brakes of vehicles are effective, the vehicle-running at 30 km/hour comes to a stop in

A. 10 meters

B. 12 meters

C. 15 meters

D. 18 meters

Answer: B

180. From the point of tangency before an intersection, the route markers are fixed at a distance of

A. 15 m to 30 m

B. 20 m to 35 m

C. 40 m to 50 m

D. 100 m to 150 m

Answer: D

181. The minimum super-elevation in rolling terrain in plains, is limited to

A. 4 %

B. 5 %

C. 6 %

D. 7 %

Answer: D

182. In ideal pavement is constructed with

A. Bricks

B. Hard soil

C. Portland cement concrete

D. Tar

Answer: C

183. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. If water cement ratio is

A. Increased, strength of concrete increases

B. Decreased, strength of concrete increases

C. Increased, strength of concrete is not affected

D. None of these

Answer: C

184. Design of horizontal and vertical alignments, super-elevation, sight distance and grades, is worst affected by

A. Width of the vehicle

B. Length of the vehicle

C. Height of the vehicle

D. Speed of the vehicle

Answer: D

185. For a comfortable travel on Highways, the centrifugal ratio should not exceed

A. 0.10

B. 0.15

C. 0.20

D. 0.25

Answer: D

186. Border Roads Organization for hilly regions, was formed in

A. 1947

B. 1954

C. 1958

D. 1960

Answer: D

187. For a poorly graded sub-grade soil, thickness of sub-base, is

A. 10 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 20 cm

D. 30 cm

Answer: D

188. The usual width of parapet walls along Highways in hilly region, is

A. 50 cm

B. 60 cm

C. 70 cm

D. 80 cm

Answer: B

189. In scanty rainfall regions, the camber provided will be

A. Nil

B. Flatter

C. Steeper

D. None of these

Answer: B

190. In water bound macadam roads, binding material, is

A. Sand

B. Stone dust

C. Cement

D. Brick dust

Answer: B

191. Design of flexible pavement, involves

A. Wheel loads

B. Intensity of traffic

C. Climate of the region

D. Sub-grade conditions

Answer: C

192. Increase in traffic volume, due to increase in transport vehicles, is known as

A. Development traffic

B. Normal traffic growth

C. Generated traffic growth

D. Current traffic

Answer: C

193. Width of a rotary round should be equal to

A. Twice the width of narrowest radial road

B. Width of the widest road

C. Width of the widest road plus the width of one lane

D. Width of the widest road plus 2 meters

Answer: C

194. Volume of traffic which would immediately use a new road or an improved one when opened to traffic, is known

A. Development traffic

B. Current traffic

C. General traffic

D. Normal traffic growth

Answer: D

195. Volume of traffic which is due to improvement carried out in adjacent area, is known as

A. Development traffic

B. Generated traffic growth

C. Normal traffic growth

D. Current traffic

Answer: A

196. Maximum number of passenger cars that can pass a given point on a road during one hour under the most ideal road way and traffic conditions, is known as

A. Traffic density

B. Basic capacity of traffic lane

C. Possible capacity of traffic lane

D. All the above

Answer: B

197. Reference pillars fixed on the centre line of a proposed road, provide the following information:

A. Reduced distance (R.D.)

B. Horizontal distance of road from the centre line

C. Reduced level at the top of pillar

D. All the above

Answer: D

198. In an ideal transition curve, the radius of curvature

A. Is constant

B. At any point is directly proportional to its distance from the point of commencement

C. Is inversely proportional to the radius of main curve

D. Is directly proportional to the radius of main curve

Answer: C

199. Alignment of highways in hilly regions, is decided on

A. Long stretch of very hard cutting

B. Number of river crossings

C. Natural unstable areas

D. All the above

Answer: D

200. The desirable camber for straight cement concrete roads, is

A. 1 in 33 to 1 in 25

B. 1 in 40 to 1 in 33

C. 1 in 150 to 1 in 140

D. 1 in 160 to 1 in 140

201. In case of cement concrete pavements, pick up the incorrect statement

A. Tractive resistance is low

B. Initial cost of construction is high

C. Initial cost of construction is low

D. Visibility during nights is high

Answer: C

202. If D is the degree of a curve, the percentage reduction of gradient, is

A. 0.01 D

B. 0.02 D

C. 0.03 D

D. 0.04 D

Answer: D

203. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Highways are always constructed in straight line

B. Highways may be provided horizontal curves

C. Highways may be provided vertical curves

D. Highways may be provided both horizontal and vertical curves

Answer: A

204. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Long tangent sections exceeding 3 km in length should be avoided

B. Curve length should be at least 150 meters for a deflection angle of 5 degree

C. For every degree decrease in the deflection angle, 30 metre length of curve to be increased

D. All the above

Answer: D

205. Minimum number of 50 kg cement bags per cubic metre of concrete for a mix corresponding to crushing strength 280 kg/cm2 at 28 days, are

A. 5.0

B. 6.5

C. 7.0

D. 7.5

Answer: B

206. For Indian conditions, the water bound macadam roads, are suitable if daily traffic does not exceed

A. 2000 tonnes

B. 2500 tonnes

C. 3000 tonnes

D. 3500 tonnes

Answer: A

207. Indian Road Congress (I.R.C.) was founded and constituted with its head quarters at New Delhi, in

A. 1924

B. 1927

C. 1930

D. 1934

Answer: D

208. The steepest gradient permitted on roads which, in ordinary conditions, does not exceed, is known

A. Ruling gradient

B. Maximum gradient

C. Exceptional gradient

D. Floating gradient

Answer: B

209. When each particle of aggregates is thinly coated with cement paste, a heterogeneous solid is formed, which is known as

A. Hydration

B. Gel

C. Concrete

D. None of these

Answer: C

210. Width of the shoulders of carriage way is generally kept

A. 100 cm

B. 125 cm

C. 150 cm

D. 250 cm

Answer: D

211. Reduction of load capacity in a ruling gradient of

A. 1 in 10, is 10%

B. 1 in 15, is 15%

C. 1 in 20, is 10%

D. 1 in 25, is 25%

Answer: C

212. The width of road pavements, depends upon

A. Width of traffic lane

B. Number of traffic

C. Width of median strip

D. All the above

Answer: D

213. While calculating the overtaking sight distance, the height of the object above road surface, is assumed

A. 50 cm

B. 70 cm

C. 100 cm

D. 120 cm

Answer: D

214. Minimum thickness of the base of a flexible pavement, is

A. 10 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 20 cm

D. 25 cm

Answer: A

215. Widening of the roads on curves in hilly region, is done

A. On the outer side

B. On the inner side

C. On the outer and inner sides equally

D. Less on outer side and more on inner side

Answer: B

216. The wall constructed for the stability of a back filling portion of a road on the downhill side, is known as

A. Retaining wall

B. Breast wall

C. Parapet wall

D. All the above

Answer: A

217. If V is speed of a moving vehicle, r is radius of the curve, g is the acceleration due to gravity, W is the width of the carriageway, the super elevation is

A. WV/gr

B. W2V/gr

C. WV2/gr

D. WV/gr2

Answer: C

218. Side drains on both sides of a hill road, are essential when the road is

A. Along the spur curves

B. Along the re-entrant curves

C. In cutting

D. None of these

Answer: C

219. In a right angle bend of a road provided with a transition throughout, the maximum polar angle will be

A. 10°

B. 15°

C. 20°

D. 30°

Answer: B

220. If V is the design speed in km/hour and R is the radius of the curve of a hill road, the super-elevation

A. e = V / 127 R

B. e = V2 / 127 R

C. e = V2 / 225 R

D. e = V / 225 R

Answer: C

221. Along a hill road, a side drain is provided on

A. Outer side of a spur curve

B. Outer side of a re-entrant curve

C. Outer side of bothA. andB.

D. Inner side of bothA. andB.

Answer: D

222. The total length of a valley formed by two gradients – 3% and + 2% curve between the two tangent points to provide a rate of change of centrifugal acceleration 0.6 m/sec2, for a design speed 100 kmph, is

A. 16.0 m

B. 42.3 m

C. 84.6 m

D. None of these

Answer: C

223. If V is speed in km/hour and R is radius of the curve, the super-elevation e is equal to

A. V2/125 R

B. V2/225 R

C. V2/325 R

D. V2/25 R

Answer: B

224. The weaving length of a roadway is the distance

A. Between the channelizing islands

B. Equal to half circumference

C. Equal to total width of adjoining radial roads

D. Equal to diameter of rotary

Answer: A

225. Following type of pavement is generally known as flexible pavement

A. Water-bound macadam roads

B. Stabilized soil roads

C. Road constructed with various layers of building material well compacted

D. All the above

Answer: D

226. First operation during the detailed survey of a hill road, is

A. Hydrological and soil surveys

B. Adjustment of alignment along with curves

C. Derivation of longitudinal and cross-sections

D. Fixation of Bench Marks

Answer: D

227. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The width of the right-of-way is decided so as to accommodate

A. Formation width

B. Side slopes

C. Horizontal curve

D. Vertical curve

Answer: D

228. The type of transition curves generally provided on hill roads, is

A. Circular

B. Cubic parabola

C. Lemniscate

D. Spiral

Answer: D

229. When a number of hair pin bends are introduced, a minimum intervening distance in between is kept

A. 20 m

B. 40 m

C. 60 m

D. 100 m

Answer: C

230. If cross slope of a country is 10% to 25%, the terrain is classified as

A. Rolling

B. Mountainous

C. Steep

D. Plain

Answer: A

231. For the design of cement concrete pavement for corner loading, Indian Road Congress recommends the use of

A. Westergaard’s formula

B. Kelly’s formula

C. Goldbeck’s formula

D. Picker’s formula

Answer: D

232. On the recommendations of Indian Road Congress, the ruling gradient in plains, is

A. 1 in 15

B. 1 in 20

C. 1 in 30

D. 1 in 45

Answer: C

233. The tangent length of a simple circular curve of radius R deflecting through θ°, is

A. R tan θ

B. R tan θ/2

C. R sin θ

D. R sin θ/2

Answer: B

234. While calculating the sight distances, the driver’s eye above road surface, is assumed

A. 90 cm

B. 100 cm

C. 110 cm

D. 120 cm

Answer: D

235. On earth roads, the camber should preferably be

A. 1 in 20 to 1 in 24

B. 1 in 30 to 1 in 48

C. 1 in 15 to 1 in 20

D. 1 in 10 to 1 in 15

Answer: A

236. At a road junction, 7 cross conflict points are severe if

A. Both are one-way roads

B. Both are two-way roads

C. One is two-way road and other is one-way road

D. None of these

Answer: C

237. The safe length L of a valley curve for night travel is

A. 2S – (1.50 + 0.035 S)/N if L < S B. NS2/(1.50 + 0.035 S) if L > S

C. NeitherA. norB.

D. BothA. andB.

Answer: D

238. Road width 8.8 m of two lane National highways or State highways in mountainous terrain

A. Excludes the width of parapet (0.6 m)

B. Excludes the width of side drain (0.6 m)

C. Excludes the width of parapet and side drain

D. Includes the width of parapet and side drain

Answer: C

239. The radius of curvature provided along a transition curve, is

A. Minimum at the beginning

B. Same throughout its length

C. Equal to the radius of circular curve

D. Varying from infinity to the radius of circular curve

Answer: D

240. The normal road width of National and State highways

A. Is kept 45 m

B. In plain and rolling terrain built-up area, is 30 m

C. In mountainous built-up area is 20 m

D. All the above

Answer: D

241. If R is the radius of a main circular curve, Δ is the angle of deflection and α is the polar deflection angle of any point, its radial distance is

A. 3 R √(sin Δ/3 sin 2α)

B. 3 R √(sin Δ/2 sin 3α)

C. 3 R √(sin Δ/3 sin α/2)

D. 3 R √(sin 2Δ sin α)

Answer: A

242. Raising of outer edge of a road with respect to inner edge, is known

A. Super elevation

B. Cant

C. Banking

D. All the above

Answer: D

243. The G.T. road from Lahore to Calcutta in undivided India, was constructed during

A. 3495-3500 BC

B. 265-270 BC

C. 1540-1545 AD

D. 1440-1450 AD

Answer: C

244. Endoscope is used to determine

A. Spot speed

B. Average speed

C. Travel time

D. None of these

Answer: A

245. The minimum road width is taken

A. 9 m

B. 12 m

C. 16 m

D. 20 m

Answer: A

246. Newly constructed pavement with ordinary Portland cement attains its working strength after

A. 7 days

B. 14 days

C. 21 days

D. 28 days

Answer: D

247. The maximum comfortable retardation applied to moving vehicles, is

A. 3.42 m/sec2

B. 4.42 m/sec2

C. 5.56 m/sec2

D. 7.80 m/sec2

Answer: A

248. For a vehicle moving with a speed of 80 km per hour, the brake reaction time, in ordinary cases, is

A. 1 sec

B. 1.5 sec

C. 2.0 sec

D. 2.5 sec

Answer: D

249. Horizontal curves on highways are provided

A. To break the monotony of driving

B. To discourage the tendency to increase speed

C. To decrease the mental strain on drivers

D. All the above

Answer: D

250. Bottom-most component of a flexible pavement, is

A. Sub-grade

B. Sub-base

C. Base

D. Base course

Answer: A

251. For a properly designed vehicle, the resistance generally ignored, is

A. Wind resistance

B. Rolling resistance

C. Grade resistance

D. Axle resistance

Answer: D

252. If the difference in elevation of an edge of the pavement 9 m wide and its crown is 15 cm, the camber of the pavement, is

A. 1 in 60

B. 1 in 45

C. 1 in 30

D. 1 in 15

Answer: C

253. A subsidiary area in a carriageway placed so as to control the movement of the traffic, is

A. Median strip

B. Island

C. Flower bed

D. Refuge

Answer: B

254. Traffic engineering only includes

A. Planning of regulatory measures

B. Design and application of control devices

C. Analysis of traffic characteristics

D. All the above

Answer: D

255. The traffic manoeuvre means

A. Diverging

B. Merging

C. Crossing

D. All the above

Answer: D

256. If A is the projected area of a vehicle in square meters, V is speed of the vehicles in kilometers per hour and C is a constant, then the wind resistance R to the moving vehicles, is given by

A. R = CAV

B. R = CAV2

C. R = CAV3

D. R = C2AV

Answer: B

257. If the radius of curvature of a hill road is 50 m, the percentage grade compensation should be

A. 60/R

B. 70/R

C. 75/R

D. 80/R

Answer: C

258. The efficiency of the brakes of a vehicle depends upon

A. Condition of road surface

B. Condition of the tyres

C. Presence of the show moisture

D. All the above

Answer: D

259. On a pavement with parabolic camber, the angle of inclination of the vehicles will be

A. More at the crown

B. Less at the edges

C. More at the edges

D. Same at the edges as well as at the crown

Answer: C

260. Deviation of the alignment of a trace cut may be permitted in areas involving

A. Land slides

B. Sand dunes

C. Dens

D. None of these

Answer: A

261. For a 6.6 m wide two lane pavement, berms are provided on either side having a width of

A. 1.00 m

B. 1.25 m

C. 1.50 m

D. 1.75 m

Answer: C

262. The wall constructed for the stability of an excavated portion of a road on the hill side, is known as

A. Retaining wall

B. Breast wall

C. Parapet wall

D. All the above

Answer: B

263. Which one of the following transportation systems is not used for the conveyance of passengers in India?

A. Railways

B. Roads

C. Shipping

D. Pipe lines

Answer: D

264. If W is the weight of a vehicle negotiating an upgrade 1 : S along a track having co-efficient of resistance μ, the tractive force T is given by

A. T = p/(μ + S)

B. p = T/(μ + S)

C. S = p/(μ + T)

D. μ = p/(T + S)

Answer: D

265. The normal road land width for a major district road in open area, is

A. 45 m

B. 25 m

C. 15 m

D. 12 m

Answer: B

266. Driving vehicles on wet surfaced roads, is dangerous because it may

A. Skid

B. Slip

C. Overturn

D. All the above

Answer: B

267. If the rate of change of the super-elevation along a curved portion of a 7 metre wide road is 1 in 150 and the maximum super-elevation allowed is 1 in 15, the maximum length of the transition curve to be provided at either end, is

A. 65 m

B. 70 m

C. 75 m

D. 80 m

Answer: B

268. Transverse joints are provided at distances varying from

A. 10 m to 15 m

B. 12 m to 18 m

C. 16 m to 24 m

D. 17 m to 27 m

Answer: D

269. Concrete pavement is provided if daily traffic per lane exceeds

A. 500 tonnes

B. 750 tonnes

C. 1000 tonnes

D. 1250 tonnes

Answer: C

270. While designing hair pin bends on highways, the minimum

A. Designed speed is 20 km/hour

B. Gradient is 1 in 40

C. Gradient is 1 in 200

D. All the above

Answer: D

271. If the width of a pavement slab is 7.5 m, thickness 20 cm and working stress 1400 kg/cm2, spacing of 10 mm tie bars for the longitudinal joint, is

A. 10 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 30 cm

D. 40 cm

Answer: C

272. If no super elevation is provided on a road along curves, pot holes may develop at

A. Inner edge of the road

B. Outer edge of the road

C. Centre of the road

D. Nowhere on the road

Answer: B

273. The safe stopping sight distance D, may be computed from the equation

A. D = 0.278 Vt + V2/254f

B. D = 0.254 Vt + V2/278f

C. D = 0.254 Vt + V2/225f

D. D = 0.225 Vt + V2/254f

Answer: A

274. Normal formation width of a hill road for one-way traffic, is

A. 3.6 m

B. 4.8 m

C. 6.6 m

D. 7.2 m

Answer: B

275. Before providing super-elevation on roads, the portion of the carriageway between the crown and the outer edge is made

A. To have a reduced fall

B. Horizontal

C. To have slope of the camber on the other half of the carriageway

D. None of these

Answer: C

276. If the rate of change of grade permitted along a vertical curve is r and total change of grade is g%, the length L of the curve to be provided, is

A. L = (r × 100/g) m

B. L = (g × 100/r) m

C. L = (r + g) × 100 m

D. L = [100/(r + g)] m

Answer: B

277. The standard equation of a cubic parabolic transition curve provided on roads, is

A. y = x3/6 RL

B. y = x/6 RL

C. y = l2/6 RL

D. y = l3/6 RL

Answer: A

278. The traffic carrying capacity of a single lane, depends on

A. Type of the vehicles

B. Level crossings

C. Road intersections

D. All the above

Answer: D

279. In complex situations, total time required for a driver to form a judgement and to act, may be taken as

A. 1.0 sec

B. 1.5 sec

C. 2.0 sec

D. 3.0 sec

Answer: D

280. Full amount of extra width of a pavement on the curve, is provided at

A. Beginning of the transition curve

B. Centre of the transition curve

C. Beginning of the circular curve

D. Centre of the circular curve

Answer: C

281. For the movement of vehicles at an intersection of two roads, without any interference, the type of grade separator generally preferred to, is

A. Delta

B. Trumpet

C. Diamond interchange

D. Clover leaf

Answer: D

282. Minimum radius of curvature of National Highways or State highways in hill region free from snow, is kept

A. 60 m

B. 50 m

C. 33 m

D. 30 m

Answer: B

283. Width of vehicles affects the width of

A. Lanes

B. Shoulders

C. Parking spaces

D. All the above

Answer: D

284. The width formation of a road means the width of

A. Carriageway

B. Pavement and shoulders

C. Embankment at ground level

D. Embankment at the top level

Answer: D

285. The maximum safe speed on roads, depends on the

A. Type of road surface

B. Type of curves

C. Sight distance

D. All the above

Answer: D

286. An exceptional grade may be provided upto 1 in 12 along hill roads, if the length does not exceed

A. 45 m per km

B. 60 m per km

C. 75 m per km

D. 90 m per km

Answer: B

287. Shoulders for high traffic volume roads, should

A. Be stable throughout the year to be used by vehicles in the case of emergency

B. Support and protect the ends of carriage ways

C. Not allow entrance of water to sub-grade

D. All the above

Answer: D

288. If the designed speed on a circular curve of radius 1400 m is 80 km/hour, no super-elevation is provided, if the camber, is

A. 4 %

B. 3 %

C. 2 %

D. 1.7 %

Answer: C

289. If d is the thickness of a concrete pavement, the equivalent radius b of resisting section for an interior loading, is

A. b = √(0.6 + d2) – 0.675 d

B. b = √(1.6 + d2) + 0.675 d

C. b = √(1.6 + d2) – 3.675 d

D. b = √(1.6 + d2) – 0.675 d

Answer: D

290. Roughness index of roads, is expressed as

A. Size of the stone on the pavement

B. Number of patches on the pavement

C. Cumulative deformation of surface per horizontal distance

D. Type of the road surface

Answer: C

291. To indicate proper control of consistency of a freshly mixed concrete for pavement construction, the slump should be between

A. 3 to 5 cm

B. 4 to 6 cm

C. 5 to 7 cm

D. 7 to 10 cm

Answer: D

292. If the cross slope of a country is 25% to 60%, the terrain is classified as

A. Plain

B. Rolling

C. Steep

D. Mountainous

Answer: D

293. To prevent movement of moisture from sub-grade to road pavement at the same level as that of water-table, thickness of a cut off layer of coarse sand, is

A. 15 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 30 cm

D. 45 cm

Answer: A

294. Retaining walls are generally constructed with dry rubble stones with 60 cm top width and

A. 1 : 2 front batter

B. 1 : 3 front batter

C. 1 : 4 front batter

D. 1 : 5 front batter

Answer: B

295. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Tresguet did not provide the top camber for the drainage of surface water

B. Tresguet provided the top camber for the drainage of surface water

C. Telford provided two layers of stones in the central 5.4 m width and one layer was provided on the sides

D. Macadam provided a camber to the formation at the dug-up state, to drain percolated water

Answer: A

296. In cement concrete pavements, tensile stress is due to:

A. Bending or deflection under wheel loads

B. Difference in temperature of the top and bottom of pavement

C. Contraction of slab during falling temperature

D. All the above

Answer: D

297. If L is the length of vehicles in meters, C is the clear distance between two consecutive vehicles (stopping sight distance), V is the speed of vehicles in km/hour, the maximum number N of vehicles/hour, is

A. N = 1000 V / (L + C)

B. N = (L + C) / 1000 V

C. N = 1000 L / (C + V)

D. N = 1000 C / (L + V)

Answer: A

298. Extra widening required at a horizontal curve on a single lane hill road of radius 80 m for a design speed of 50 kmph and for a vehicle with wheel base 6.0 m is

A. 0.225 m

B. 0.589 m

C. 1.250 m

D. None of these

Answer: B

299. When an up gradient of a highway meets a downgrade, the vertical curve provided, is known as

A. Valley curve

B. Sag curve

C. Summit curve

D. All the above

Answer: C

300. Customers prefer parking of their vehicles at

A. 90° to aisles

B. 85° to aisles

C. 80° to aisles

D. 75° to aisles

Answer: D

301. Parapet walls along hill roads, are provided

A. To retain the back filling

B. To prevent the hill from sliding

C. To prevent the wheels of the vehicle from coming on the retaining wall

D. None of these

Answer: C

302. An ideal vertical curve is

A. True spiral

B. Cubic spiral

C. Cubic parabola

D. None of these

Answer: D

303. For calculating the tractive force along an upgrade of an asphalt road, the most probable value of the co-efficient of traction resistance μ is assumed

A. 1/10

B. 1/20

C. 1/30

D. 1/100

Answer: D

304. If the ruling gradient on any highway is 3%, the gradient provided on the curve of 300 metre radius, is

A. 2.00 %

B. 2.25 %

C. 2.50 %

D. 2.75 %

Answer: D

305. If P is the number of vehicles per day at last census, r is the increase in traffic and n is the number of years passed after last census, number of vehicles A per day for design, is

A. P (1 + r)n

B. P (1 – r)n

C. P (1 + r)-n+5

D. P (1 + r)5n

Answer: C

306. The period of long term plan for the development of roads in India, known as Bombay Plan (Aug. 1958), is

A. 5 years

B. 10 years

C. 15 years

D. 20 years

Answer: D

307. California Bearing Ratio method of designing flexible pavements is more accurate as it involves

A. Characteristics of soils

B. Traffic intensities

C. Character of the road making materials

D. None of these

Answer: C

308. The absolute minimum radius of horizontal curve for a design speed 60 km ph is

A. 131 m

B. 210 m

C. 360 m

D. None of these

Answer: D

309. If V is the design speed of vehicles in km/hour, the change of radial acceleration in meters/sec3, is

A. 65/(70 + V)

B. 60/(70 + V)

C. 70/(65+ V)

D. 70/(60 + V)

Answer: C

310. If the number of lanes on the carriageway of a road is more than two, the total width of lane ways is equal to 3.0 m

A. + 0.60 m

B. + 0.70 m

C. + 0.90 m

D. + 1.50 m

Answer: B

311. The convexity provided to the carriageway between the crown and edge of the pavement, is known as

A. Super-elevation

B. Camber

C. Height of the pavement

D. None of these

Answer: B

312. If N is the algebraic difference of grades, S is the minimum sight distance in metres, the length (L) of a summit curve is

A. NS/4

B. NS2/4

C. N2S/4

D. (NS)2/4

Answer: B

313. If the elevations along a road increase, the slope of the road along the longitudinal direction, is known as

A. Gradient

B. Grade

C. Positive grade

D. Negative grade

Answer: A

314. Cement grouted pavement is classified as

A. Rigid pavement

B. Semi-rigid pavement

C. Flexible pavement

D. None of these

Answer: B

315. Non-passing sight distance along a road is the longest distance at which the driver of a moving vehicle, may see an obstacle on the pavement

A. 10 cm high

B. 25 cm high

C. 50 cm high

D. 100 cm high

Answer: A

316. The perpendicular offset from the tan-get to the central point of the circular curve, is

A. R sin θ/2

B. R cos θ/2

C. R (1 – cos θ/2)

D. R (1 – sin θ/2)

Answer: C

317. The width of pavement in addition to a gravelled berm 1 m on either side for a two directional traffic recommended by Nagpur (India) Conference of Chief Engineers, is

A. 4.7 m

B. 5.7 m

C. 6.7 m

D. 7.7 m

Answer: C

318. Minimum stopping distance for moving vehicles on road with a design speed of 80 km/hour, is

A. 80 m

B. 100 m

C. 120 m

D. 150 m

Answer: C

319. The top height of a route marker above crown level is

A. 1.50 m

B. 1.75 m

C. 2.00 m

D. 2.25 m

Answer: D

320. Along horizontal curves, if centrifugal force exceeds lateral friction, vehicles may

A. Skid

B. Slip

C. Not be affected

D. None of these

Answer: A

321. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The super-elevation on roads is

A. Directly proportional to width of pavement

B. Directly proportional to velocity of vehicles

C. Inversely proportional to acceleration due to gravity

D. Inversely proportional to the radius of curvature

Answer: B

322. For clear distinct vision, images of obstructions should fall on the retina with a cone of

A. 2°

B. 3°

C. 4°

D. 5°

Answer: D

323. The basic formula for determination of pavement thickness was first suggested by

A. Spangler

B. Picket

C. Kelly

D. Goldbeck

Answer: D

324. If ‘L’ meters is the distance between extreme axles of a vehicle, its gross load should not exceed

A. 1525 (L + 4.3) – 14.7 L2

B. 1526 (L + 5.3) – 14.7 L2

C. 1525 (L + 6.3) – 14.7 L2

D. 1525 (L + 7.3) – 14.7 L2

Answer: D

325. If x% is the gradient of an alignment and y% is the gradient after proper super-elevation along a curved portion of a highway, the differential grade along the curve, is

A. (x + y) %

B. (x – y) %

C. (y – x) %

D. (y + x) %

Answer: C

326. If At is the area of steel cross-section, t is working stress, L is width of road and W is weight of slab per square metre, the spacing of the tie bars for a longitudinal joint, is

A. (100 At × t)/WL

B. 100 At/tWL

C. (100 WAt × t)/tL

D. 100 WL/Att

Answer: D

327. The shape of a vertical curve, is

A. Parabolic

B. Elliptical

C. Circular

D. Spiral

Answer: A

328. If L is the length of the transition curves provided on either side of a circular curve of radius R, the maximum angle of deflection with tangent for the junctions of the transition curve and circular curve, is

A. L/R

B. L/2R

C. L/3R

D. None of these

Answer: D

329. The inventor of road making as a building science, was

A. Sully

B. Tresguet

C. Telford

D. Macadam

Answer: A

330. The desirable camber for straight roads with water bound macadam or gravel surface, is

A. 1 in 33 to 1 in 25

B. 1 in 40 to 1 in 33

C. 1 in 150 to 1 in 140

D. 1 in 160 to 1 in 140

Answer: B

331. The pavement width of a road depends upon

A. Terrain

B. Type of traffic

C. Number of lanes

D. All the above

Answer: C

332. At a road junction, 16 cross conflict points are severe, if

A. Both are one-way roads

B. Both are two-way roads

C. One is two-way road and other is one-way road

D. None of these

Answer: B

333. Road makers along roads from the edge of a kerb should not be less than

A. 40 cm

B. 45 cm

C. 50 cm

D. 60 cm

Answer: D

334. In India the modes of transportation, in the order of their importance, are

A. Air transport, shipping, roads, railways

B. Shipping, roads, railways, air transport

C. Roads, railways, air transport, shipping

D. Railways, roads, shipping, air transport

Answer: D

335. The absolute minimum sight distance required for stopping a vehicle moving with a speed of 80 kmph, is

A. 120 m

B. 200 m

C. 640 m

D. None of these

Answer: A

336. The usual width of side drains along Highways in hilly region, is

A. 50 cm

B. 60 cm

C. 70 cm

D. 100 cm

Answer: B

337. Design of highways is based on

A. Axle loads

B. Axle spacings

C. Wheel bases

D. All the above

Answer: D

338. The width of the right of way in urban area, is kept between 24 m to 60 m for

A. National Highways

B. State Highways

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of these

Answer: D

339. Thickness of broken centre line markings for a four lane road, is generally kept

A. 10 cm

B. 12 cm

C. 15 cm

D. 18 cm

Answer: C

340. On the recommendations of Nagpur Conference, the minimum width of a village road may be

A. 2.45 m

B. 2.75 m

C. 3.66 m

D. 4.90 m

Answer: A

341. If N is deviation angle the length L of a parabolic vertical curve for overtaking sight distance S, is

A. NS2/9.6 if L > S

B. NS2/9.6 if L < S

C. 2S – 9.6/N if L < S

D. BothA. andC.

Answer: D

342. Maximum super-elevation on hill roads should not exceed

A. 5 %

B. 7 %

C. 8 %

D. 10 %

Answer: D

343. If R is the radius of a main curve and L is the length of the transition curve, the shift of the curve, is

A. L/24 R

B. L2/24 R

C. L3/24 R

D. L4/24 R

Answer: B

344. The length of the side of warning sign boards of roads is

A. 30 cm

B. 40 cm

C. 45 cm

D. 50 cm

Answer: C

345. Minimum permissible speed on high speed roads, is decided on the basis of

A. 15 percentile cumulative frequency

B. 20 percentile cumulative frequency

C. 30 percentile cumulative frequency

D. 40 percentile cumulative frequency

Answer: A

346. For the administration of road transport, a Motor Vehicle Act was enacted in

A. 1927

B. 1934

C. 1939

D. 1947

Answer: C

347. For maximum strength and durability minimum percentage of cement, by weight is

A. 15 %

B. 20 %

C. 25 %

D. 30 %

Answer: D

348. Stability of hill slopes depends upon

A. Nature of the slope

B. Angle of the slope

C. Geological conditions

D. All the above

Answer: D

349. The correct formula for calculating super-elevation for the hill roads, is

A. e = V2/254 R

B. e = V2/225 R

C. e = V2/278 R

D. e = V2/114 R

Answer: B

350. Curves in the same direction separated by short tangents, are called

A. Simple circular curves

B. Compound curves

C. Transition curves

D. Broken-back curves

Answer: D

351. The minimum width of the pavement of a National Highway should be

A. 4.7 m

B. 5.7 m

C. 6.7 m

D. 7.7 m

Answer: B

352. On most smooth hard surfaced roads, rolling resistance to moving vehicles, ranges from

A. 5 kg to 7 kg/tonne

B. 7 kg to 9 kg/tonne

C. 9 kg to 11 kg/tonne

D. 11 kg to 13 kg/tonne

Answer: C

353. Minimum radius of a simple circular curve deflecting through 5°, is

A. 1618.9 m

B. 1816.9 m

C. 1718.9 m

D. 1817.9 m

Answer: C

354. Depth of reinforcement below the surface of a concrete pavement, is generally kept

A. 5 cm

B. 6 cm

C. 7 m

D. 9 m

Answer: A

355. Degree of a road curve is defined as the angle in degrees subtended at the centre by an arc of

A. 10 meters

B. 20 meters

C. 25 meters

D. 30 meters

Answer: B

356. Thickness of broken line markings on multi-lane road for lanes is generally kept

A. 10 cm

B. 12 cm

C. 15 cm

D. 18 cm

Answer: A

357. If V is the velocity in kmph, t the brake reaction time in seconds and η the efficiency of the brakes, the stopping distance S of the vehicle, is

A. 0.28V2t + V/0.01 η

B. 0.28Vt + V2/0.1 η

C. 0.28Vt + 0.01 V2η

D. 0.28Vt + 0.01 V2/η

Answer: C

358. If present A.D.T. is 5000 vehicles and annual increase is 10%, the average future flow after 5 years will be

A. 6050 vehicles

B. 7050 vehicles

C. 8050 vehicles

D. 9050 vehicles

Answer: C

359. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Detailed survey is carried out for a strip of land about 30 m at sharp curves

B. Levels are taken along the trace cut at an interval of 20 m

C. Contour interval is generally adopted at 2 meters vertical interval

D. All the above

Answer: D

360. The maximum radial distance of a Lemniscate curve, having maximum polar angle a, is

A. 3 R sin α

B. 3 R sin2α

C. 3 R sin 2α

D. 3 R sin α/2

Answer: C

HIGHWAY Engineering Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download Online Exam test

[PDF Notes] World Bank is managed by the Board of Governors, the Executive Directors and the President

Like the IMF, the World Bank is managed by (a) the Board of Governors, (b) the Executive Directors and (c) the President.

1. Board of Governors:

The Board of Governors is the general body of the Bank which consists of one Governor (generally the Finance Minister) and one alternate Governor (generally the Governor of the Central Bank) appointed by each member country for the term of five years.

All powers of the Bank are vested in the Board of Governors. The Board is required to meet at least once a year. The voting power of each Governor is in proportion to the member’s financial contribution to the capital of the Bank.

2. Executive Directors:

The Executive Directors are in charge of the general operations of the Bank. At present, there are 21 Executive Directors. Six of them are appointed by the largest shareholders, i.e., the U.S.A., the U.K., Germany, France, Japan and India, and the remaining 15 are elected by other members.

3. President:

The Executive Directors elect the President of the Bank who acts as the chief of the operating staff. He is responsible for the conduct of the ordinary business of the Bank, but is subject to the direction of the Executive Directors in matter of policy.

4. Committees:

The functions of the Bank is further assisted by two committees, (a) Advisory Committee which consists of seven experts appointed by the Board of Governors and (b) Loan Committee which is appointed by the Executive Directors to examine the appropriateness of a loan.

300+ Mcqs on Irrigation Water Resourses Engineering & Hydrology

Irrigation Water Resourses Engineering and Hydrology Questions :-

1. Which of the following methods of applying water may be used on rolling land ?
A. boarder flooding
B. check flooding
C. furrow flooding
D. free flooding
Answer: A

2. The value of Sodium Absorption Ratio for high sodium water lies between
A. 0 to 10
B. 10 to 18
C. 18 to 26
D. 26 to 34
Answer: C

3. Optimum depth of kor watering for rice is
A. 135 mm
B. 165 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 215 mm
Answer: C

4. Irrigation water having the concentration of Na++ , Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 3 and 1 Milli equivalent per litre respectively will be classified as
A. low sodium water
B. medium sodium water
C. high sodium water
D. very high sodium water
Answer: B

5. The duty is largest
A. at the head of water course
B. on the field
C. at the head of a main canal
D. same at all places
Answer: B

6. The “outlet discharge factor” is the duty at the head of
A. main canal
B. branch canal
C. watercourse
D. distributory
Answer: C

7. The kor depth for rice is 190 mm and kor period is 14 days. The outlet factor for this will be
A. 637 hectares/m3/sec
B. 837 hectares/m3/sec
C. 972 hectares/m3/sec
D. 1172 hectares/m3/sec
Answer: A

8. For supplying water to rabi crop, kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel is designed for a capacity equal to the greater of the water requirement of
A. rabi or kharif
B. rabi and kharif or sugarcane
C. rabi and sugarcane or kharif and sugarcane
D. rabi or kharif or sugarcane
Answer: C

9. The ratio of the quantity of water stored in the root zone of the crops to the quantity of water actually delivered in the field is known as
A. water conveyance efficiency
B. water application efficiency
C. water use efficiency
D. none of the above
Answer: B

10. The water utilizable by plants is available in soils mainly in the form of
A. gravity water
B. capillary water
C. hydroscopic water
D. chemical water
Answer: B

11. The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of the crop during its full growth is called
A. effective rainfall
B. consumptive use
C. consumptive irrigation requirement
D. net irrigation requirement
Answer: C

12. With the increase in the quantity of water supplied, the yield of most crops
A. increases continuously
B. decreases continuously
C. increases upto a certain limit and then becomes constant
D. increases upto a certain limit and then decreases
Answer: D

13. Hydrograph is the graphical representation of
A. runoff and time
B. surface runoff and time
C. ground waterflow and time
D. rainfall and time
Answer: A

14. Infiltration rate is always
A. more than the infiltration capacity
B. less than the infiltration capacity
C. equal to or less than the infiltration capacity
D. equal to or more than the infiltration capacity
Answer: C

15. The depth of water required to bring the soil moisture content of a given soil upto its field capacity is called
A. hygroscopic water
B. equivalent moisture
C. soil moisture deficiency
D. pellicular water
Answer: C

16. Infiltration capacity
A. is a constant factor
B. changes with time
C. changes with location
D. changes with both time and location
Answer: D

17. Infiltration is the
A. movement of water through the soil
B. absorption of water by soil surface
C. both (A. and (B.
D. none of the above
Answer: A

18. If the intensity of rainfall is more than the infiltration capacity of soil, then the infiltration rate will be
A. equal to rate of rainfall
B. equal to infiltration capacity
C. more than rate of rainfall
D. more than infiltration capacity
Answer: B

19. Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due to
A. pressure difference
B. temperature difference
C. natural topographical barriers
D. all of the above
Answer: A

20. Which of the following is a non-recording raingauge ?
A. tipping bucket type raingauge
B. Simon’s raingauge
C. Steven’s weighing type raingauge
D. floating type raingauge
Answer: B

21. A raingauge should preferably be fixed
A. near the building
B. under the tree
C. in an open space
D. in a closed space
Answer: C

22. Which of the following types of rain gauges is used for measuring rain in remote hilly inaccessible areas ?
A. tipping bucket type
B. weighing type
C. floating type
D. Simon’s raingauge
Answer: A

23. Rate of evaporation from a water surface increases if
i) difference of vapour pressure between water and air is increased
ii) velocity of wind is decreased
iii) concentration of soluble solids in water is decreased The correct answer is
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (i). (ii) and (iii)
Answer: B

24. A 70% index of wetness means
A. rain excess of 30%
B. rain deficiency of 30%
C. rain deficiency of 70%
D. none of the above
Answer: B

25. Under the same conditions, which of the following shapes of water surface will give the highest rate of evaporation ?
A. flat water surface
B. convex water surface
C. concave water surface
D. independent of shape of water surface
Answer: B

26. Assertion A : To estimate the rainfall over a catchment, the number of raingauges required per unit area is large for hilly areas.
Reason R : Rainfall gradient is steep. Select your correct answer according to the coding system given below :
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer: A

27. When surface of transpiration is submerged under water, then potential evapotranspiration is
A. much more than evapotranspiration
B. much less than evapotranspiration
C. equal to evapotranspiration
D. equal to or less than evapotranspi-ration
Answer: A

28. Unit of runoff in M.K.S. system is
A. cubic metre/sec
B. metre/sec
C. cubic metre
D. square metre
Answer: A

29. The runoff increases with
A. increase in intensity of rain
B. increase in infiltration capacity
C. increase in permeability of soil
D. all of the above
Answer: A

30. The area between the isohyets 45 cm and 55 cm is 100 square km and between 55 cm and 65 cm is 150 square km. The average depth of annua! precipitation over the above basin of 250 square km will be
A. 50 cm
B. 55 cm
C. 56 cm
D. 60 cm
Answer: C

31. A current meter is used to measure the
A. velocity of flow of water
B. depth of flow of water
C. discharge
D. none of the above
Answer: A

32. If it rains between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. and the entire basin area just starts contributing water at 3 P.M. to the outlet, then time of concentration will be
A. 15 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Answer: D

33. The rainfall on five successive days were measured as 100 mm, 80 mm, 60 mm, 40 mm and 20 mm respectively. If the infiltration index or the storm loss rate for the catchment area is earlier estimated as 50 mm/day, the total surface run off will be
A. 50 mm
B. 60 mm
C. 90 mm
D. 140 mm
Answer: C

34. The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm and 800 mm respectively. If the storm precipitation at three station A, B and C were 100 mm, 90 mm and 80 mm respectively, then the storm precipitation for station X will be
A. 70mm
B. 80mm
C. 90 mm
D. 105 mm
Answer: A

35. The best unit duration of storm for a unit hydrograph is
A. 1 hour
B. one-fourth of basin lag
C. one-half of basin lag
D. equal to basin lag
Answer: B

36. The unit hydrograph due to a storm may be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the direct runoff hydrograph by
A. direct runoff volume
B. period of storm
C. total rainfall
D. none of the above
Answer: A

37. The unit hydrograph of a specified duration can be used to evaluate the hydrograph of storms of
A. same duration only
B. same and shorter duration
C. same and longer duration
D. any duration
Answer: D

38. S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of
A. shorter duration from longer duration
B. longer duration from shorter duration
C. both (A. and (B.
D. none of the above
Answer: C

39. The relation between probability (P) and recurrence interval (T) is given by
A. PT = 1
B. PT2 = 1
C. P/T = 1
D. P/T2 = 1
Answer: A

40. Dimensions of coefficient of transmissibility are
A. M°L°T°
B. rvfL’T”1
C. M° L2 T1
D. M’LV
Answer: C

41. If d is the depth of the aquifer through which water is flowing, then the relationship between permeability k and transmissible T is given by
A. T = kd
B. T = k/d
C. T= Vkd
D. k= VTd
Answer: A

42. An artesian aquifer is the one where
A. water surface under the ground is at atmospheric pressure
B. water is under pressure between two impervious strata
C. water table serves as upper surface of zone of saturation
D. none of the above
Answer: B

43. A deep well
A. is always deeper than a shallow well
B. has more discharge than a shallow well
C. is weaker structurally than a shallow well
D. both (A. and (B.
Answer: B

44. A multipurpose reservoir is the one which is
A. designed for one purpose but serves more than one purpose
B. planned and constructed to serve various purposes
C. both (A. and (B.
D. none of the above
Answer: B

45. The useful storage is the volume of water stored in the reservoir between
A. minimum pool level and maximum pool level
B. minimum pool level and normal pool level
C. normal pool level and maximum pool level
D. river bed and minimum pool level
Answer: B

46. The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called
A. useful storage
B. dead storage
C. valley storage
D. surcharge storage
Answer: B

47. For a flood control reservoir, the effective storage is equal to
A. useful storage – valley storage
B. useful storage + surcharge storage
C. useful storage + surcharge storage + valley storage
D. useful storage + surcharge storage -valley storage
Answer: D

48. Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of
A. capacity/inflow ratio
B. capacity/outflow ratio
C. outflow/inflow ratio
D. none of the above
Answer: A

49. The total capacity of a reservoir is 25 million cubic metres and dead storage is 5 million cubic metres. If the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.10 million cubic metre per year, then the usefulness of the reservoir will start reducing after
A. 50 years
B. 150 years
C. 200 years
D. 250 years
Answer: A

50. The forces, which are considered for the analysis of an elementary profile of a gravity dam under empty reservoir condition, are
i) Water pressure
ii) Self weight
iii) Uplift
iv) Pressure due to earthquake
The correct answer is
A. Only (ii)
B. (i), (ii) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: A

51. When the upstream face of a gravity dam is vertical, then the intensity of water pressure at the water surface and at the base respectively will be
A. 0 and wH212
B. wH2/2and wH2/3
C. wH and 0
D. OandwII
where w is unit weight of water and H is the depth of water.
Answer: D

52. The uplift pressure on a dam can be controlled by
i) constructing cutoff under upstream face
ii) constructing drainage channels bet-ween the dam and its foundation
iii) by pressure grouting in foundation
The corret answer is
A. only (i)
B. both (i) and (ii)
C. both (i) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: D

53. The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery in a dam is taken as
A. hydrostatic pressure at toe
B. average of hydrostatic pressure at toe and heel
C. two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel
D. none of the above
Answer: C

54. Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake results in
A. hydrodynamic pressure
B. inertia force into the body of the dam
C. both (A. and (B.
D. none of the above
Answer: C

55. Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a height of
A. 3H/47I above the base
B. 3H747t below the water surface
C. 4H/371 above the base
D. 4H737t below the water surface where H is the depth of water.
Answer: C

56. The major resisting force in a gravity dam is
A. water pressure
B. wave pressure
C. self-weight of dam
D. uplift pressure
Answer: C

57. When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is produced
A. at the toe
B. at the heel
C. within the middle third of base
D. at centre of base
Answer: A

58. The maximum permissible eccentricity for no tension at the base of a gravity dam is
A. B/2
B. B/3
C. B/4
D. B/6
Answer: D

59. Presence of tail water in a gravity dam
i) increases the principal stress
ii) decreases the principal stress
iii) increases the shear stress
iv) decreases the shear stress
The correct answer is
A. (i) and (iii)
B. (i)and(iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

60. For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal to
A. 0.5 hw
B. 0.75 hw
C. 1.25 hw
D. 1.50 hw
where hw is height of wave.
Answer: D

61. As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams
A. are costlier
B. are less susceptible to failure
C. require sound rock foundations
D. require less skilled labour
Answer: D

62. The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam is
A. clay
B. coarse sand
C. silty clay
D. clay mixed with fine sand
Answer: D

63. Seepage through embankments in an earthen dam is controlled by
A. drainage filters
B. relief wells
C. drain trenches
D. provision of downstream berms
Answer: C

64. Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing
A. rock toe
B. horizontal blanket
C. impervious cut off
D. chimney drain
Answer: C

65. The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway respectively are
A. at right angle and parallel to weir crest
B. parallel and at right angle to weir crest
C. parallel to weir crest in both
D. at right angle to weir crest in both
Answer: A

66. The discharge passing over an ogee spillway is given by
A. CLH3/2
B. CHL3/2
C. CLH5/2
D. CLH1/2
where, L is effective length of spillway crest and H is the total head over the spillway crest including velocity head.
Answer: A

67. Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway
A. depends on depth of approach and upstream slope
B. depends on downstream apron interference and downstream submergence
C. remains constant
D. both (A. and (B.
Answer: D

68. Which of the following spillways is least suitable for an earthen dam ?
A. ogee spillway
B. chute spillway
C. side channel spillway
D. shaft spillway
Answer: A

69. In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway is
A. straight drop spillway
B. shaft spillway
C. chute spillway
D. ogee spillway
Answer: B

70. In a chute spillway, the flow is usually
A. uniform
B. subcritical
C. critical
D. super critical
Answer: D

71. For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope is
A. sudden drawdown
B. steady seepage
C. during construction
D. sloughing of slope
Answer: A

72. If there are two canals taking off from each flank of a river, then there will be
A. one divide wall and one undersluice
B. one divide wall and two undersluices
C. two divide walls and one undersluice
D. two divide walls and two undersluices
Answer: D

73. Generally the weir is aligned at right angles to the direction of the main river current because
A. it ensures less length of the weir
B. it gives better discharging capacity
C. it is economical
D. all of the above
Answer: D

74. The main function of a divide wall is to
A. control the silt entry in the canal
B. prevent river floods from entering the canal
C. separate the undersluices from weir proper
D. provide smooth flow at sufficiently low velocity
Answer: C

75. A divide wall is provided
A. at right angle to the axis of weir
B. parallel to the axis of weir and up-stream of it
C. parallel to the axis of weir and down-stream of it
D. at an inclination to the axis of weir
Answer: A

IRRIGATION WATER RESOURSES Engineering and Hydrology Interview Questions and Answers

76. As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the under sluice portion of weir is kept at
A. lower level
B. higher level
C. same level
D. any of the above depending on the design
Answer: A

77. Silt excluders are constructed on the
A. river bed upstream of head regulator
B. river bed downstream of head regulator
C. canal bed upstream of head regulator
D. canal bed downstream of head regulator
Answer: A

78. According to Khosla’s theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff is
A. 0
B. unity
C. infinity
D. very large
Answer: C

79. The minimum size of stone that will remain at rest in a channel of longitudinal slope S and hydraulic mean depth R is given by
A. 4RS
B. 11 RS
C. 7RS
D. 15 RS
Answer: B

80. The ratio of average values of shear stresses produced on the bed and the banks of a channel due to flowing water is
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. greater than 1
D. equal to zero
Answer: C

81. If the critical shear stress of a channel is xc, then the average value of shear stress required to move the grain on the bank is
A. 0.5 xc
B. 0.75 TC
C. xc
D. 1.33 TC
Answer: B

82. As per Lacey’s theory, the silt factor is
A. directly proportional to average par¬ticle size
B. inversely proportional to average par¬ticle size
C. directly proportional to square root of average particle size
D. not related to average particle size
Answer: C

83. Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a discharge of 64 cumecs as per Lacey’s theory will be
A. 19 m
B. 38m
C. 57m
D. 76m
Answer: B

84. Which of the following canal structures is used to remove surplus water from an irrigation channel into a natural drain ?
A. canal fall
B. canal outlet
C. canal escape
D. canal regulator
Answer: C

85. For a proportional outlet, the flexibility is
A. zero
B. between zero and 1
C. 1
D. greater than 1
Answer: C

86. The sensitivity of a rigid module is
A. zero
B. between zero and one
C. 1
D. infinity
Answer: A

87. Which of the following is a flexible outlet ?
A. submerged pipe outlet
B. Kennedy’s gauge outlet
C. Gibb’s outlet
D. none of the above
Answer: B

88. A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform and a baffle wall is called
A. vertical dropfall
B. glacis fall
C. Montague type fall
D. inglis fall
Answer: D

89. Which of the following types of falls use parabolic glacis for energy dissipation ?
A. vertical drop fall
B. glacis fall
C. Montague type fall
D. inglis fall
Answer: C

90. In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used for discharge upto
A. 6 cumecs
B. 10 cumecs
C. 14 cumecs
D. 20 cumecs
Answer: C

91. Which of the following can be used as a meter fall ?
A. vertical drop fall
B. flumed glacis fall
C. unflumed glacis fall
D. all of the above
Answer: A

92. Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height upto
A. 0.5 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 3.5 m
D. 5.0 m
Answer: B

93. Which of the following canal outlets maintains a constant discharge ?
A. non-modular outlet
B. flexible outlet
C. rigid module
D. none of the above
Answer: C

94. The ratio of rate of change of the discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of the discharge of distributing channel is called
A. proportionality
B. flexibility
C. setting
D. sensitivity
Answer: B

95. The drainage water intercepting the canal can be disposed of by passing the canal below the drainage in
A. aqueduct and syphon aqueduct
B. aqueduct and super passage
C. super passage and canal syphon
D. level crossing
Answer: C

96. If the R.L’s of canal bed level and high flood level of drainage are 212.0 m and 210.0 m respectively, then cross drainage work will be
A. aqueduct
B. superpassage
C. syphon
D. syphon aqueduct
Answer: C

97. The aqueduct or superpassage type of works are generally used when
A. high flood drainage discharge is small
B. high flood drainage discharge is large and short lived
C. high flood drainage discharge is large and continues for a long time
D. none of the above
Answer: A

98. An aggrading river is a
A. silting river
B. scouring river
C. both silting and scouring river
D. neither silting nor scouring river
Answer: A

99. Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of
A. meander belt to meander length
B. meander length to meander belt
C. curved length along the channel to the direct axial length of the river reach
D. direct axial length of the river reach to curved length along the channel
Answer: C

100. The meander pattern of a river is developed by
A. average discharge
B. dominant discharge
C. maximum discharge
D. critical discharge
Answer: B

101. The main cause of meandering is
A. presence of an excessive bed slope in the river
B. degradation
C. the extra turbulence generated by the excess of river sediment during floods
D. none of the above
Answer: C

102. Tortuosity of a meandering river is always
A. equal to 1
B. less than 1
C. greater than 1
D. less than or equal to 1
Answer: C

103. Select the correct statement.
A. A meander increases the river length but a cut off reduces the river length.
B. A cutoff increases the river length but a meander reduces the river length.
C. Both meander and cutoff increase the river length.
D. Both meander and cutoff decrease the river length.
Answer: A

104. River training for depth is achieved by
A. groynes
B. construction of dykes or leavees
C. both (A. and (B.
D. groynes and bandalling
Answer: D

105. Main purpose of mean water training for rivers is
A. flood control
B. to provide sufficient depth of water in navigable channels, during low water periods
C. to preserve the channel in good shape by efficient disposal of suspended and bed load
D. all of the above
Answer: C

106. If D is the depth of scour below original bed, then the width of launching apron is generally taken as
A. 1.2 D
B. 1.5 D
C. 2.0 D
D. 2.5 D
Answer: B

107. Study the following statements.
i) Levees are constructed parallel to river flow,
ii) Spurs are constructed parallel to river flow,
iii) Levees are constructed transverse to river flow,
iv) Spurs are constructed transverse to river flow.
The correct answer is
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
Answer: B

108. A repelling groyne is aligned
A. pointing upstream
B. pointing downstream
C. perpendicular to bank
D. parallel to bank
Answer: A

109. A river training work is generally required when the river is
A. aggrading type
B. degrading type
C. meandering type
D. both (A. and (B.
Answer: C

110. A river bend characterized by silting
A. scouring on concave side
B. silting on convex side
C. scouring on convex side and on concave side
D. scouring on concave side and silting on convex side
Answer: D

111. Select the incorrect statement.
A. Intensive irrigation should be avoided in areas susceptible to water logging.
B. Extensive irrigation should be adopted in areas susceptible to water logging.
C. Lift irrigation increases water logging.
D. all of the above
Answer: C

112. A land is known as waterlogged
A. when the permanent wilting point is reached
B. when gravity drainage has ceased
C. capillary fringe reaches the root zone of plants
D. none of the above
Answer: C

113. Lining of irrigation channels
A. increases the waterlogging area
B. decreases the waterlogging area
C. does not change the water logging area
D. none of the above
Answer: B

114. A runoff river plant is
A. a low head scheme
B. a medium head scheme
C. a high head scheme
D. none of the above
Answer: A

115. The net speed under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency is called
A. design speed
B. rated speed
C. gross speed
D. operating speed
Answer: A

116. A runoff river plant
A. is a medium head scheme
B. generates power during peak hours only
C. is suitable only on a perennial river
D. has no pondage at all
Answer: C

117. The net head under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency at synchronous speed is called
A. design head
B. rated head
C. gross head
D. operating head
Answer: A

118. The ratio of the average load to the installed capacity of the plant whose reserve capacity is zero will be equal to
A. load factor
B. plant factor
C. utilisation factor
D. both (A. and (B.
Answer: D

119. A hydroelectric scheme operating under a head of 80 m will be classified as
A. low head scheme
B. medium head scheme
C. high head scheme
D. none of the above
Answer: C

120. A hyetograph is a graphical representation of
A. rainfall intensity and time
B. rainfall depth and time
C. discharge and time
D. cumulative rainfall and time
Answer: A

121. Variability of rainfall is
i) largest in regions of high rainfall
ii) largest in coastal areas
iii) largest in regions of scanty rainfall
The correct answer is
A. only (i)
B. (i) and (ii)
C. only (iii)
D. (ii) and (iii)
Answer: C

122. In India, which of the following is adopted as standard recording raingauge ?
A. Symon’s raingauge
B. tipping bucket type
C. natural syphon type
D. weighing bucket type
Answer: C

123. The maximum average depth due to one day storm over an area of 100 km2 is 100 mm. Depth-Area-Duration (DAD. curves indicate that for the same area of 100 km2 the maximum average depth for a 3 hour storm will be
A. 100 mm
B. more than 100 mm
C. less than 100 mm
D. none of the above
Answer: B

124. The maximum rainfall depth of 300 mm in 24 hours has a return period of 100 years. The probability of 24 hours rainfall equal to or greater than 300 mm occurring at least once in 10 years is given by
A. (0.99)10
B. 1 – (0.99)10
C. (0.9)’00
D. l-(0.9)100
Answer: B

125. The most suitable chemical which can be applied to the water surface for reducing evaporation is
A. methyl alcohol
B. ethyl alcohol
C. cetyl alcohol
D. butyl alcohol
Answer: C

126. Interception losses are due to
i) evaporation
ii) transpiration
iii) stream flow
The correct answer is
A. only (i)
B. (i)and(ii)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: A

127. A 6 hours storm had 4 cm of rainfall and the resulting runoff was 2 cm. If <j) index remains at the same value, the runoff due to 10 cm of rainfall in 12 hours in the catchment is
A. 4.5 cm
B. 6.0 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 9.0 cm
Answer: B

128. Which of the following methods is used to estimate flood discharge based on high water marks left over in the past ?
A. slope-area method
B. area-velocity method
C. moving boat method
D. ultra-sonic method
Answer: A

129. To determine the discharge at a section in a stream from its rating curve, the required data are
i) slope of water surface at the section
ii) stage at the section iii) current meter readings at the section The correct answer is
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. only (ii)
D. only (iii)
Answer: C

130. The stage of river carrying a discharge of Q m7sec at a point is 10 m and slope of water surface is (1/4000). The discharge of a flood at the same point and same stage of 10 m with a water surface slope of(l/1000)willbe
A. V2 Q m3/sec
B. 0.5 Q mVsec
C. 2 Q m3/sec
D. 4 Q m3/sec
Answer: C

131. The stream which does not have any base flow contribution is called
A. perennial stream
B. intermittent stream
C. ephemeral stream
D. none of the above
Answer: C

132. The flow-mass curve is graphical representation of
A. cumulative discharge and time
B. discharge and percentage probability of flow being equaled or exceeded
C. cumulative discharge, volume and time in chronological order
D. discharge and time in chronological order
Answer: C

133. If the demand line drawn from a ridge in a flow mass curve does not intersect the curve again, it indicates that
A. demand cannot be met by inflow
B. reservoir was not full at the beginning
C. both (A. and (B.
D. none of the above
Answer: A

134. The shape of recession limb of a hydrograph depends upon
A. basin characteristics only
B. storm characteristics only
C. both (A. and (B.
D. none of the above
Answer: A

135. Instantaneous unit hydrograph is a hydrograph of
i) unit duration
ii) unit rainfall excess
iii) infinitely small duration
iv) infinitely small rainfall excess
The correct answer is
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i)and(iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
Answer: C

136. For a catchment area of 120 km2, the equilibrium discharge in m3/hour of an S-curve obtained by the summation of 6 hour unit hydro graph is
A. 0.2 x 106
B. 0.6 x 106
C. 2.4 xlO6
D. 7.2 xlO6
Answer: A

137. A unit hydro graph has one unit of
A. rainfall duration
B. rainfall excess
C. time base of direct runoff
D. discharge
Answer: B

138. The peak of a 4 hour flood hydrograph is 240 m3/sec . If the rainfall excess is 80 mm and base flow which is constant is 40 m3/sec, then the peak of 4-hours unit hydrograph will be
A. 20 3/sec
B. 25 m3/sec
C. 30 m3/sec
D. 35 m3/sec
Answer: B

139. To estimate the magnitude of a flood with a return period of T years, Gumbel’s distribution method requires the following data pertaining to annual flood series
i) mean value
ii) standard deviation
iii) length of record
iv) coefficient of skew
The correct answer is
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i),(iD and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: B

140. For an annual flood series arranged in descending order of magnitude, the return for a magnitude listed at position period m in a total data N is
A. N/(m+l)
B. m/(N+l)
C. m/N
D. (N+l)/m
Answer: D

141. If the risk of a flood occurring in the next 10 years is accepted to 10%, then the return period for design should be
A. 1 + (0.9)010
B. 1 – (0.9)°l0
C. 1/(1-0.9°10)
D. 1/(1+ 0.9010)
Answer: C

IRRIGATION WATER RESOURCES Engineering and Hydrology Questions Answers pdf free download ::

[PDF Notes] What are the Major Achievements of the World Bank ?

Major Achievements of the World Bank are as follows:

1. General Progress:

(i) The Bank’s membership has increased from the initial number of 30 countries to 68 countries in 1960 and to 151 countries in 1988.

(ii) The subscribed capital has increased from the initial amount of $ 10,000 million to $ 19,300 million in 1960 and further to $ 91,436 million in 1988. This increased capital has led to the expansion of the Bank’s lending capacity.

(iii) In 1960, the Bank approved loans worth $ 659 million which went up to $ 14,762 million in 1988.

(iv) The disbursement of loans increased from $ 544 million in 1960 to $11636 million in 1988.

(v) In 1960, 31 operations were approved for financial assistance. In 1988, the number of operations approved increased to 118.

(vi) Cumulatively, up to June 1988, the IBRD has provided loans worth $155049 million (as shown in Table-2).

2. Lending Operations:

It is clear from Table-2 that till June, 1988, the IBRD has granted loans worth $155049 million. About 22% of the Banks aggregate lending is for energy, 21% for agriculture and rural development, 18% for transportation and communications and 10% for industry and small scale enterprises.

3. Term Loans:

The Bank grants medium and long-term loans (i.e., payable over a period of 15-20 years) for reconstruction and development purposes to the member countries. The actual term of a loan depends upon the estimated useful life of the equipment or plant financed.

4. Loans for Reconstruction:

In the initial years of its establishment, the World Bank’s loans were mainly directed to the European countries (whose economies were shattered during the World War II) for financing their programmes of reconstruction. The Bank provided loans worth about $ 5, 00 million for reconstruction purpose.

5. Traditional Development Loans Policy:

In 1948, the Bank started paying attention to lending for development purposes. The traditional development loan policy of the Bank has been to help the member nations to strengthen the foundations of their economies for rapid economic development.

Therefore, the major portion of the Bank’s assistance has gone to finance infrastructure of the borrowing country.

About half of the loans have been for the development of electric power projects and the other half for the development of other sectors, i.e. transport, agriculture and industry.

6. New Loan Strategy:

Recently, however, the Bank has changed its development loan strategy and lays more emphasis of financing schemes which directly influence the well-being of poor masses of the member countries, especially the developing countries.

The bank’s adoption of the new strategy of ‘development with justice’ has led to the following changes in the sectoral finance.

(i) The amount of agricultural loans has increased more rapidly than in any other sector. The emphasis in agricultural has also shifted from basic irrigation infrastructure to storage, marketing, seed multi­plication, forestry, fishery, etc.

(ii) The bank now also takes interest in the activities of the development of rural areas such as (a) spread of education among the rural people ; (b) development of feeder roads in rural areas ; and (c) electrification of the villages.

(iii) The main features of the Bank’s assistance to the industrial sector are: (a) considerable increase in the direct lending to industries, particularly the public sector industries; (b) more emphasis on the heavy industries like mining, steel, fertilisers, pulp and paper ; (c) greater attention to fertilisers projects for agricultural industrial development; (d) greater emphasis on labour-intensive small scale industries and primary export-oriented industries ; and (e) support for development finance com­panies.

(iv) In the electric power sector, the Bank’s emphasis has shifted from generation and transmission of electricity to distribution of electric power and rural electrification.

(v) Other schemes financed by the Bank include water supply and sewerage, housing and other facilities for the urban poor, tourism, etc.

7. Assistance to Underdeveloped Countries:

The World Bank has a special role in accelerating the process of economic and welfare schemes in these countries. The following are the main aspects of Bank’s assistance to the underdeveloped countries :

(i) Bulk of the Bank’s financial assistance has been given to the underdeveloped countries for the promotion of development.

(ii) Through its ‘third window”, the Bank has made available loans to the underdeveloped countries at tower interest rates.

(iii) The Bank organises meetings of creditor countries for extending assistance to the developing countries. Aid India Club is one such example.

(iv) The Bank also provides technical assistance to the developing countries by making available training facilities through its various institutions.

(v) The Bank has established two subsidiary institutions for promoting development in the less developed countries; (a) In 1956, International Finance Corporation was established to stimulate productive investment in developing countries, (b) In 1960, International Development Association was estab­lished to provide liberal and concessional finance to the developing countries.

(vi) The IBRD’s lending to the poorest countries (i.e., those with per capital income less than $425 in 1986) has increased from an annual average of $1122 million during 1979-83 to 3439 in 1988.