300+ [REAL TIME] Emc Vmax Interview Questions

  1. 1. What Are The Major Components Of Symmetrix Vmax?

    System Bay: 

    • VMAX Engines 
    • Matrix Interface Board Enclosure (MIBE) 
    • Power subsystem components 
    • Standby power supplies (SPS) 
    • Service Processor (server, keyboard/video/mouse, UPS). 

    VMAX Engine:
     

    Symmetrix VMAX systems provide up to eight VMAX Engines within a system bay on standard configurations and up to four VMAX Engines on extended drive loop configurations. Each VMAX Engine includes: 

    Two directors that support front-end, back-end and SRDF connections. Each director has:

    • 16, 32, or 64 GB of physical memory 
    • One System Interface board (SIB) that connects the director and the Matrix Interface Board Enclosure (MIBE) 
    • Two Back End I/O Modules (2 ports, 4 Gb/s) that connect to storage bay drives. 
    • Two I/ O Module carriers that provide connectivity between each director and the front-end I/O ports. Front End 

    I/O Modules support:
     

    • Fibre Channel host connectivity (4 ports, 2, 4, or 8 Gb/s) 
    • Fibre Channel SRDF connectivity (2 ports, 2, 4, 8 Gb/s) 
    • FICON host connectivity (2 ports, 2, 4, or 8 Gb/s) 
    • iSCSI host connectivity (2 ports, 1 Gb/s) 
    • GigE SRDF connectivity. 
    • Two Management Modules that provide environmental monitoring 
    • Two VMAX engine power supplies 
    • Four cooling fans. 

    Storage Bay:
     

    • Disk array enclosures (DAEs) 
    • Power subsystem: PDPs, PDUs, AC connectors 
    • Standby power supply unit (SPS) 
    • Disk array enclosures (DAEs) 

    Each disk array enclosure contains:
     

    • Two redundant disk array enclosure power /cooling fans 
    • Two link control card (LCC) modules 
    • From 5 to 15 drives per direct-attach enclosure 
    • From 4 to 15 drives per daisy-chain enclosure.
  2. 2. What Are The Features Of Vmax Se?

    Supported Disks:
    48 to 360 disks 

    Single V-Max Engine—two directors.

    FICON, Fibre Channel, iSCSI, Gigabit Ethernet connectivity.

    Up to 128 GB global memory.

  3. Networking Interview Questions

  4. 3. What Are Features Of V-max?

    • 96 to 2,400 disks, up to 2 PB—three times more usable capacity.
    • One to eight V-Max Engines (16 directors). 
    • Up to 1 TB (512 GB usable) global mirrored memory.
    • Twice the host ports—Fibre Channel, iSCSI, Gigabit Ethernet, FICON connectivity (up to 128 ports*). 
    • Twice the back-end connections for Flash, Fibre Channel, and SATA drives (up to 128 ports). 
    • Quad-core 2.3 GHz processors to provide more than twice the IOPS.
    • Virtual Matrix architecture connects and shares resources across director pairs, providing massive scalability.
  5. 4. What Are The Management Tools For Symmetrix Vmax?

    Symmetrix Management Console:
     

    The primary interface for managing Symmetrix arrays. 

    EMC z/OS Storage Manager (EzSM):
     

    An Interactive System Productivity Facility (ISPF) interface that manages Symmetrix system arrays in mainframe environments. 

    EMC Control Center:
     

    An intuitive, browser-based family of products that provides management of the overall storage environment, including multi vendor storage reporting, monitoring, configuration, and control. 

    EMC Solutions Enabler SYMCLI:
     

    A library of commands that are entered from a command line or from a script. 

    EMC SMI-S Provider:
     

    An SMI-compliant interface for EMC Symmetrix and CLARiiON arrays.

  6. Networking Tutorial

  7. 5. What Are The Supported Disk Drive Types In Vmax?

    Symmetrix VMAX systems support Flash, Fibre Channel, and SATA II drives.

  8. Data Center Management Interview Questions

  9. 6. What Are The Features Of Enginuity 5874?

    Auto-provisioning Groups:
     

    Simplifies provisioning of configurations with a large number of hosts by allowing the creation of initiator, port and storage groups. Auto-provisioning Groups is especially helpful in large, virtualized server environments that require the availability of many volumes to many host initiators and many storage ports. 

    Dynamic configuration changes

    Allows the dynamic configuration of BCV and SRDF device attributes. Decreases impact to hosts during BCV and SRDF set and clear operations. 

    Concurrent configuration changes:

    Provides the ability run scripts concurrently instead of serially. 

    New Management Integration:

    New Management Integration features free up host resources and simplify Symmetrix system management by allowing you to:

    • Load Symmetrix Management Console on the Service Processor.
    • Attach the Service Processor to your network. 
    • Open a browser window from any server in the network. 
    • Manage the Symmetrix system from anywhere in your enterprise. 

    SRDF Features:

    SRDF Extended Distance Protection (SRDF/EDP), Add and remove dynamic devices to SRDF/A (consistency exempt), Two-mirror SRDF Enginuity Consistency Assist (ECA), SRDF/Star with R22 device protection, 250 SRDF group support ,etc.. 

    Tiered storage optimization:

    Fully Automated Storage Tiering (FAST) — Reduces cost for performance, saves energy, and simplifies storage tier management by allowing the dynamic allocation of data across storage tiers, based on user defined policies and on the changing performance requirements of the applications. 

    Enhanced Virtual LUN technology:
     

    Provides the ability to non disruptively change disk and protection type of a logical volume, and allows the migration of open systems, mainframe, and IBM i volumes to unallocated storage, or to existing volume.

    Virtual Provisioning:
     

    Simplifies storage management:
     

    Improves capacity utilization by allowing the allocation of more storage to than is physically consumed by a host at onset, and is allocated, as needed, from a shared pool. 

    Automates pool re balancing:
     

    Allows users to nondisruptively balance workloads and extend thin pool capacity, in small increments if required, while maximizing performance and reducing total cost of ownership.

  10. 7. Can We Run The Concurrent Configuration Change Sessions On Vmx?

    Yes, each session holds the different configuration change locks.

  11. IBM Mainframe Tutorial
    IBM Mainframe Interview Questions

  12. 8. How Many Configuration Change Sessions We Can Run Concurrently On Vmax?

    Up to four concurrent configuration change sessions are allowed to run at the same time, when they are non-conflicting. This means that multiple parallel configuration change sessions can run at the same time as long as the changes do not include any conflicts on Device back-end port, Device front-end port and on Device.

  13. 9. How Do You List The Reserved Devices?

    Symconfigure -sid “SymID” list -reserved.

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  15. 10. What Are The Advantages Of Auto-provisioning Groups?

    • Eliminates of searching for required storage on arrays.
    • Eliminates the mapping and masking devices which requires separate tasks for each initiator/port combinations. 
    • Eliminates the host interruptions. 
    • Eliminates the storage reclamation.
    • Initiators can be dynamically added or removed from initiator groups. 
    • Ports can be dynamically added or removed from port groups.
    • Storage can be dynamically added or removed from storage groups.
  16. 11. What Are The Different Types Of Ports Can Be A Member Of Initiator Group?

    Only Fibre and Gig-E ports on front end directors allowed.

  17. EMC Interview Questions

  18. 12. What Are The Restrictions Of Initiator Group?

    • Initiator can belongs to only one Initiator Group.
    • Maximum of 32 Initiators contains one initiator group. 
    • Initiator groups can be cascaded.
  19. Networking Interview Questions

  20. 13. What Are The Steps To Replace A Faulty Hba?

    • Find out and Note down the old HBA WWN
    • Symaccess list logins
    • Swap out the old HBA card with new HBA 
    • Discover the new HBA and note down the WWN 
    • Symaccess discover hba or symaccess list hba 
    • Replace the WWN 
    • Symaccess -sid “SymID” replace -wwnn “old WWN” -new_wwn “news WWN” 
    • Establish the new alias for the HBA 
    • Symaccess discover hba -rename
  21. 14. What Are The Advantages Of Thin Provisioning?

    • Reduce the amount of allocated but unused physical storage. 
    • Avoid over allocation of physical storage to applications.
    • Reduces energy consumption and footprint. 
    • Provision independently of physical storage infrastructure. 
    • Minimize the challenges of growth and expansion. 
    • Simplifies data layout. 
    • Saves costs by simplifying procedures to add new storage. 
    • Reduces disk contention and enhances performance. 
    • Maximize return on investment.
    • Avoided the application interruptions/host downtime.
  22. 15. Can You Explain Step By Step Procedure To Implement Virtual/thin Provisioning?

    Creating Data Devices:
     

    Symconfigure -sid “SymID” -cmd “create dev count=16, config=2-Way-Mir, attribute=datadev, emulation=FBA, size=4602;” commit -v -nop 

    Creating Thin Pool: 

    symconfigure -sid “SymID” -cmd “create pool PoolName type=thin;” commit -nop 

    Adding Data Devices to thin pool:
     

    Symconfigure -sid “SymID” -cmd “add dev 10E4:10E5 to pool PoolName type=thin, member_state=ENABLE;” commit -nop 

    Creating Thin Devices:
     

    symconfigure -sid “SymID” -cmd “create dev count=16, size=4602, emulation=fba, config=TDEV;” commit -nop 

    Binding Thin devices to Thin Pool:
     

    symconfigure -sid “SymID” -cmd “bind tdev 10F4:10F7 to pool PoolName;” commit -nop

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  24. 16. How Many Thin Pools Can We Create In An Array?

    The number of pools that can be configured in a Symmetrix array is 512. 

    This is the total number of pools, including Virtual Provisioning thin v pools, SRDF/A Delta Set Extension (DSE) pools, or Time Finder/Snap pools.

  25. 17. Maximum No. Of Data Devices In A Thin Pool?

    As many as data devices can be member of a thin pool, however the limit to the number of thin and data devices that can be configured within a Symmetrix system is 64,000.

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  27. 18. What Are The Thin Pools Recommendations When You Are Adding Data Devices?

    • Only data devices may be placed in a thin pool. 
    • The data devices must all have the same emulation. 
    • The data devices must all have the same protection type. 
    • It is recommended that data devices in a pool all reside on drives that have the same rotational speed. 
    • The data devices in the pool should generally be spread across as many DAs and drives of a given speed as possible. 
    • The devices should be evenly spread across the DAs and drives. 
    • The wide striping provided by Virtual Provisioning will spread thin devices evenly across the data devices. The storage administrator must ensure that the data devices are evenly spread across the back end. 
    • It is recommended that all data devices in a pool are of the same size. Using different size devices could result in uneven data distribution. 
    • The data device sizes should be as large as possible to minimize the number of devices required to encompass the desired overall pool capacity.
  28. Data Center Management Interview Questions

  29. 19. What Are The Vmax Storage Optimization Features?

    Dynamic Cache Partitioning:
     

    Allows the allocation of portions of cache to specific device groups.

    Symmetrix Priority Controls:
     

    Allows the prioritization of read I/O and SRDF/S transfers by host applications. 

    Symmetrix Optimizer:
     

    Optimizes performance by monitoring access patterns on storage arrays and transparently moving data between storage tiers. 

    Virtual LUN:
     

    Allows the movement of data between storage tiers. 

    Fully Automated Storage Tiering (FAST):
     

    provides sophisticated background algorithms that can automate the allocation and relocation of data across storage tiers based on the changing performance of applications. 

    Storage provisioning with symaccess allows you to create a group of devices, a group of director ports, a group of host initiators, and with one command, associate them in what is called a masking view. Once a masking view exists, devices, ports, and initiators can be easily added or removed from their respective groups.

  30. 20. Can You Explain The Step By Step Procedure For Creating Auto Provisioning Groups?

    The steps for creating a masking view are: 

    1. Search the environment for Symmetrix devices on each HBA 
    2. Symaccess discover hba
    3. Create a storage group (one or more devices) 
    4. Symaccess -sid XXXX create -name StorageGroupName -type storage devs 3250:3350 
    5. Create a port group (one or more director/port combinations) 
    6. Symaccess -sid XXXX create -name PortGroupName -type port -dirport 7E:0,7G:1,8F:0 
    7. Create an initiator group (one or more host WWNs or iSCSIs) 
    8. symaccess -sid XXXX create -name InitiatorGroupName -type initiator -wwn wwn 
    9. Create a masking view containing the storage group, port group, and initiator group. 
    10. When a masking view is created, the devices are automatically masked and mapped. 
    11. symaccess -sid XXXX create view -name MaskingViewName -sg StorageGroupName -pg PortGroupName -ig InitiatorGroupName.
  31. Data center infrastructure management (DCIM) Interview Questions

  32. 21. What Is Purpose Fast (fully Automated Storage Tiering)?

    FAST is Symmetrix software that runs background algorithms continuously analyze the utilization (busy rate) of the Symmetrix array devices. 

    FAST can move the most-used data to the fastest storage, such as Enterprise Flash Drives, the least-used data to the slowest storage, such as SATA drives, while maintaining the remaining data on Fibre Channel drives, based on user-defined Symmetrix tiers and FAST policies. 

    The objective of tiered storage is to minimize the cost of storage by putting the right data, on the right Symmetrix tier, at the right time.

  33. 22. How Do You Configure The Symmetrix Array For Fast?

    • By defining symmetrix tiers 
    • By defining FAST Policies 
    • By defining storage groups

300+ Top Electrolysis & Storage of Batteries MCQs Pdf

ELECTROLYSIS and STORAGE of BATTERIES Objective Questions :-

1. “The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity”.
The above statement is associated with

A. Newton’s law
B. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic
C. Faraday’s law of electrolysis
D. Gauss’s law

Answer: C

2. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance is known as ______ constant

A. time
B. Faraday’s
C. Boltzman

Answer: B

3. During the charging of a lead-acid cell

A. its voltage increases
B. it gives out energy
C. its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
D. specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases

Answer: A

4. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its

A. temperature
B. rate of charge
C. rate of discharge
D. quantity of active material

Answer: B

5. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. becomes zero

Answer: A

6. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery are

A. lead and lead peroxide
B. lead sulphate and lead
C. lead peroxide and lead
D. none of the above

Answer: C

7. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the color of its positive plate is

A. dark grey
B. brown
C. dark brown
D. none of above

Answer: C

8. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are

A. nickel hydroxide
B. powdered iron and its oxide
C. 21% solution of KOH
D. all of the above

Answer: D

9. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is

A. just one
B. always greater than one
C. always less than one
D. none of the above.

Answer: B

10. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by

A. output voltage
B. temperature of electrolyte
C. specific gravity of electrolyte
D. none of the above

Answer: C

11. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is

A. nickel-cadmium battery
B. zinc-carbon battery
C. lead-acid battery
D. none of the above

Answer: C

12. The output voltage of a charger is

A. less than the battery voltage
B. higher than the battery voltage
C. the same as the battery voltage
D. none of the above

Answer: B

13. Cells are connected in series in order to

A. increase the voltage rating
(6) increase the current rating
C. increase the life of the cells
D. none of the above

Answer: A

14. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel.
The output voltage is

A. 1 V
(6) 1.5 V
C. 1.75 V
D. 2 V

Answer: D

15. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of

A. current rating
B. voltage rating
(e) ampere-hour rating
D. none of the above

Answer: C

16. During the charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell

A. corrosive fumes are produced
B. water is neither formed nor absorbed
C. nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
D. its e.m.f. remains constant

Answer: B

17. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system of charging a lead acid cell has the advantage of

A. reducing time of charging
B. increasing cell capacity
C. both A and B
D. avoiding excessive gassing

Answer: C

18. A dead storage battery can be revived by

A. adding distilled water
B. adding so-called battery restorer
C. a dose of H2SO4
D. none of the above

Answer: D

19. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to its

A. compactness
B. lower e.m.f.
C. small quantity of electrolyte used
D. higher internal resistance

Answer: D

20. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to

A. maintain proper electrolyte level
B. increase its reserve capacity
C. prevent sulphation
D. keep it fresh and fully charged

Answer: D

21. Those substances of the cell which take active part in chemical combination and hence produce electricity during charging or discharging are known as______materials.

A. passive
B. active
C. redundant
D. inert

Answer: B

22. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulfuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following

A. one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
B. two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
C. three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
D. all H2S04

Answer: C

23. It is noticed that durum charging

A. there is a rise in voltage
(6) energy is absorbed by the cell
C. specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased
D. the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour (PbCfe) and cathode becomes grey metallic lead (Pb)
(e) all of the above
Ans: e

24. It is noticed that during discharging the following does not happen

A. both anode and cathode become PbS04
B. specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
C. voltage of the cell decreases
D. the cell absorbs energy

Answer: D

25. The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between

A. 20 to 30%
B. 40 to 50%
C. 60 to 70%
D. 90 to 95%

Answer: D

26. The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies between

A. 25 to 35%
B. 40 to 60%
C. 70 to 80%
D. 90 to 95%

Answer: C

27. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured in

A. amperes
B. ampere-hours
C. watts
D. watt-hours

Answer: B

28. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on

A. rate of discharge
B. temperature
C. density of electrolyte
D. quantity of active materials
(e) all above
Ans: e

29. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _____ appearance

A. dull
B. reddish
C. bright
D. milky

Answer: D

30. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is nearly

A. 1.4 V
B. 1 V
C. 0.9 V
D. 0.8 V

Answer: A

31. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly _____ times that of the lead-acid cell.

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five

Answer: D

32. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about

A. 1 V
B. 1.2 V
C. 1.7 V
D. 2.1 V

Answer: C

33. On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an Edison cell is about

A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%

Answer: D

34. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is

A. silver oxide
B. lead oxide
C. lead
D. zinc powder

Answer: A

35. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges

A. 500
B. 700
C. 1000
D. 1250

Answer: D

36. Life of the Edison cell is at least

A. five years
B. seven years
C. eight years
D. ten years

Answer: A

37. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell

A. less than
B. more than
C. equal to
D. none of the above

Answer: A

38. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is

A. NaOH
B. KOH
C. HC1
D. HN03

Answer: B

39. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is

A. NaOH
B. onlyH2S04
C. only water
D. dilute H2SO4

Answer: D

40. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of

A. copper
B. lead
C. iron
D. silver oxide

Answer: C

41. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon

A. its chemical constituents
B. on the strength of its electrolyte
C. its temperature
D. all above

Answer: D

42. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by

A. manometer
B. a mechanical gauge
C. hydrometer
D. psychrometer

Answer: C

43. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to 1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in

A. charged state
B. discharged state
C. both A. and B
D. active state

Answer: B

44. In ______ system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum or minimum value

A. two rate charge control
B. trickle charge
C. floating charge
D. an equalizing charge

Answer: A

45. Over charging

A. produces excessive gassing
B. loosens the active material
C. increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
D. all above

Answer: D

46. Undercharging

A. reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
B. increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
C. produces excessive gassing
D. increases the temperature

Answer: A

47. Internal short circuits are caused by

A. breakdown of one or more separators
B. excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell
C. both A. and B
D. none of the above

Answer: C

48. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. none of the above

Answer: A

49. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates happens because of

A. allowing a battery to stand in discharged condition for a long time
B. topping up with electrolyte
C. persistent undercharging
D. low level of electrolyte
E. all above

Answer: E

50. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy during the charge are called ______ materials

A. active
B. passive
C. inert
D. dielectric

Answer: A

51. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as

A. positive active material
B. negative active material
C. passive material
D. none of the above

Answer: B

52. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond

A. 1.8 V
B. 1.9 V
C. 2 V
D. 2.1 V

Answer: A

53. On overcharging a battery

A. it will bring about chemical change in active materials
B. it will increase the capacity of the battery
C. it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
D. none of the above will occur

Answer: D

54. Each cell has a vent cap

A. to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
B. to add water to the cell if needed
C. to check the level of electrolyte
D. to do all above functions

Answer: D

55. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates

A. capacity of the cell is reduced
B. life of the cell is reduced
C. open plates are converted to lead sulphate
D. all above

Answer: D

56. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully charged condition

A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains constant
D. none of the above

Answer: A

57. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of

A. 48 amperes for 1 hour
B. 24 amperes for 2 hours
C. 8 amperes for 6 hours
D. 6 amperes for 8 hours

Answer: D

58. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully charged condition

A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains constant
D. none of the above

Answer: B

59. Battery charging equipment is generally installed

A. in well ventilated location
B. in clean and dry place
C. as near as practical to the battery being charged
D. in location having all above features

Answer: D

60. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.

A. Loss of capacity
B. Loss of life
C. Corrosion of the grids of the plate
D. All above

Answer: D

ELECTROLYSIS & STORAGE of BATTERIES Questions and Answers ::

61. Batteries are charged by

A. rectifiers
B. engine generator sets
C. motor generator sets
D. any one of the above methods

Answer: D

62. Cell short circuit results in

A. low sp. gravity electrolyte
B. abnormal high temperature
C. reduced gassing on charge
D. all above

Answer: D

63. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by

A. using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
B. increasing the plate area
C. putting plates very close together
D. all above methods

Answer: D

64. Capacity of dry cells is

A. more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
B. more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
C. unaffected by the type of discharge
D. none of the above

Answer: A

65. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up of

A. glass
B. plastic
C. wood
D. all above

Answer: D

66. Sulphated cells are indicated by

A. the loss of capacity of the cell
B. the decrease of the specific gravity
C. the low voltage of the cell on discharge
D. all above conditions

Answer: D

67. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following ratio of acid to water to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3

A. 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
B. 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
C. 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
D. 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water

Answer: C

68. Local action in a battery is indicated by

A. excessive gassing under load conditions
B. excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even when the cell is on open circuit
C. both A. and B
D. none of the above

Answer: D

69. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high

A. excessive gassing will occur
B. temperature rise will occur
C. bulging and buckling of plates will occur
D. all above will occur

Answer: D

70. Internal resistance of a cell is due to

A. resistance of electrolyte
B. electrode resistance
C. surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte
D. all above

Answer: D

71. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen

A. current delivered by the battery will be high
B. current drawing will be nil
C. current drawing will be very small
D. current drawing will be very high

Answer: D

72. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its C.G. should be

A. lowered
B. raised
C. undisturbed
D. displaced sideways

Answer: A

73. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen.

A. Capacity of cell will reduce
B. Sulphation of plates will occur
C. Internal resistance will increase
D. All above will occur

Answer: D

74. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending order.

A. Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel cadmium cell
B. Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell
C. Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell
D. Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell

Answer: A

75. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear

A. goggles or other face shield
B. rubber
C. rubber boots and gloves
D. all above safety devices

Answer: D

76. Excessive charging a battery tends to

A. produce gassing
B. increase the internal resistance of the battery
C. to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening them physically
D. bring about all above changes

Answer: D

77. Shelf life of a small dry cell is

A. equal to that of large dry cell
(6) less than that of large dry cell
C. more than that of large dry cell
D. none of the above

Answer: B

78. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of

A. ions
B. holes
C. electrons
D. none of the above

Answer: A

79. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be _____ the level of plates

A. below
B. equal to
C. above
D. none of the above

Answer: C

80. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and negative plates is changed to

A. Pb
B. Pb02
C. PbO
D. PbS04

Answer: D

81 _____ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery

A. colour
B. mass
C. viscosity
D. specific gravity

Answer: D

82. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge

A. colour of electrode
B. gassing
C. specific gravity
D. all above

Answer: D

83. Dry cell is modification of

A. Deniell cell
B. Leclanche cell
C. Lead-acid cell
D. Edison cell

Answer: B

84. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in

A. Ah
B. Vh
C. Wh
D. kWh

Answer: A

85. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is

A. dilute sulphuric acid
B. concentrated sulphuric acid
C. NaOH
D. KOH

Answer: D

86. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is _____ Edison cell.

A. equal to
B. less than
C. more than
D. much more than

Answer: B

87. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on ____ hours discharge rate.

A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24

Answer: A

88. The body of Edison cell is made of

A. bakelite
B. rubber
C. nickel plated steel
D. aluminium

Answer: C

89. Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell is

A. 0.8
B. 0.95
C. 1.1
D. 1.21

Answer: D

90. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle should be by

A. thin aluminium wires
B. thin copper wires
C. rigid cables
D. flexible cables

Answer: D

91. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of _____ volts from fully charged state to fully discharged state.

A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.4
D. 2.9

Answer: C

92. During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte tends to change the active material of the cell into

A. Pb02
(6) PbSC-4
C. PbO
D. Pb

Answer: B

93. Chargmg of sulphated battery produces ____ heat.

A. no
B. very little
C. less
D. more

Answer: D

94. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is more than

A. 2%
B. 4%
C. 6%
D. 8%

Answer: D

95. Weston standard cell at 20°C has voltage of ____ volts.

A. 0.8
B. 0.9
C. 1.0187
D. 1.5

Answer: C

96. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon

A. amount of moisture
B. type of metals
C. type of soil chemicals
D. all above factors

Answer: D

97. Mercury cell has which of the following characteristics ?

A. Flat discharge current-voltage curve
B. High power to weight ratio
C. Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high temperature and humidity
D. All of the above

Answer: D

98. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in

A. boiling of electrolyte due to gassing
B. warping of plates
C. damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case due to excessive temperature
D. all above

Answer: D

99. Short circuiting of a cell may be caused

A. buckling of plates
B. faulty separators
C. lead particles forming circuit between positive and negative plates
D. excessive accumulation of sediment
E. any one of above

Answer: E

100. In a battery cover is placed over the element and sealed to the top of the battery container. This is done

A. to reduce evaporation of water from electrolyte
B. to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the electrolyte
C. to discharge both of the above functions
D. to discharge none of the above functions

Answer: C

101. For a cell to work, which of the following condition(s) become necessary ?

A. Two electrodes of different meta’s should be inserted in the electrolyte, not touching each other
B. Electrolyte must chemically react with one of the electrodes
C. Electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting
D. All above three conditions are necessary

Answer: D

102. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ?

A. Lithium
B. Zinc-chloride
C. Mercury
D. Carbon-zinc

Answer: C

103. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?

A. Manganese-alkaline
B. Carbon-zinc
C. Lithium
D. Mercury

Answer: C

104. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery

A. water is poured into acid
B. acid is poured into water
C. anyone of the two can be added to other chemical

Answer: B

105. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ?

A. Lead-acid battery
B. Nickel-iron battery
C. Dry cell battery
D. Silver oxide battery

Answer: B

106. Which of the following cell has a. reversible chemical reaction ?

A. Lead-acid
B. Mercury oxide
C. Carbon-zinc
D. Silver-oxide

Answer: A

107. Which of the following is incorrect ?

A. A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
B. A lead-acid cell can be recharged
C. A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
D. A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction

Answer: C

108. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V

A. Dilute H2S04
B. Concentrated H2SO4
C. Water
D. Any of the above

Answer: C

109. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be

A. 10% of capacity
B. 20% of capacity
C. 30% of capacity
D. 40% of capacity

Answer: A

110. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that

A. they have same e.m.f.
B. they have same make
C. they have same ampere-hour capacity
D. they have identical internal resistance

Answer: A

111. A typical output of a solar cell is

A. 0.1V
B. 0.26 V
C. 1.1 V
D. 2 V

Answer: B

112. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery

A. prevent local heating
B. prevent short-circuiting
C. reduce path resistance
D. prevent corrosion

Answer: D

113. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of the following will be maximum ?

A. Current
B. Efficiency of the circuit
C. Power in the load resistance
D. Voltage across the load resistance

Answer: C

114. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is

A. chlorine
B. dust particles
C. lead crystals
D. iron

Answer: D

115. In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the form of

A. charged ions
B. chemical energy
C. electrostatic energy
D. electromagnetic energy

Answer: B

116. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an automobile battery ?

A. Brake light
B. Self starter
C. Parking lights
D. Spark plugs

Answer: B

117. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the leadacid battery ?

A. Temperature of surroundings
B. Specific gravity of electrolyte
C. Rate of discharge
D. All of the above

Answer: D

118. Cells are connected in parallel to

A. increase the efficiency
B. increase the current capacity
C. increase the voltage output
D. increase the internal resistance

Answer: B

119. A constant-voltage generator has

A. minimum efficiency
B. minimum current capacity
C. low internal resistance
D. high internal resistance

Answer: C

120. Satellite power requirement is provided through

A. solar cells
B. dry cells
C. nickel-cadmium cells
D. lead-acid batteries

Answer: A

ELECTROLYSIS and STORAGE of BATTERIES Multiple Choice Questions ::

[PDF Notes] Friedman-Phelps model is based on the notion of natural rate of unemployment

Friedman-Phelps model is based on the notion of natural rate of unemployment. It is the rate of unemployment to which the economy returns in the long run after the stabilisation policies are correctly anticipated by the people. The natural rate of unemployment consists of two kinds of unemployment:

(i) Frictional unemployment or the type of unemployment experienced by people who are between steady jobs.

(ii) Unemployment due to rigidities in the economic system and its interferences with labour mobility or wage rate changes. Various rigidities and interferences are:

(a) Union activity which restricts supply of labour;

(b) Licensing arrangements granted by regulatory agencies;

(c) Minimum wages laws and

(d) Welfare system that reduces incentives to work.

According to Friedman, stabilising policy can affect only frictional unemployment and that also temporari­ly by fooling the buyers and sellers of labour. Phillips curve trade-off simply represents a temporary change in the frictional unemployment.

300+ TOP Electromagnetic Induction Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Electromagnetic Induction Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it when the current through the coil changes is known as
(a) self-inductance
(b) mutual inductance
(c) series aiding inductance
(d) capacitance
Answer: a

2. As per Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f. is induced in a conductor whenever it
(a) lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux
(b) lies in a magnetic field
(e) cuts magnetic flux
(d) moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
Answer: c

3. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the electromagnetic field ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Variable resistor
(d) Resistance
Answer: a

4. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except
(a) when more length for the same number of turns is provided
(6) when the number of turns of the coil increase
(c) when more area for each turn is provided
(d) when permeability of the core increases
Answer: a

5. Higher the self-inductance of a coil,
(a) lesser its weber-turns
(b) lower the e.m.f. induced
(c) greater the flux produced by it
(d) longer the delay in establishing steady current through it
Answer: d

6. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil. The inductance of the coil will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) initially increase and then decrease
Answer: b

7. An open coil has
(a) zero resistance and inductance
(b) infinite resistance and zero inductance
(c) infinite resistance and normal inductance
(d) zero resistance and high inductance
Answer: b

8. Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are doubled.
Its self-inductance will be
(a) unaffected
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadrupled
Answer: b

9. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz’s law self-induced voltage will
(a) aid the increasing current
(b) tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent
(c) produce current opposite to the in-creasing current
(d) aid the applied voltage
Answer: c

10. The direction of induced e.m.f. can be found by
(a) Laplace’s law
(b) Lenz’s law
(c) Fleming’s right hand rule
(d) Kirchhoff s voltage law
Answer: b

11. Air-core coils are practically free from
(a) hysteresis losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer: c

12. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on the
(a) flux density of the magnetic field
(b) amount of flux cut
(c) amount of flux linkages
(d) rate of change of flux-linkages
Answer: d

13. Mutually inductance between two magnetically-coupled coils depends on
(a) permeability of the core
(b) the number of their turns
(c) cross-sectional area of their common core
(d) all of the above
Answer: d

14. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because
(a) more wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil
(b) the laminations are insulated from each other
(c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
(d) the laminations are stacked vertfcally
Answer: b

15. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the cause producing them is due to
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Newton
(d) Coulomb
Answer: b

16. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance ?
(a) Henry
(b) Coulomb/volt ampere
(c) Volt second per ampere
(d) All of the above
Answer: b

17. In case of an inductance, current is proportional to
(a) voltage across the inductance
(b) magnetic field
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: b

18. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
(d) All of the above
Answer: b

19. For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true ?
(a) Apparent power is zero
(b) Relative power is.zero
(c) Actual power of the circuit is zero
(d) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charged
Answer: c

20. Which of the following is unit of inductance ?
(a) Ohm
(b) Henry
(c) Ampere turns
(d) Webers/metre
Answer: b

21. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of current must be
(a) 64 A/s
(b) 32 A/s
(c) 16 A/s
(d) 4 A/s
Answer: d

22. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The inductance of coil is 6 mH. If the core length is doubled, all other quantities, remaining the same, the inductance will be
(a) 3 mH
(b) 12 mH
(c) 24mH
(d)48mH
Answer: a

23. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-efficients of coupling is 0.5, the mutual inductance of the coils is
(a) 4 mH
(b) 5 mH
(c) 6 mH
(d) 12 mH
Answer: c

24. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient of coupling of 0.5. If the two coils are connected in series aiding, the total inductance will be
(a) 32 mH
(b) 38 mH
(c) 40 mH
(d) 48 mH
Answer: b

25. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns is increased to 400 turns, all other quantities (area, length etc.) remaining the same, the inductance will be
(a) 6 mH
(b) 14 mH
(c) 24 mH
(d) 48 mH
Answer: d

26. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual inductance being zero. If the two coils are connected in series, the total inductance will be
(a) 6 H
(b) 8 H
(c) 12 H
(d) 24 H
Answer: c

27. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient of coupling will be
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
Answer: b

28. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance is
(a) 50 ohms
(b) 500 ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) 5000 ohms
Answer: d

29. A conductor 2 meters long moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 tesla with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be
(a) 10 V
(6) 15 V
(c) 25V
(d) 50V
Answer: c

30. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) induced current
(b) charge
(c) energy
(d) induced e.m.f.
Answer: c

31. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60° to a magnetic field of 1.1 tesla. The force on the conductor will be nearly
(a) 50 N
(b) 120 N
(c) 240 N
(d) 480 N
Answer: b

32. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes at right angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla.
(a) 100 N
(b) 400 N
(c) 600 N
(d) 1000 N
Answer: a

33. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(a) self-inductance of two coils only
(b) mutual inductance between two coils only
(c) mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils
(d) none of the above
Answer: c

34. An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as a result of a change in flux which occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux change is
(a) 20 Wb
(b) 2 Wb
(c) 0.2 Wb
(d) 0.02 Wb
Answer: d

35. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V. Over what time interval must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a voltage ?
(a) 0.01 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.5 s
(d) 5 s
Answer: c

36. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current losses ?
(a) Air core
(b) Laminated iron core
(c) Iron core
(d) Powdered iron core
Answer: a

37. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1 A/s. The value of inductance is
(a) 3500 mH
(b) 350 mH
(c) 250 mH
(d) 150 mH
Answer: b

38. Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual coupling have a total inductance of
(a) 300 uH
(b) 600 uH
(c) 150 uH
(d) 75 uH
Answer: b

39. Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in one second induced 20 volts in a coil. The value of inductance is
(a) 5 mH
(b) 10 mH
(c) 5 H
(d) 10 H
Answer: c

40. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Resistance only
(b) Inductance only
(c) Capacitance only
(d) Inductance and capacitance
Answer: b

41. A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will result in
(a) unchanged inductance
(b) increased inductance
(c) zero inductance
(d) reduced inductance
Answer: d

42. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced voltage in the coil is not affected by
(a) variation in coil current
(b) variation in voltage to the coil
(c) change of number of turns of coil
(d) the resistance of magnetic path
Answer: b

43. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a conductor that is moving.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans:

44. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the left-hand generator rule.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: a

45. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: b

46. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: a

49. When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle 8 with the lines of flux, the force F is given as : F = Bl sin2 0.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: b

50. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the e.m.f. induced in volts when the current in the circuit changes at the rate of unit Weber turns.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: b

300+ [REAL TIME] EmberJS Interview Questions

1. How Can You Define A New Ember Class?

You can use call the extend () method on Ember. Object to define a new ember class.

2. Explain Application Template?

Application Template is a default template that is used when your application starts.

3. Explain How You Can Create An Ember. Handlebars Template?

Call Ember.Handlebars.Compile() to create an ember. Handlebars template. It will return a function which can be used by ember. view for rendering.

4. What Are Services In Ember.js?

It is a long-lived Ember object that can be made available in different parts of your application. It is created using the following syntax- “ember. Service”

Example uses of Ember.js services include:

  • Logging
  • User/session authentication
  • Geolocation
  • Third-party API’s
  • Web Sockets
  • Server sent events or notifications
  • Server-backed API calls that may not fit ember-data.

Services are generated with the help of ember CLI service generator. If you want to access a service, inject it either in an initializers or use the following syntax- “ember. Inject”. Using this you can even access the properties and methods using services. Use the following syntax to define a service:

Syntax
– ember generate service service _name;

 

5. What Do You Mean By Serializer In Ember.js And What Role Does It Play While Writing A Code?

It is useful when it comes to using a JavaScript Object Notion. Actually, it returns payload from the server into a machine from where it is easy for the users to read it. A very large number of attributes can be represented in a very simple manner and the good thing is there is a well-defined relation between them. With this relation, it is possible for the users to have many different ways to understand and eliminate the bugs from the code.

6. What Do You Know About The Application Template?

When any application starts, this is the default template from where it is operated. Users need to put a Header, footer and any other decorative item that is required to be displayed on the page.

7. How The Data Can Be Added Using Fixture Into An Application?

For doing anything, it is always good to check the procedure with a sample data. This is because the task is sensitive and needs a lot of care for the accomplishment. This can be done with the help of long-term persistence fixtures. However, it is necessary that applications must be connected with each other. The application adapter is to be made the extension of Ds.Fixture. For communication purpose, the adapters can be deployed easily. At the last, the file is to be updated to the model todo.js

8. What Are The Template Components In Ember.js You Are Familiar With? Is There Any Similarity Among Them?

There are certain template components that are extremely powerful in Ember.js and are used for various purposes related to running the code in an error-free manner.

These include: 

  • View
  • Outlet
  • Render
  • Partial
  • Yield

They are similar in one aspect and i.e.  They can be called in all the programs with similar functions.

9. What Is Ember.mixin Class?

Ember.mixin class can create objects, whose functions and properties can be shared among other instances and classes.

10. Are Router And Route In Ember.js Different Terms? If So, How?

Yes, these are different terms. Router is basically a medium that connects the application with browser’s address. It is possible to translate the address into route simply. Because it only acts as a channel, it always makes sure of accuracy. On the other side, Route is a location where the request of a user reaches first after it is made or translated by a Router. It’s nothing but the Route who is responsible for defining the data that is to be sent to the Template.

11. What Are Observers In Ember.js?

Ember supports observing any property which also includes computed properties. Observers are something which contains the behavior that reacts to the changes made in other properties. Observers are used when we need to perform some behavior after a binding has finished synchronizing. New ember developers often use observers. Observers are mostly used within the ember framework and for that; computed properties are the appropriate solution. An observer can be set on an object using the following syntax- “ember. Observer” Observers in ember are synchronous. They will fire as soon as they observe a change in of the properties. And, because of this, it is easy to introduce bugs where properties are not yet synchronized.

12. What Are The Features Of Emberjs?

      • Creating reusable modules.
      • Handlebars Templates.
      • Automatic determines the route and controller during declaration of the route resources.
      • Used routes.
      • Extensive view type support.
      • Easy to configure.

13. What Are The Prime Tasks That Are Performed By Controllers In Ember.js?

Decorating the model which is returned by the route is a very essential task that needs to be performed in the Ember.js. The same is handled by Controllers. It is not always necessary that only a single controller perform s this task but depending on the task itself, there can be need of multiple controllers. In addition to this, there are a lot of actions which users perform; Listening to them is also the responsibility of the controllers.

14. What Is Ember Route? How Can You Generate A Route In Ember.js?

An ember route is built with three parts:

  • An entry in the Ember router which maps between our route name and a specific URI.
  • A route handler file, which sets up what should happen when that route is loaded.
  • A route template, which is where we display the actual content for the page.

In ember when we want to make a new page that can be visited using a URL, we need to generate a “route” using Ember CLI. Hence the generator will print out:

  • Installing route
  • Create app/routes/about.hbs
  • Create app/templates/about.hbs
  • Updating router
  • Add route about
  • Installing route test

To define a route, run ember generates route route-name. This command will generate a file name route-name.js in app/routes/ folder.

15. Explain The Core Concept Of Emberjs?

Store:
It is central repository and cache of all records available in an application. It can be accessed by controller and admin.

Models:
A model is a class which defines the data of properties and behavior.

Records:
A record is an instance of a model which contains information that is loaded from a server.

Adapter:
It is responsible for translating requested records into the appropriate calls t.

Serializer:
Translating JSON data into a record object.

Automatic Caching: Used for caching.

16. What Are Basic Models Of Emberjs?

Routes:
State of application is represented by URL and each URL has a corresponding route object that.

Models:
Use to load data from Server.

Templates:
This is html of layout.

Components:
It is custom tag.

Services:
Services are just singleton objects to hold long-lived data such as user sessions.

17. What Are The Main Components Of V You Are Familiar With?

There are several components of Ember.js that play a significant role in making it best in every aspect.

These are:

      • Routers
      • Templates
      • Views
      • Models
      • Components
      • Controllers
      • Helpers
      • Suffix

18. Explain Directory Structure In Ember.js?

The new command generates a project structure also called directory structure with the following files and directories:

I-app:
– This is where folders and files for models, components, routes, templates, and styles are stored.

I-bower components/ bower.json:
– Bower is a dependency management tool which is used in Ember CLI to manage front-end plugins and component dependencies.

I-config:
– The config directory contains the environment.js where we can configure settings for your app.

I-dist:
-When we build our app for deployment, the output files will be created here.

I-node_modules/package.json:
– Directory and files are from npm. Npm is the package manager for node.js.

Public:
– This directory contains assets such as image and fonts.

Vendor:
– This directory is where front-end dependencies that are not managed by Bower go.

Tests/testem.js:
– Automated tests for our app go in the test folder, and testem is configured in testem.js.

Tmp:
– Ember CLI temporary files live here.

Ember-cli-build.js:
– This file describes how Ember CLI should build our app.

19. What Is Npm Install?

NPM is a NodeJS package manager. It is used to install the node programs.

20. What Is Emberjs?

It is javascript framework based on Model-view-controller (MVC) and written in javascript. It allows developers to create scalable single-page web applications by incorporating common idioms.

In this, Route is used as model; template as view and controller manipulates the data in the model.

21. What Exactly Do You Know About Ember.js?

Ember.js is a JavaScript web framework that is open-source in nature and is one of the best options available when it comes to building single page web applications. Standard application architecture can simply be assured from Ember.js. The good thing is it develops applications that are best in running in the browser.

300+ TOP Magnetic Circuit MCQ Questions and Answers

MAGNETIC CIRCUIT Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :-

1. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to
A. increase m.m.f.
B. increase the flux
C. prevent saturation
D. none of the above
Answer: C

2. The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is
A. less than one
B. more than one
C. more than 10
D. more than 100 or 1000
Answer: D

3. The unit of magnetic flux is
A. henry
B. weber
C. ampereturn/weber
D. ampere/metre
Answer: B

4. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to______ in an electric circuit.
A. resistance
B. resistivity
C. conductivity
D. conductance
Answer: C

5. Point out the wrong statement.
Magnetic leakage is undesirable in electric machines because it
A. lowers their power efficiency
B. increases their cost of manufacture
C. leads to their increased weight
D. produces fringing
Answer: A

6. Relative permeability of vacuum is
A. 1
B. 1 H/m
C. 1/4JI
D. 4n x 10-‘ H/m
Answer: A

7. Permanent magnets are normally made of
A. alnico alloys
B. aluminium
C. cast iron
D. wrought iron
Answer: A

8. Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its current is increased by percent.
A. 25
B. 50
C.41.4
D. 100
Answer: C

9. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which have____permeability and_______hystersis loss.
A. high, high
B. low, high
C. high, low
D. low, low
Answer: C

10. The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is maximum
A. at 63.2% of its maximum steady value
B. at the start of the current flow
C. after one time constant
D. near the final maximum value of current
Answer: B

11. When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are doubled the value of
A. time constant remains unchanged
B. initial rate of rise of current is doubled
C. final steady current is doubled
D. time constant is halved
Answer: A

12. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when suddenly connected to a D.C. supply of 200 V is_______Vs
A. 50
B. 20
C. 0.05
D. 500
Answer: B

13. A material for good magnetic memory should have
A. low hysteresis loss
B. high permeability
C. low retentivity
D. high retentivity
Answer: D

14. Conductivity is analogous to
A. retentivity
B. resistivity
C. permeability
D. inductance
Answer: C

15. In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to
A. rapid reversals of its magnetisation
B. flux density lagging behind magnetising force
C. molecular friction
D. it high retentivity
Answer: D

16. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have _____ retentivity and _______ coercivity.
A. low, high
B. high, high
C. high, low
D. low, low
Answer: B

17. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is large, the hysteresis loss in this material will be
A. zero
B. small
C. large
D. none of the above
Answer: C

18. Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because
A. it has good residual magnetism
B. its hysteresis loop has large area
C. its mechanical strength is high
D. its mechanical strength is low
Answer: A

19. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has
A. low coercivity
B. low retentivity
C. low hysteresis loss
D. high coercivity
Answer: C

20. Conductance is analogous to
A. permeance
B. reluctance
C. flux
D. inductance
Answer: A

21. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
A. reluctivity
B. magnetomotive force
C. permeance
D. reluctance
Answer: D

22. The unit of retentivity is
A. weber
B. weber/sq. m
C. ampere turn/meter
D. ampere turn
Answer: B

23. Reciprocal of reluctance is
A. reluctivity
B. permeance
C. permeability
D. susceptibility
Answer: B

24. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared with which parameter of electrical circuit ?
A. E.m.f.
B. Current
C. Current density
D. Conductivity
Answer: B

25. The unit of reluctance is
A. metre/henry
B. henry/metre
C. henry
D. 1/henry
Answer: D

26. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
A. ferrites have high resistance
B. ferrites are magnetic
C. ferrites have low permeability
D. ferrites have high hysteresis
Answer: A

27. Hysteresis loss least depends on
A. volume of material
B. frequency
C. steinmetz coefficient of material
D. ambient temperature
Answer: D

28. Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used to reduce
A. copper loss
B. eddy current loss
C. hysteresis loss
D. all of the above
Answer: B

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