300+ TOP Engineering Materials MCQs and Answers Quiz

Engineering Materials Multiple choice Questions

1. The composition of silver solder is

A. Silver, copper, zinc

B. Silver, tin, nickel

C. Silver, lead, zinc

D. Silver, copper, aluminium

Answer: A

2. When a steel containing __________ 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly below the lower critical point, it consists of ferrite and pearlite.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: B

3. Pipes for bicycle frames are made of

A. Cold rolled steel

B. Hot rolled steel

C. Forged steel

D. Cast steel

Answer: A

4. Which one of the following metals would work-harden more quickly than the others?

A. Copper

B. Brass

C. Lead

D. Silver

Answer: B

5. Iron-carbon alloys containing carbon ________ 4.3% are known as hyper-eutectic cast irons.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: C

6. Bell metal contains

A. 70% copper and 30% zinc

B. 90% copper and 10% tin

C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel

D. 70 – 75% copper and rest tin

Answer: D

7. The temperature required for full annealing in hypereutectoid steel is

A. 30° C to 50° C above upper critical temperature

B. 30° C to 50° C below upper critical temperature

C. 30° C to 50° C above lower critical temperature

D. 30° C to 50° C below lower critical temperature

Answer: C

8. The charge of the blast furnace consists of

A. Calcined ore (8 parts), coke (4 parts) and limestone (1 part)

B. Calcined ore (4 parts), coke (1 part) and limestone (8 parts)

C. Calcined ore (1 part), coke (8 parts) and limestone (4 parts)

D. Calcined ore, coke and limestone all in equal parts

Answer: A

9. The following element can’t impart high strength at elevated temperature

A. Manganese

B. Magnesium

C. Nickel

D. Silicon

Answer: B

10. The percentage carbon content in wrought iron is about

A. 0.02

B. 0.1

C. 02

D. 0.4

Answer: A

Engineering Materials MCQs

11. Heavy duty leaf and coil springs contain carbon of the following order

A. 0.2%

B. 0.5%

C. 0.8%

D. 1.0%

Answer: D

12. The silicon steel is widely used for

A. Connecting rods

B. Cutting tools

C. Generators and transformers in the form of laminated cores

D. Motor car crankshafts

Answer: C

13. Blast furnace produces following by reduction of iron ore

A. Cast iron

B. Pig iron

C. Wrought iron

D. Malleable iron

Answer: B

14. For a steel containing 0.8% carbon

A. There is no critical point

B. There is only one critical point

C. There are two critical points

D. There can be any number of critical points

Answer: B

15. Nickel in steel

A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness

B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat resistant properties

C. Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability

D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti-corrosion properties

Answer: D

 

16. Which of the following impurity in cast iron makes it hard and brittle?

A. Silicon

B. Sulphur

C. Manganese

D. Phosphorus

(1) Answer: B

17. Tensile strength of steel can be safely increased by

A. Adding carbon up to 2.8%

B. Adding carbon up to 6.3%

C. Adding carbon up to 0.83%

D. Adding small quantities of copper

Answer: C

18. Which of the following metal is used for nuclear energy?

A. Uranium

B. Thorium

C. Niobium

D. All of these

Answer: D

19. Cemented carbide tools are not found to be suitable for cutting

A. Brass

B. Cast iron

C. Aluminium

D. Steel

Answer: D

20. Y-alloy contains

A. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7% manganese and rest aluminium

B. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% manganese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel, 0.6% each of silicon, magnesium and iron, and rest aluminium

C. 4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium

D. 5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium

Answer: B

21. Amorphous material is one

A. In which atoms align themselves in a geometric pattern upon solidification

B. In which there is no definite atomic structure and atoms exist in a random pattern just as in a liquid

C. Which is not attacked by phosphorous

D. Which emits fumes on melting

Answer: B

22. According to Indian standard specifications, SG 400/15 means

A. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with B.H.N. 400 and minimum tensile strength 15 MPa

B. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum tensile strength 400 MPa and 15 percent elongation

C. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum compressive strength 400 MPa and 15 percent reduction in area

D. None of the above

Answer: B

23. Brass (alloy of copper and zinc) is an example of

A. Substitutional solid solution

B. Interstitial solid solution

C. Intermetallic compounds

D. All of the above

Answer: A

24. In process annealing, the hypo eutectoid steel is

A. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled in still air

B. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled suddenly in a suitable cooling medium

C. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled slowly in the furnace

D. Heated below or closes to the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly

Answer: D

25. Pick up the wrong statement

A. Aluminium in steel results in excessive grain growth

B. Manganese in steel induces hardness

C. Nickel and chromium in steel helps in raising the elastic limit and improve the resilience and ductility

D. Tungsten in steels improves magnetic properties and hardenability

Answer: A

26. A coarse grained steel

A. Is less tough and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment

B. Is more ductile and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment

C. Is less tough and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment

D. Is more ductile and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment

Answer: A

27. Pick up the wrong statement Nickel and chromium in steel help in

A. Providing corrosion resistance

B. Improving machining properties

C. Providing high strength at elevated temperatures

D. Raising the elastic limit

Answer: B

28. Normalising of steel is done to

A. Refine the grain structure

B. Remove strains caused by cold working

C. Remove dislocations caused in the internal structure due to hot working

D. All of the above

Answer: D

29. Steel contains

A. 80% or more iron

B. 50% or more iron

C. Alloying elements like chromium, tungsten nickel and copper

D. Elements like phosphorus, sulphur and silicon in varying quantities

Answer: B

30. Which of the following has a fine gold colour and is used for imitation jewellery?

A. Silicon bronze

B. Aluminium bronze

C. Gun metal

D. Babbitt metal

Answer: B

 

31. Elinvar, an alloy used in precision instruments, hair springs for watches, etc. contains the following element as principal alloying element

A. Iron

B. Copper

C. Aluminium

D. Nickel

Answer: D

32. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. Steel with 0.8% carbon is wholly pearlite

B. The amount of cementite increases with the increase in percentage of carbon in iron

C. A mechanical mixture of 87% cementite and 13% ferrite is called pearlite

D. The cementite is identified as round particles in the structure

Answer: C

33. Which of the following has highest specific strength of all structural materials?

A. Magnesium alloys

B. Titanium alloys

C. Chromium alloys

D. Magnetic steel alloys

Answer: B

34. In a hardening process, the hypo-eutectoid steel is

A. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled in still air

B. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled suddenly in a suitable cooling medium

C. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled slowly in the furnace

D. Heated below or closes to the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly

Answer: B

35. The correct composition of Babbitt metal is

A. 87.75% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 0.25% Bi

B. 90% Sn, 2% Cu, 4% Sb, 2% Bi, 2% Mg

C. 87% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 1% Al

D. 82% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 3% Al, 3% Mg

Answer: A

36. When steel containing less than 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly from temperatures above or within the critical range, it consists of

A. Mainly ferrite

B. Mainly pearlite

C. Ferrite and pearlite

D. Pearlite and cementite

Answer: C

37. Dow metal contains

A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe

B. 92.5% aluminium and, 4% copper, 2% nickel and 1.5% Mg

C. 90% aluminium and 90% copper

D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper

Answer: D

38. Body centered cubic space lattice is found in

A. Zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth

B. Gamma iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel

C. Alpha iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum

D. None of the above

Answer: C

39. Which of the following alloys does not have copper as one of the constituents?

A. Delta metal

B. Monel metal

C. Constantan

D. Nichrome

Answer: D

40. In spheroidising process, the steel is

A. Heated below the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly

B. Heated up to the lower critical temperature and then cooled in still air

C. Heated slightly above the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly to a temperature of 600°C

D. None of the above

Answer: C

41. Which of the following alloys does not contain tin?

A. White metal

B. Solder admiralty

C. Fusible metal

D. Phosphor bronze

Answer: A

42. The bond formed by transferring electrons from one atom to another is called

A. Ionic bond

B. Covalent bond

C. Metallic bond

D. None of these

Answer: A

43. Addition of manganese to aluminium results in

A. Improvement of casting characteristics

B. Improvement of corrosion resistance

C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems

D. Improving machinability

Answer: B

44. When medium carbon steel is heated to coarsening temperature

A. There is no change in grain size

B. The average grain size is a minimum

C. The grain size increases very rapidly

D. The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly

Answer: C

45. Admiralty gun metal contains

A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper

B. 88% copper, 10% tin and rest zinc

C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium

D. Iron scrap and zinc

Answer: B

 

46. The alloy, mainly used for corrosion resistance in stainless steels is

A. Silicon

B. Manganese

C. Carbon

D. Chromium

Answer: D

47. The correct sequence for descending order of machinability is

A. Grey cast iron, low carbon steel, wrought iron

B. Low carbon steel, grey cast iron, wrought iron

C. Wrought iron, low carbon steel, grey cast iron

D. Wrought iron, grey cast iron, low carbon steel

Answer: A

48. Duralumin contains

A. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7% manganese and rest aluminium

B. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% manganese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel, 0.6% each of silicon, magnesium and iron, and rest aluminium

C. 4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium

D. 5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium

Answer: A

49. Admiralty brass used for steam condenser tubes contains copper and zinc in the following ratio

A. 50 : 50

B. 30 : 70

C. 70 : 30

D. 40 : 60

Answer: B

50. A steel containing 16 to 18% chromium and about 0.12% carbon is called

A. Ferritic stainless steel

B. Austenitic stainless steel

C. Martenistic stainless steel

D. Nickel steel

Answer: A

51. Ductile cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron

B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable

C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal

D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material

Answer: D

52. Which of the following iron exist between 910°C and 1403°C?

A. α-iron

B. β-iron

C. γ-iron

D. δ-iron

Answer: C

53. Malleable cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron

B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable

C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough, and easily machined metal

D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle. Graphite is in the nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material

Answer: C

54. The presence of hydrogen in steel causes

A. Reduced neutron absorption cross-section

B. Improved Weldability

C. Embrittlement

D. Corrosion resistance

Answer: C

55. Which is the false statement about wrought iron? It has

A. High resistance to rusting and corrosion

B. High ductility

C. Ability of hold protective coating

D. Uniform strength in all directions

Answer: D

56. Which of the following is added in low carbon steels to prevent them from becoming porous?

A. Sulphur

B. Phosphorus

C. Manganese

D. Silicon

Answer: D

57. Which of the following element results in presence of free graphite in C.I.?

A. Carbon

B. Sulphur

C. Silicon

D. Manganese

Answer: C

58. Free cutting steels

A. Contain carbon in free from

B. Require minimum cutting force

C. Is used where rapid machining is the prime requirement

D. Can be cut freely

Answer: C

59. Grey cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron

B. Is also known as chilled cast iron is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable

C. Is produced by annealing process. I is soft, tough and easily machined metal

D. Is produced by small additions o magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material

Answer: A

60. The aluminium alloy, mainly used, for anodized utensil manufacture, is

A. Duralumin

B. Y-alloy

C. Magnalium

D. Hindalium

Answer: D

 

61. White cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron

B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable

C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal

D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material

Answer: B

62. The compressive strength of cast iron is __________that of its tensile strength.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: C

63. Monel metal contains

A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper

B. 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc

C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium

D. Malleable iron and zinc

Answer: A

64. In the lower part of the blast furnace (zone of fusion), the temperature is

A. 400° to 700°C

B. 800°C to 1000°C

C. 1200°C to 1300°C

D. 1500°C to 1700°C

Answer: C

65. The temperature at which ferromagnetic alpha iron transforms to paramagnetic alpha iron is

A. 770°C

B. 910°C

C. 1050°C

D. Below recrystallization temperature

Answer: A

66. The ratio of the volume occupied by the atoms to the total volume of the unit cell is called

A. Coordination number

B. Atomic packing factor

C. Space lattice

D. None of these

Answer: B

67. Which is false statement about annealing? Annealing is done to

A. Relieve stresses

B. Harden steel slightly

C. Improve machining characteristic

D. Soften material

Answer: B

68. When low carbon steel is heated up to upper critical temperature

A. There is no change in grain size

B. The average grain size is a minimum

C. The grain size increases very rapidly

D. The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly

Answer: B

69. Dislocations in materials refer to the following type of defect

A. Point defect

B. Line defect

C. Plane defect

D. Volumetric defect

Answer: B

70. Pearlite consists of

A. 13% carbon and 87% ferrite

B. 13% cementite and 87% ferrite

C. 13% ferrite and 87% cementite

D. 6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron

Answer: B

71. Sulphur in steel

A. Acts as deoxidiser

B. Reduces the grain size

C. Decreases tensile strength and hardness

D. Lowers the toughness and transverse ductility

Answer: D

72. The toughness of a material __________ when it is heated.

A. Remain same

B. Decreases

C. Increases

D. None of these

Answer: B

73. Structural steel contains following principal alloying elements

A. Nickel, chromium and manganese

B. Tungsten, molybdenum and phosphorous

C. Lead, tin, aluminium

D. Zinc, sulphur, and chromium

Answer: A

74. In basic Bessemer process, the furnace is lined with

A. Silica bricks

B. A mixture of tar and burnt dolomite bricks

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of these

Answer: B

75. Aluminium bronze contains

A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe

B. 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg

C. 10% aluminium and 90% copper

D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper

Answer: C

 

76. The material in which the atoms are arranged chaotically, is called

A. Amorphous material

B. Mesomorphous material

C. Crystalline material

D. None of these

Answer: A

77. The percentage of carbon in pig iron varies from

A. 0.1 to 1.2%

B. 1.5 to 2.5%

C. 2.5 to 4%

D. 4 to 4.5%

Answer: D

78. Crystal structure of a material is, generally, examined by

A. Naked eye

B. Optical microscope

C. Metallurgical microscope

D. X-ray techniques

Answer: D

79. A reversible change in the atomic structure of steel with corresponding change in the properties is known as

A. Molecular change

B. Physical change

C. Allotropic change

D. Solidus change

Answer: C

80. An eutectoid steel consists of

A. Wholly pearlite

B. Wholly austenite

C. Pearlite and ferrite

D. Pearlite and cementite

Answer: A

81. Ductility of a material can be defined as

A. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression

B. Ability to recover its original form

C. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension

D. All of the above

Answer: C

82. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock and impact loads?

A. Strength

B. Stiffness

C. Brittleness

D. Toughness

Answer: D

83. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break

A. By forming a bulge

B. By shearing along oblique plane

C. In direction perpendicular to application of load

D. By crushing into thousands of pieces

Answer: B

84. The main alloying elements high speed steel in order of increasing proportion are

A. Vanadium, chromium, tungsten

B. Tungsten, titanium, vanadium

C. Chromium, titanium, vanadium

D. Tungsten, chromium, titanium

Answer: A

85. Corundum contains more than 95%

A. Steel

B. Al2O3

C. SiO2

D. MgO

Answer: B

86. The aluminium alloy made by melting aluminium with 2 to 10% magnesium and 1.75% copper is called

A. Duralumin

B. Y-alloy

C. Magnalium

D. Hindalium

Answer: C

87. Brass contains

A. 70% copper and 30% zinc

B. 90% copper and 10% tin

C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel

D. 70 – 75% copper and rest tin

Answer: A

88. There are fourteen atoms in a unit cell of

A. Body centered cubic space lattice

B. Face centered cubic space lattice

C. Close packed hexagonal space lattice

D. None of these

Answer: B

89. A specimen of aluminium metal when observed under microscope shows

A. B.C.C. crystalline structure

B. F.C.C. crystal structure

C. H.C.P. structure

D. A complex cubic structure

Answer: B

90. The defect which takes place due to imperfect packing of atoms during crystallization is known as

A. Line defect

B. Surface defect

C. Point defect

D. None of these

Answer: C

 

91. Large forgings, crank shafts, axles normally contain carbon up to

A. 0.05 to 0.20%

B. 0.20 to 0.45%

C. 0.45 to 0.55%

D. 0.55 to 1.0%

Answer: C

92. Which of the following statement is incorrect about duralumin?

A. It is prone to age hardening

B. It can be forged

C. It has good machining properties

D. It is lighter than pure aluminium

Answer: D

93. The hardness of steel primarily depends on

A. Percentage of carbon

B. Percentage of alloying elements

C. Heat treatment employed

D. Shape of carbides and their distribution in iron

Answer: D

94. Gamma-iron occurs between the temperature ranges of

A. 400°C to 600°C

B. 600°C to 900°C

C. 900°C to 1400°C

D. 1400°C to 1530°C

Answer: C

95. Alnico, an alloy used extensively for permanent magnets contains iron, nickel, aluminium and cobalt in the following ratio

A. 50 : 20 : 20 : 10

B. 40 : 30 : 20 : 10

C. 50 : 20 : 10 : 20

D. 30 : 20 : 30 : 20

Answer: A

96. According to Indian standard specifications, plain carbon steel designated by 40 C8 means that the carbon content is

A. 0.04%

B. 0.35 to 0.45%

C. 0.4 to 0.6%

D. 0.6 to 0.8%

Answer: B

97. If a refractory contains high content of silicon, it means refractory is

A. Acidic

B. Basic

C. Neutral

D. Brittle

Answer: C

98. Cementite consist of

A. 13% carbon and 87% ferrite

B. 13% cementite and 87% ferrite

C. 13% ferrite and 87% cementite

D. 6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron

Answer: D

99. The usual composition of a soldering alloy is

A. Tin, lead and small percentage of antimony

B. Tin and lead

C. Tin, lead and silver

D. Tin and copper

Answer: A

100. The property of a material which enables it to retain the deformation permanently, is called

A. Brittleness

B. Ductility

C. Malleability

D. Plasticity

Answer: D

101. The tensile strength of wrought iron is maximum

A. Along the lines of slag distribution

B. Perpendicular to lines of slag distribution

C. Uniform in all directions

D. None of the above

Answer: A

102. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to heavy loads, is

A. Silicon bronze

B. White metal

C. Monel metal

D. Phosphor bronze

Answer: B

103. Which of the following elements does not impart hardness to steel?

A. Copper

B. Chromium

C. Nickel

D. Silicon

Answer: A

104. In low carbon steels, presence of small quantities of sulphur improves

A. Weldability

B. Formability

C. Machinability

D. Hardenability

Answer: C

105. Cobalt in steel

A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness

B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improve corrosion and heat resistant proper ties

C. Improves cutting ability and reduce hardenability

D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti corrosion property

Answer: C

 

106. Which of the following metal shrinks most from molten state to solid state?

A. Cast iron

B. Cast steel

C. Brass

D. Admiralty metal

Answer: D

107. Tungsten in steel

A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness

B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat resistant properties

C. Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability

D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti-corrosion properties

Answer: B

108. The ability of a material to resist fracture due to high impact loads, is called

A. Strength

B. Stiffness

C. Toughness

D. Brittleness

Answer: C

109. Which is false statement about normalizing? Normalizing is done to

A. Refine grain structure

B. Reduce segregation in casting

C. Improve mechanical properties

D. Induce stresses

Answer: D

110. Hematite iron ore contains iron about

A. 30%

B. 45%

C. 55%

D. 70%

Answer: D

111. The surface hardness of the following order is achieved by nitriding operation

A. 600 VPN

B. 1500 VPN

C. 1000 to 1100 VPN

D. 250 VPN

Answer: C

112. The unit cells

A. Contain the smallest number of atoms which when taken together have all the properties of the crystals of the particular metal

B. Have the same orientation and their similar faces are parallel

C. May be defined as the smallest parallelepiped which could be transposed in three coordinate directions to build up the space lattice

D. All of the above

Answer: D

113. Which of the following represents the allotropic forms of iron?

A. Alpha iron, beta iron and gamma iron

B. Alpha iron and beta iron

C. Body centered cubic iron and face centered cubic iron

D. Alpha iron, gamma from and delta iron

Answer: D

114. Which of the following property is desirable for materials used in tools and machines?

A. Elasticity

B. Plasticity

C. Ductility

D. Malleability

Answer: A

115. Points of arrest for iron correspond to

A. Stages at which allotropic forms change

B. Stages at which further heating does not increase temperature for some time

C. Stages at which properties do not change with increase in temperature

D. There is nothing like points of arrest

Answer: A

116. The portion of the blast furnace below its widest cross-section is called

A. Hearth

B. Stack

C. Bosh

D. Throat

Answer: C

117. Taps dies and drills contain carbon

A. Below 0.5%

B. Below 1%

C. Above 1%

D. Above 2.2%

Answer: C

118. The coke in the charge of blast furnace

A. Controls the grade of pig iron

B. Acts as an iron bearing mineral

C. Supplies heat to reduce ore and melt the iron

D. Forms a slag by combining with impurities

Answer: C

119. The percentage of carbon in grey iron castings usually varies between

A. 0.5 to 1%

B. 1.2%

C. 2.5 to 4.5%

D. 5 to 7%

Answer: C

120. The machinability of steel is improved by adding

A. Nickel

B. Chromium

C. Nickel and chromium

D. Sulphur, lead and phosphorus

Answer: D

 

121. The ultimate tensile strength and yield strength of most of the metals, when temperature falls from 0 to 100°C will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain same

D. First increase and then decrease

Answer: A

122. Macrostructure of a material is, generally, examined by

A. Naked eye

B. Optical microscope

C. Metallurgical microscope

D. X-ray techniques

Answer: A

123. Which of the following pipes is least corrosion resistant?

A. Brass

B. Mild steel

C. Cast iron

D. Wrought iron

Answer: D

124. Wrought iron

A. Is a ductile material

B. Can be easily forged or welded

C. Cannot stand sudden and excessive shocks

D. All of these

Answer: D

125. The metallic structure of mild steel is

A. Body centered cubic

B. Face centered cubic

C. Hexagonal close packed

D. Cubic structure

Answer: A

126. The material in which the atoms are arranged regularly in some directions but not in others, is called

A. Amorphous material

B. Mesomorphous material

C. Crystalline material

D. None of these

Answer: B

127. Vanadium in high speed steels

A. Promotes decarburisation

B. Provides high hot hardness

C. Forms very hard carbides and thus increases wear resistance

D. Promotes retention of austenite

Answer: C

128. Which of the following material has nearly zero coefficient of expansion?

A. Stainless steel

B. High speed steel

C. Invar

D. Heat resisting steel

Answer: C

129. Nodular iron has

A. High machinability

B. Low melting point

C. High tensile strength

D. All of the above

Answer: D

130. The addition of which of the following improves machining of copper?

A. Sulphur

B. Vanadium

C. Tin

D. Zinc

Answer: A

131. Pig iron is the name given to

A. Raw material for blast furnace

B. Product of blast furnace made by reduction of iron ore

C. Iron containing huge quantities of carbon

D. Iron in molten form in the ladles

Answer: B

132. Which of the following when used in ordinary low carbon steels, makes the metal ductile and of good bending qualities?

A. Sulphur

B. Phosphorus

C. Manganese

D. Silicon

Answer: C

133. In which of the following cases, consideration of creep is important

A. Flywheel of steam engine

B. Cast iron pipes

C. Cycle chains

D. Gas turbine blades

Answer: D

134. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The product produced by blast-furnace is called cast iron

B. The pig iron is the name given to the product produced by cupola

C. The cast iron has high tensile strength

D. The chilled cast iron has no graphite

Answer: D

135. Muntz metal contains copper and zinc in the ratio of

A. 50 : 50

B. 40 : 60

C. 60 : 40

D. 20 : 80

Answer: C

 

136. 1841 high speed steel contains

A. Vanadium 4%, chromium 18% and tungsten 1%

B. Vanadium 1%, chromium 4% and tungsten 18%

C. Vanadium 18%, chromium 1% and tungsten 4%

D. None of the above

Answer: B

137. Age-hardening is related with

A. Stainless steel

B. Gun metal

C. German silver

D. Duralumin

Answer: D

138. Which of the following statement is true about brittle fracture?

A. High temperature and low strain rates favour brittle fracture

B. Many metals with hexagonal close packed (H.C.P) crystal structure commonly show brittle fracture

C. Brittle fracture is always preceded by noise

D. Cup and cone formation is characteristic for brittle materials

Answer: B

139. Recrystallization temperature can be lowered by

A. Purification of metal

B. Grain refinement

C. Working at lower temperature

D. All of the above

Answer: D

140. The ability of a material to absorb energy in the plastic range is called

A. Resilience

B. Creep

C. Fatigue strength

D. Toughness

Answer: A

141. Maximum percentage of carbon in austenite is

A. 0.025%

B. 0.26%

C. 0.8%

D. 1.7%

Answer: D

142. In low carbon steels, ________ raises the yield point and improves the resistance to atmospheric corrosion.

A. Sulphur

B. Phosphorus

C. Manganese

D. Silicon

Answer: B

143. Super conduction by metals is observed in the temperature range of

A. Below 10°K

B. Above 100°K

C. Around 0°C

D. Around 100°C

Answer: A

144. Connecting rod is, usually, made from

A. Low carbon steel

B. High carbon steel

C. Medium carbon steel

D. High speed steel

Answer: C

145. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of

A. Below 723°C

B. 770 to 910°C

C. 910 to 1440°C

D. 1400 to 1539°C

Answer: A

146. Which of the following impurity in cast iron promotes graphite nodule formation and increases the fluidity of the molten metal?

A. Silicon

B. Sulphur

C. Manganese

D. Phosphorus

Answer: A

147. For the allotropic forms of iron, the points of arrest are

A. The points where no further change occurs

B. Constant for all metals

C. The points where there is no further flow of metal

D. The points of discontinuity

Answer: D

148. Inconel contains

A. 65% nickel, 15% chromium and 20% iron

B. 68% nickel, 29% copper and 3% other constituents

C. 80% nickel and 20% chromium

D. 80% nickel, 14% chromium and 6% iron

Answer: D

149. A reversible change in the atomic structure of the steel with a corresponding change in the properties is known as

A. Allotropic change

B. Recrystallization

C. Heat treatment

D. Precipitation

Answer: A

150. A material is said to be allotropic, if it has

A. Fixed structure at all temperatures

B. Atoms distributed in random pattern

C. Different crystal structures at different temperatures

D. Any one of the above

Answer: C

Engineering Materials objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

151. An important property of high silicon (12-18%) cast iron is the high

A. Hardness

B. Brittleness

C. Plasticity

D. Ductility

Answer: A

152. Dye penetrant method is generally used to locate

A. Core defects

B. Surface defects

C. Superficial defects

D. Temporary defects

Answer: B

153. Constantan an alloy used in thermocouples is an alloy of

A. Copper and tin

B. Copper and zinc

C. Copper and iron

D. Copper and nickel

Answer: D

154. Delta-iron occurs between the temperature ranges of

A. 400°C to 600°C

B. 600°C to 900°C

C. 900°C to 1400°C

D. 1400°C to 1530°C

Answer: D

155. White cast iron contains carbon in the form of

A. Free carbon

B. Graphite

C. Cementite

D. White carbon

Answer: C

156. The heat treatment process used for softening hardened steel is

A. Carburising

B. Normalizing

C. Annealing

D. Tempering

Answer: D

157. Stress relaxation is the phenomenon

A. In which parts are not loaded

B. In which stress remains constant on increasing load

C. In which deformation tends to loosen the joint and produces a stress reduced

D. Stress reduces on increasing load

Answer: C

158. Babbitt metal is a

A. Lead base alloy

B. Copper base alloy

C. Tin base alloy

D. Cadmium base alloy

Answer: C

159. Hardness of lower bainite (tempered martensite) is about

A. RC 65

B. RC 48

C. RC 57

D. RC 80

Answer: C

160. Silicon when added to copper improves

A. Machinability

B. Hardness

C. Hardness and strength

D. Strength and ductility

Answer: C

161. A material is known as allotropic or polymorphic if it

A. Has a fixed structure under all conditions

B. Exists in several crystal forms at different temperatures

C. Responds to heat treatment

D. Has its atoms distributed in a random pattern

Answer: B

162. The brown smoke during the operation of a Bessemer converter indicates that the

A. Air is burning out silicon and manganese

B. Silicon and manganese has burnt and carbon has started oxidizing

C. The converter must be titled to remove the contents of the converter

D. The brown smoke does not occur during the operation of a Bessemer converter

Answer: A

163. The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel is

A. 0.05%

B. 0.15%

C. 0.3%

D. 0.5%

Answer: B

164. A small percentage of boron is added to steel in order to

A. Increase hardenability

B. Reduce machinability

C. Increase wear resistance

D. Increase endurance strength

Answer: A

165. Neutral solution is one which has pH value

A. Greater than 7

B. Less than 7

C. Equal to 7

D. pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution

Answer: C

166. The coordination number of a face centered cubic space lattice is

A. Six

B. Twelve

C. Eighteen

D. Twenty

Answer: B

167. Lead is poured into the joint between two pipes. These pipes may be made of

A. Cast iron

B. Vitrified clay

C. Asbestos cement

D. Concrete

Answer: A

168. Brass is an alloy of

A. Copper and zinc

B. Copper and tin

C. Copper, tin and zinc

D. None of these

Answer: A

169. Malleability of a material can be defined as

A. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression

B. Ability to recover its original form

C. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension

D. All of the above

Answer: A

170. Tin base white metals are used where the bearings are subjected to

A. Large surface wear

B. Elevated temperatures

C. Light load and pressure

D. High pressure and load

Answer: A

171. Which of the following is not the correct method of increasing fatigue limit?

A. Shot peening

B. Nitriding of surface

C. Cold working

D. Surface decarburisation

Answer: D

172. In full annealing, the hypo eutectoid steel is heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled

A. In still air

B. Slowly in the furnace

C. Suddenly in a suitable cooling medium

D. Any one of these

Answer: B

173. Materials after cold working are subjected to following process to relieve stresses

A. Hot working

B. Tempering

C. Normalizing

D. Annealing

Answer: D

174. Iron-carbon alloys containing 1.7 to 4.3% carbon are known as

A. Eutectic cast irons

B. Hypoeutectic cast irons

C. Hypereutectic cast irons

D. None of these

Answer: B

175. Which is false statement about case hardening? Case hardening is done by

A. Electroplating

B. Cyaniding

C. Induction hardening

D. Nitriding

Answer: A

176. White cast iron has

A. Carbon in the form of carbide

B. Low tensile strength

C. High compressive strength

D. All of these

Answer: D

177. Following elements have face-centered cubic structure

A. Gamma iron (910° to 1400°C), Cu, Ag, Au, Al, Ni, Pb, Pt

B. Mg, Zn, Ti, Zr, Br, Cd

C. A iron (below 910°C and between 1400 to 1539°C), W

D. All of the above

Answer: A

178. When low carbon steel is heated up to lower critical temperature

A. There is no change in grain size

B. The average grain size is a minimum

C. The grain size increases very rapidly

D. The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly

Answer: A

179. The molecules in a solid move

A. In a random manner

B. In a haphazard way

C. In circular motion

D. Back and forth like tiny pendulums

Answer: D

180. Balls for ball bearings are made of

A. Cast iron

B. Mild steel

C. Stainless steel

D. Carbon-chrome steel

Answer: D

 

181. Which of the following display properties similar to that of steel?

A. Blackheart cast iron

B. Whiteheart cast iron

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of these

Answer: C

182. Which is false statement about properties of aluminium?

A. Modulus of elasticity is fairly low

B. Wear resistance is very good

C. Fatigue strength is not high

D. Creep strength limits its use to fairly low temperatures

Answer: B

183. The steel widely used for motor car crankshafts is

A. Nickel steel

B. Chrome steel

C. Nickel-chrome steel

D. Silicon steel

Answer: B

184. Foundry crucible is made of

A. Mild steel

B. German silver

C. Lead

D. Graphite

Answer: D

185. The stiffness is the ability of a material to resist

A. Deformation under stress

B. Fracture due to high impact loads

C. Externally applied forces with breakdown or yielding

D. None of the above

Answer: A

186. The ability of a material to resist softening at high temperature is known as

A. Creep

B. Hot tempering

C. Hot hardness

D. Fatigue

Answer: C

187. The type of space lattice found in alpha-iron is

A. Face centered cubic space lattice

B. Body centered cubic space lattice

C. Close packed hexagonal space lattice

D. None of these

Answer: B

188. Mild steel belongs to the following category

A. Low carbon steel

B. Medium carbon steel

C. High carbon steel

D. Alloy steel

Answer: A

189. Closed packed hexagonal space lattice is found in

A. Zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth

B. Gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel

C. Alpha-iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum

D. None of the above

Answer: A

190. The ultimate tensile strength of low carbon steel by working at a high strain rate will

A. Decrease

B. Increase

C. Remain constant

D. First increase and then decrease

Answer: B

191. When elements like nickel, chromium, copper and molybdenum are added to the molten cast iron, it produces

A. White cast iron

B. Nodular cast iron

C. Malleable cast iron

D. Alloy cast iron

Answer: D

192. Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constant stress is known as

A. Creep

B. Fatigue

C. Endurance

D. Plastic deformation

Answer: A

193. The elastic stress strain behavior of rubber is

A. Linear

B. Nonlinear

C. Plastic

D. No fixed relationship

Answer: B

194. Isotropic materials are those which have the same

A. Elastic properties in all directions

B. Stresses induced in all directions

C. Thermal properties in all directions

D. Electric and magnetic properties in all directions

Answer: A

195. Which of the following metal is used in making electrical resistance wire for electric furnaces and heating elements?

A. Babbitt metal

B. Monel metal

C. Nichrome

D. Phosphor bronze

Answer: C

 

196. Recrystallization temperature is one

A. At which crystals first start forming from molten metal when it is cooled

B. At which new spherical crystals first begin to form from the old deformed one when a strained metal is heated

C. At which change of allotropic form takes place

D. At which crystals grow bigger in size

Answer: B

197. The charge is fed into the blast furnace through the

A. Stack

B. Throat

C. Bosh

D. Tyres

Answer: B

198. Delta iron occurs at temperature of

A. Room temperature

B. Above melting point

C. Between 1400°C and 1539°C

D. Between 910°C and 1400°C

Answer: C

199. The property of a material essential for spring materials is

A. Stiffness

B. Ductility

C. Resilience

D. Plasticity

Answer: C

200. Which of the following constituents of steels is softest and least strong?

A. Austenite

B. Pearlite

C. Ferrite

D. Cementite

Answer: C

201. Which of the following is an amorphous material?

A. Mica

B. Silver

C. Lead

D. Glass

Answer: D

202. The following types of materials are usually the most ductile

A. Face centered cubic lattice

B. Body centered cubic lattice

C. Hexagonal close packed lattice

D. All of the above

Answer: A

203. Chromium when added to steel _________ the tensile strength.

A. Does not effect

B. Decreases

C. Increases

D. None of these

Answer: C

204. Pure iron is the structure of

A. Ferrite

B. Pearlite

C. Austenite

D. Ferrite and cementite

Answer: A

205. The lower critical temperature

A. Decreases as the carbon content in steel increases

B. Increases as the carbon content in steel increases

C. Is same for all steels

D. Depends upon the rate of heating

Answer: C

206. Gamma iron exits at following temperature

A. Room temperature

B. Near melting point

C. Between 1400°C and 1539°C

D. Between 910°C and 1400°C

Answer: D

207. In induction hardening ________ is high.

A. Current

B. Voltage

C. Frequency

D. Temperature

Answer: C

208. Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to gamma iron at

A. 770°C

B. 910°C

C. 1440°C

D. 1539°C

Answer: B

209. Which of the following statements are true for annealing of steels?

A. Steels are heated to 500 to 700°C

B. Cooling is done slowly and steadily

C. Internal stresses are relieved

D. All of these

Answer: D

210. The crystal structure of gamma iron is

A. Body centered cubic

B. Face centered cubic

C. Hexagonal close packed

D. Cubic structure

Answer: B

 

211. Induction hardening is basically a

A. Carburising process

B. Surface hardening process

C. Core hardening process

D. None of these

Answer: B

212. The crystal of alpha iron is

A. Body centered cubic

B. Face centered cubic

C. Hexagonal close packed

D. Cubic structure

Answer: A

213. Malleable cast iron is produced

A. By adding magnesium to molten cast iron

B. By quick cooling of molten cast iron

C. From white cast iron by annealing process

D. None of these

Answer: C

214. The unique property of cast iron is its high

A. Malleability

B. Ductility

C. Surface finish

D. Damping characteristics

Answer: D

215. Steel containing ferrite and pearlite is

A. Hard

B. Soft

C. Tough

D. Hard and tough

Answer: B

216. Cast iron is characterized by minimum of following percentage of carbon

A. 0.2%

B. 0.8%

C. 1.3%

D. 2%

Answer: D

217. Grey cast iron has

A. Carbon in the form of free graphite

B. High tensile strength

C. Low compressive strength

D. All of these

Answer: A

218. In grey cast iron, carbon is present in the form of

A. Cementite

B. Free carbon

C. Flakes

D. Spheroids

Answer: C

219. In nodular iron, graphite is in the form of

A. Cementite

B. Free carbon

C. Flakes

D. Spheroids

Answer: D

220. In high speed steels, manganese is used to tougher the metal and to increase its

A. Yield point

B. Critical temperature

C. Melting point

D. Hardness

Answer: B

221. In malleable iron, carbon is present in the form of

A. Cementite

B. Free carbon

C. Flakes

D. Nodular aggregates of graphite

Answer: D

222. The purpose of heat treatment is to

A. Relieve the stresses set up in the material after hot or cold working

B. Modify the structure of the material

C. Change grain size

D. Any one of these

Answer: D

223. Wrought iron is

A. Hard

B. High in strength

C. Highly resistant to corrosion

D. Heat treated to change its properties

Answer: C

224. When the steel is normalized, its

A. Yield point increases

B. Ductility decreases

C. Ultimate tensile strength increases

D. All of these

Answer: D

225. Sulphur in pig iron tends to make it

A. Hard

B. Soft

C. Ductile

D. Tough

Answer: A

 

226. Pick up wrong statement about wrought iron

A. It contains carbon of the order of 0 to 0.25%

B. It melts at 1535°C

C. It is very soft and ductile

D. It is made by adding suitable percentage of carbon to molten iron and subjecting the product to repeated hammering and rolling

Answer: D

227. Combined carbon in iron makes the metal

A. Soft and gives coarse grained crystalline structure

B. Soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure

C. Hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure

D. Hard and gives a fine grained crystalline structure

Answer: D

228. Iron is

A. Paramagnetic

B. Ferromagnetic

C. Ferroelectric

D. Dielectric

Answer: B

229. Manganese is added in low carbon steel to

A. Make the steel tougher and harder

B. Raise the yield point

C. Make the steel ductile and of good bending qualities

D. All of the above

Answer: C

230. Chilled cast iron has

A. No graphite

B. A very high percentage of graphite

C. A low percentage of graphite

D. Graphite as its basic constituent of composition

Answer: A

231. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to light loads, is

A. Silicon bronze

B. White metal

C. Monel metal

D. Phosphor bronze

Answer: D

232. Cast iron has

A. High tensile strength

B. Its elastic limit close to the ultimate breaking strength

C. High ductility

D. All of the above

Answer: B

233. Nodular cast iron is produced by adding ________ to the molten cast iron.

A. Nickel

B. Chromium

C. Copper

D. Magnesium

Answer: D

234. In mottled cast iron, carbon is available in

A. Free form

B. Combined form

C. Nodular form

D. Partly in free and partly in combined state

235. An important property of malleable cast iron in comparison to grey cast iron is the high

A. Compressive strength

B. Ductility

C. Carbon content

D. Hardness

Answer: B

236. Monel metal is an alloy of

A. Nickel and copper

B. Nickel and chromium

C. Nickel, Chromium and iron

D. Copper and chromium

Answer: A

238. Carbon steel is

A. Made by adding carbon in steel

B. Refined from cast iron

C. An alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorus and sulphur

D. Extensively used for making cutting tools

Answer: C

239. Annealing of white cast iron results in production of

A. Malleable iron

B. Nodular iron

C. Spheroidal iron

D. Grey iron

Answer: A

240. The alloying element which can replace tungsten in high speed steels is

A. Nickel

B. Vanadium

C. Cobalt

D. Molybdenum

Answer: D

241. ‘Killed steels’ are those steels

A. Which are destroyed by burning

B. Which after their destruction are recycled to produce fresh steel

C. Which are deoxidized in the ladle with silicon and aluminium

D. In which carbon is completely burnt

Answer: C

 

242. Hardness of steel depends on

A. Amount of carbon it contains

B. The shape and distribution of the carbides in iron

C. Method of fabrication

D. Contents of alloying elements

Answer: B

243. Free carbon in iron makes the metal

A. Soft and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure

B. Soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure

C. Hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure

D. Hard and gives a fine grained crystalline structure

Answer: A

244. Maximum percentage of carbon in ferrite is

A. 0.025%

B. 0.06%

C. 0.1%

D. 0.25%

Answer: A

245. Tungsten when added to steel __________ the critical temperature.

A. Does not effect

B. Lowers

C. Raises

D. None of these

Answer: C

246. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by addition of

A. Chromium and nickel

B. Sulphur, phosphorus, lead

C. Vanadium, aluminium

D. Tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium, chromium

Answer: A

247. The material widely used for making pendulums of clocks is

A. Stainless steel

B. High speed steel

C. Heat resisting steel

D. Nickel steel

Answer: D

248. The most effective inhibitor of grain growth, when added in small quantities is

A. Carbon

B. Vanadium

C. Manganese

D. Cobalt

Answer: B

249. The property of a material due to which it breaks with little permanent distortion, is called

A. Brittleness

B. Ductility

C. Malleability

D. Plasticity

Answer: A

250. Depth of hardness of steel is increased by addition of

A. Nickel

B. Chromium

C. Tungsten

D. Vanadium

Answer: B

251. When filing or machining cast iron makes our hands black, then it shows that ________ is present in cast iron.

A. Cementite

B. Free graphite

C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

D. None of these

Answer: B

252. Railway rails are normally made of

A. Mild steel

B. Alloy steel

C. High carbon

D. Tungsten steel

Answer: C

253. The carbon in the pig iron varies from

A. 0.1 to 0.5%

B. 0.5 to 1%

C. 1 to 5%

D. 5 to 10%

Answer: C

254. Machining properties of steel are improved by adding

A. Sulphur, lead, phosphorous

B. Silicon, aluminium, titanium

C. Vanadium, aluminium

D. Chromium, nickel

Answer: A

255. The hardness of steel depends upon the

A. Amount of cementite it contains

B. Amount of carbon it contains

C. Contents of alloying elements

D. Method of manufacture of steel

Answer: A

256. Eutectoid steel contains following percentage of carbon

A. 0.02%

B. 0.3%

C. 0.63%

D. 0.8%

Answer: D

 

257. The electric process of steel making is especially adapted to

A. Alloy and carbon tool steel

B. Magnet steel

C. High speed tool steel

D. All of these

Answer: D

258. The basic constituents of Hastelloy are

A. Aluminium, copper etc.

B. Nickel, molybdenum etc.

C. Nickel, Copper, etc.

D. All of the above

Answer: B

259. German silver contains

A. 1% silver

B. 2% silver

C. 5% silver

D. No silver

Answer: D

260. Basic constituents of Monel metal are

A. Nickel, copper

B. Nickel, molybdenum

C. Zinc, tin, lead

D. Nickel, lead and tin

Answer: A

261. An alloy of copper, tin and zinc is known as

A. Brass

B. Bronze

C. Gun metal

D. Muntz metal

Answer: C

262. German silver is an alloy of

A. Silver and some impurities

B. Refined silver

C. Nickel, Copper and zinc

D. Nickel and copper

Answer: C

263. Quenching is not necessary when hardening is done by

A. Case hardening

B. Flame hardening

C. Nitriding

D. Any one of these

264. Surveying tapes are made of a material having low coefficient of expansion and enough strength. The alloy used is

A. Silver metal

B. Duralumin

C. Hastelloy

D. Invar

Answer: D

265. The alloying element which increases residual magnetism and coercive magnetic force in steel for magnets is

A. Chromium

B. Nickel

C. Vanadium

D. Cobalt

Answer: D

266. A cold chisel is made of

A. Mild steel

B. Cast iron

C. H.S.S.

D. High carbon

Answer: D

267. Blast furnace is used to produce

A. Pig iron

B. Cast iron

C. Wrought iron

D. Steel

Answer: A

268. An engineer’s hammer is made of

A. Cast iron

B. Forged steel

C. Mild steel

D. High carbon steel

Answer: D

269. The blade of a power saw is made of

A. Boron steel

B. High speed steel

C. Stainless steel

D. Malleable cast iron

Answer: B

14. Inconel is an alloy of

A. Nickel, chromium and iron

B. Nickel, copper

C. Nickel, Chromium

D. Nickel, zinc

270. The strength is the ability of a material to resist

A. Deformation under stress

B. Externally applied forces with breakdown or yielding

C. Fracture due to high impact loads

D. None of these

Answer: B

 

271. By severely deforming a metal in a particular direction it becomes

A. Ductile

B. Malleable

C. Homogeneous

D. Anisotropic

Answer: D

272. Solder is an alloy consisting of

A. Tin, antimony, copper

B. Tin and copper

C. Tin and lead

D. Lead and zinc

Answer: B

273. Iron ore is usually found in the form of

A. Oxides

B. Carbonates

C. Sulphides

D. All of these

Answer: D

274. Cyaniding is the process of

A. Dipping steel in cyanide bath

B. Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts

C. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness

D. Obtaining cyanide salts

Answer: C

275. Shock resistance of steel is increased by adding

A. Nickel

B. Chromium

C. Nickel and chromium

D. Sulphur, lead and phosphorus

Answer: C

276. Induction hardening is the process of

A. Hardening surface of work-piece to obtain hard and wear resistant surface

B. Heating and cooling rapidly

C. Increasing hardness throughout

D. Inducing hardness by continuous process

Answer: A

277. The loss of strength in compression with simultaneous gain in strength in tension due to overloading is known as

A. Hysteresis

B. Creep

C. Visco elasticity

D. Boeschinger effect

Answer: D

278. Process of Austempering results in

A. Formation of bainite structure

B. Carburised structure

C. Martenistic structure

D. Lamellar layers of carbide distributed throughout the structure

Answer: A

279. Hardness of martensite is about

A. RC 65

B. RC 48

C. RC 57

D. RC 80

Answer: A

280. Ball bearings are, usually, made from

A. Low carbon steel

B. High carbon steel

C. Medium carbon steel

D. Chrome steel

Answer: D

281. Weld decay is the phenomenon found with

A. Cast iron

B. Mild steel

C. Nonferrous materials

D. Stainless steel

Answer: D

282. Hardness of upper bainite (acicular structure) is about

A. RC 65

B. RC 48

C. RC 57

D. RC 80

Answer: B

283. Carbon in iron is an example of

A. Substitutional solution

B. Interstitial solid solution

C. Intermetallic compounds

D. All of the above

Answer: B

284. Argentite is the principal ore or raw material for

A. Aluminium

B. Tin

C. Zinc

D. Silver

Answer: D

285. Nimonic contains __________ percentage of nickel as that of Inconel.

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. None of these

Answer: A

 

286. An example of amorphous material is

A. Zinc

B. Lead

C. Silver

D. Glass

Answer: D

287. Which is false statement about tempering? Tempering is done to

A. Improve machinability

B. Improve ductility

C. Improve toughness

D. Release stresses

Answer: A

288. Which of the following is the binding material in cemented carbides?

A. Cobalt

B. Nickel

C. Vanadium

D. Iron

Answer: A

289. Shock resisting steels should have

A. Low wear resistance

B. Low hardness

C. Low tensile strength

D. Toughness

Answer: D

290. Chromium in steel

A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness

B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat resistant properties

C. Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability

D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti-corrosion properties

Answer: A

291. Manganese in steel increases its

A. Tensile strength

B. Hardness

C. Ductility

D. Fluidity

Answer: A

292. Tungsten in high speed steel provides

A. Hot hardness

B. Toughness

C. Wear resistance

D. Sharp cutting edge

Answer: A

293. Sulphur in cast iron

A. Makes the iron soft and easily machinable

B. Increases hardness and brittleness

C. Make the iron white and hard

D. Aids fusibility and fluidity

Answer: B

294. Connecting rod is usually made of

A. Aluminium

B. Low carbon steel

C. Medium carbon steel

D. High carbon steel

Answer: C

295. The hardness is the property of a material due to which it

A. Can be drawn into wires

B. Breaks with little permanent distortion

C. Can cut another metal

D. Can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets

Answer: C

296. High carbon steel carries carbon percentage

A. 0.1 to 0.3%

B. 0.3 to 0.6%

C. 0.6 to 0.8%

D. 0.8 to 1.5%

Answer: D

297. The hardness of steel increases if it contains

A. Austenite

B. Martensite

C. Pearlite

D. Cementite

Answer: B

298. The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes

A. It easily machinable

B. It brittle

C. It hard

D. The casting unsound

Answer: D

299. Melting point of iron is

A. 1539°C

B. 1601°C

C. 1489°C

D. 1712°C

Answer: A

300. Compressive strength of grey cast iron in tonnes/cm is of the order of

A. 35

B. 57

C. 710

D. 1015

Answer: B

 

301. Cupola produces following material

A. Cast iron

B. Pig iron

C. Wrought iron

D. Malleable iron

Answer: A

302. Beryllium bronze has

A. High yield point

B. High fatigue limit

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of these

Answer: C

303. The machinability of steel is increased by

A. Silicon and sulphur

B. Phosphorous, lead and sulphur

C. Sulphur, graphite and aluminium

D. Phosphorous and aluminium

Answer: B

304. Drop forging dies contain carbon of the order of

A. 0.1 to 0.2%

B. 0.25 to 0.5%

C. 0.6 to 0.7%

D. 0.7 to 0.9%

Answer: C

305. The alloying element which reduces the formation of iron sulphide in steel is

A. Chromium

B. Nickel

C. Vanadium

D. Manganese

Answer: D

306. Preheating is essential in welding

A. Cast iron

B. High speed steel

C. All nonferrous materials

D. All of the above

Answer: A

307. Steel made from phosphate iron is

A. Brittle

B. Hard

C. Ductile

D. Tough

Answer: A

308. The crystal structure of brass is

A. F.C.C.

B. B.C.C.

C. H.C.P.

D. Orthorhombic crystalline structure

Answer: A

309. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding

A. Chromium and nickel

B. Nickel and molybdenum

C. Aluminium and zinc

D. Tungsten and sulphur

Answer: A

310. Which of the following is used for bearing liner?

A. Gun metal

B. Bronze

C. Bell metal

D. Babbitt metal

Answer: D

311. Aluminium bronze contains aluminium and copper in the ratio of

A. 50 : 50

B. 40 : 60

C. 60 : 40

D. 10 : 90

Answer: D

312. Bronze contains

A. 70% copper and 30% zinc

B. 90% copper and 10% tin

C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel

D. 70 – 75% copper and rest tin

Answer: B

313. Gun metal contains

A. 70% copper and 30% zinc

B. 90% copper and 10% tin

C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel

D. 70 – 78% copper and rest tin

Answer: C

314. Perminvar alloy having constant permeability is an alloy of

A. Nickel, copper and iron

B. Nickel, copper and zinc

C. Copper, nickel and antimony

D. Iron, zinc and bismuth

Answer: A

315. The alloy used for making electrical resistances and heating elements is

A. Nichrome

B. Invar

C. Magnin

D. Elinvar

Answer: A

316. Permalloy is a

A. Kind of stainless steel

B. None ferrous alloy

C. Polymer

D. Nickel and iron alloy having high permeability

Answer: D

317. Phosphor bronze contains

A. 0.5% of phosphorous

B. 1% phosphorous

C. 2.5% phosphorous

D. None of the above

Answer: D

318. Free cutting steels

A. Are used where ease in machining is the criterion

B. Contain carbon in free form

C. Require least cutting force

D. Do not exist

Answer: Option

319. Delta metal is an alloy of

A. Copper, zinc and iron

B. Iron, nickel and copper

C. Iron, lead and tin

D. Iron, aluminium and magnesium

Answer: A

320. Addition of copper to aluminium results in

A. Improvement of casting characteristics

B. Improvement of corrosion resistance

C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems

D. Improving machinability

Answer: C

322. Addition of lead and bismuth to aluminium results in

A. Improvement of casting characteristics

B. Improvement of corrosion resistance

C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems

D. Improving machinability

Answer: D

323. Cast iron is a

A. Ductile material

B. Malleable material

C. Brittle material

D. Tough material

Answer: C

324. Addition of silicon to aluminium results in

A. Improvement of casting characteristics

B. Improvement of corrosion resistance

C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems

D. Improving machinability

Answer: A

325. White metal contains

A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper

B. 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc

C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium

D. Silver and chromium

Answer: C

326. German silver contains

A. 1% silver

B. 2.5% silver

C. 5% silver

D. 10% silver

Answer: C

327. Smelting is the process of

A. Removing the impurities like clay, sand etc. from the iron ore by washing with water

B. Expelling moisture, carbon dioxide, sulphur and arsenic from the iron ore by heating in shallow kilns

C. Reducing the ore with carbon in the presence of a flux

D. All of the above

Answer: C

328. Babbitt metal is a

A. Lead base alloy

B. Tin base alloy

C. Copper base alloy

D. BothA. andC. above

Answer: D

329. Duralumin contains

A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe

B. 92.5% aluminium, 40% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg

C. 10% aluminium and 90% copper

D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper

Answer: A

330. Which of the following material has maximum ductility?

A. Mild steel

B. Copper

C. Nickel

D. Aluminium

Answer: A

331. Acidic solution is one which has pH value

A. Greater than 7

B. Less than 7

C. Equal to 7

D. pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution

Answer: B

332. Basic solution is one which has pH value

A. Greater than 7

B. Equal to 7

C. Less than 7

D. pH value has nothing to do with basic solution

Answer: A

333. Pearlite is a combination of

A. Ferrite and cementite

B. Cementite and gamma iron

C. Ferrite and austenite

D. Ferrite and iron graphite

Answer: A

334. Austenite is a combination of

A. Ferrite and cementite

B. Cementite and gamma iron

C. Ferrite and austenite

D. Ferrite and iron graphite

Answer: B

335. Specify the sequence correctly

A. Grain growth, recrystallization, stress relief

B. Stress relief, grain growth, recrystallization

C. Stress relief, recrystallization, grain growth

D. Grain growth, stress relief, recrystallization

Answer: C

336. The transistor is made of

A. Silver

B. Gold

C. Copper

D. Germanium

Answer: D

337. Thermoplastic materials are those materials which

A. Are formed into shape under heat and pressure and results in a permanently hard product

B. Do not become hard with the application of heat and pressure and no chemical change occurs

C. Are flexible and can withstand considerable wear under suitable conditions

D. Are used as a friction lining for clutches and brakes

Answer: B

338. The percentage of carbon in cast iron varies from

A. 0.1 to 0.5

B. 0.5 to 1

C. 1 to 1.7

D. 1.7 to 4.5

Answer: D

339. The hardness and tensile strength in austenitic stainless steel can be increased by

A. Hardening and cold working

B. Normalizing

C. Martempering

D. Full annealing

Answer: A

340. An alloy steel which is work hardenable and which is used to make the blades of bulldozers, bucket wheel excavators and other earth moving equipment contain iron, carbon and

A. Chromium

B. Silicon

C. Manganese

D. Magnesium

Answer: C

341. Beryllium bronze contains

A. 60% copper and 40% beryllium

B. 80% copper and 20% beryllium

C. 97.75% copper and 2.25% beryllium

D. 99% copper and 1% beryllium

Answer: C

342. Cast iron is manufactured in

A. Blast furnace

B. Cupola

C. Open hearth furnace

D. Bessemer converter

Answer: B

343. The lower critical point for all steels is

A. 600°C

B. 700°C

C. 723°C

D. 913°C

Answer: C

344. The hardness of steel increases if it contains

A. Pearlite

B. Ferrite

C. Cementite

D. Martensite

Answer: C

345. The cupola is used to manufacture

A. Pig iron

B. Cast iron

C. Wrought iron

D. Steel

Answer: B

 

346. The type of space lattice found in gamma-iron is

A. Face centered cubic space lattice

B. Body centered cubic space lattice

C. Close packed hexagonal space lattice

D. None of these

Answer: A

347. Cartridge brass can be

A. Cold rolled into sheets

B. Drawn into wires

C. Formed into tube

D. Any one of these

Answer: D

348. Which of the following steel making process is being adopted at Rourkela (in India) Steel Plant?

A. Bessemer process

B. Open hearth process

C. Electric process

D. LD process

Answer: D

349. Bronze is an alloy of

A. Copper and zinc

B. Copper and tin

C. Copper, tin and zinc

D. None of these

Answer: B

350. Steel with __________ carbon is known as hypo-eutectoid steel.

A. 0.8%

B. Below 0.8%

C. Above 0.8%

D. None of these

Answer: B

351. Age hardening is related to

A. Duralumin

B. Brass

C. Copper

D. Silver

Answer: A

352. The maximum internal diameter of a blast furnace is about

A. 3 m

B. 6 m

C. 9 m

D. 12 m

Answer: C

353. The machinability of aluminium increases when _________ is added to aluminium.

A. Copper

B. Magnesium

C. Silicon

D. Lead and bismuth

Answer: D

354. Eutectoid reaction occurs at

A. 600°C

B. 723°C

C. 1147°C

D. 1493°C

Answer: B

355. Nickel when added to copper improves

A. Machinability

B. Hardness

C. Hardness and strength

D. Strength and ductility

Answer: B

Engineering Materials Questions and Answers pdf free download

[PDF Notes] What are the main drawbacks of bargaining argument?

The policy of protection is adopted to increase the bargaining power in trade negotiations. International trade is based on reciprocal basis. Tariff can be used as an instrument of bargain­ing, i.e., forces the other countries to lower their tariff duties.

Thus, through protection, a country can obtain favourable terms for its exports from other countries. The bargaining argument has the following drawbacks:

(i) Tariff as a method of bargaining may lead to retaliation by other countries. In this way, it is harmful to both the countries.

(ii) If a country is dependent on imports for basic commodities, the tariff rise may be inflationary. The resultant adverse internal developments and the depressing effects on exports may more than offset any gain in bargaining.

(iii) The bargaining argument ignores the possibility that a country may use non-tariff concessions to obtain tariff concessions from its trading partners.

(iv) Bargaining mentality should be aimed at elimination of the loss from tariffs. But, in reality this mentality may be wrongly used to get as much as possible from other countries, while giving up as little as possible.

(v) The bragaining argument is not a wise and desirable argument. Arguing that protective tariff should be imposed in order to use it to bargain with is just like arguing that one should contract a disease in order to enjoy it being cured.

700+ TOP Machine Design MCQs and Answers Quiz Exam

Machine Design Multiple Choice Questions Pdf

1. The ratio of belt tensions (p1/p2) considering centrifugal force in flat belt is given by
Where m = mass of belt per meter (kg/m)
v = belt velocity (m/s)
f = coefficient of friction
a = angle of wrap (radians)

A. (P1 – mv²)/ (P2 – mv²) = eᶠα

B. P1 / P2 = eᶠα

C. P1 / P2 = e–ᶠα

D. (P1 – mv²)/ (P2 – mv²) = e–ᶠα

Answer: A

2. The ultimate strength of steel in tension in comparison to shear is in the ratio of

A. 1: 1

B. 2:1

C. 3: 2

D. 2: 3

Answer: C

3. In radial cams, the follower moves

A. In a direction parallel to the cam axis

B. In a direction perpendicular to the cam axis

C. In any direction irrespective of cam axis

D. Along the cam axis

Answer: B

4. The permissible stress for carbon steel under static loading is generally taken as

A. 2000-3000 kg/m²

B. 3000-4000 kg/cm²

C. 4000-4500 kg/cm²

D. 7500-10,000 kg/cm²

Answer: C

5. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high impact loads is known as

A. Elasticity

B. Endurance

C. Strength

D. Toughness

Answer: D

6. In replacing the V-belts, a complete set of new belts is used instead of replacing a single damaged belt because

A. Belts are available in sets

B. Only one belt cannot be fitted with other used belts

C. The new belt will carry more than its share and result in short life

D. New and old belts will cause vibrations

Answer: C

7. A hot short metal is

A. Brittle when cold

B. Brittle when hot

C. Brittle under all conditions

D. Ductile at high temperature

Answer: B

8. In case of pressure vessels having closed ends, the fluid pressure induces

A. Longitudinal stress

B. Shear stress

C. Circumferential stress

D. None of these

Answer: A

9. Guest’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials

A. Brittle

B. Ductile

C. Elastic

D. Plastic

Answer: B

10. A V-belt designated as B 4430 LP has

A. 4430 mm as diameter of small pulley

B. 4430 mm as nominal pitch length

C. 4430 mm as diameter of large pulley

D. 4430 mm as centre distance between pulleys

Answer: B

Machine Design MCQs

11. Rankine’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials

A. Brittle

B. Ductile

C. Elastic

D. Plastic

Answer: A

12. Screws used for power transmission should have

A. Very fine threads

B. High efficiency

C. Low efficiency

D. Strong teeth

Answer: B

13. The value of stress concentration factor depends upon

A. Material and geometry of the part

B. Geometry of the part

C. Material of the part

D. None of these

Answer: D

14. Tensile strength of a mild steel specimen can be roughly predicted from following hardness test

A. Brinell

B. Rockwell

C. Vickers

D. None of the above

Answer: A

15. Resilience of a material is important, when it is subjected to

A. Combined loading

B. Fatigue

C. Thermal stresses

D. Shock loading

Answer: D

16. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a

A. Dun cylinder

B. Hollow shaft

C. Solid shaft

D. Thick cylinder

Answer: B

17. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of

A. Bolts and nuts

B. Studs

C. Headless taper bolts

D. None of these

Answer: A

18. If a load W is applied instantaneously on a bar; Then the stress induced in bar will

A. Be independent of ratio of mass of load W to mass of bar (y)

B. Increase with increase in y

C. Decrease with decrease in y

D. Depend on other considerations

Answer: A

19. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means that the

A. Basic size is 100 mm

B. Actual size is 100 mm

C. Difference between the actual size and basic size is 100 mm

D. None of the above

Answer: A

20. The power transmitted by the belt drive can be increased by

A. Increasing the initial tension in the belt

B. Dressing the belt to increase the coefficient of friction

C. Increasing wrap angle by using idler pulley

D. All of the above methods

Answer: D

21. Surface endurance limit of gear material is dependent upon its

A. Elastic strength

B. Yield strength

C. Brinell hardness number

D. Toughness

Answer: C

22. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes intersect at an angle greater than a right angle and one of the bevel gears has a pitch angle of 90°, then they are known as

A. Crown bevel gears

B. Angular bevel gears

C. Mitre gears

D. Internal bevel gears

Answer: A

23. Brittle coating technique is used for

A. Determining brittleness

B. Protecting metal against corrosion

C. Protecting metal against wear and tear

D. Experimental stress analysis

Answer: D

24. Stress concentration is caused due to

A. Variation in properties of material from point to point in a member

B. Pitting at points or areas at which loads on a member are applied

C. Abrupt change of section

D. All of the above

Answer: D

25. The endurance limit of a material with finished surface in comparison to rough surface is

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. More or less depending on quantum of load

Answer: A

26. When screw threads are to be used in a situation where power is being transmitted in one direction only, then the screw threads suitable for this will be

A. Knuckle threads

B. Square threads

C. Acme threads

D. Buttress threads

Answer: D

27. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of

A. Effective length of column to least radius of gyration of the column

B. Width of column to depth of column

C. Maximum size of column to minimum size of column

D. Effective length of column to width of column

Answer: A

28. Plastic flow in ductile materials

A. Increases the seriousness of static loading stress concentration

B. Lessens the seriousness of static loading stress concentration

C. Has no effect on it

D. Depends on other considerations

Answer: B

29. The size of a gear is usually specified by

A. Pressure angle

B. Pitch circle diameter

C. Circular pitch

D. Diametral pitch

Answer: B

30. When the speed of belt increases,

A. The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley decreases

B. The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley increases

C. The power transmitted will decrease

D. The power transmitted will increase

Answer: C

31. The load cup of a screw jack is made separate from the head of the spindle to

A. Prevent the rotation of load being lifted

B. Enhance the load carrying capacity of the jack

C. Reduce the effort needed for lifting the working load

D. Reduce the value of frictional torque

Answer: A

32. The centrifugal tension in belts

A. Decreases the power transmitted

B. Increases the power transmitted

C. Increase the wrap angle

D. Increases the belt tension without increasing power transmission

Answer: D

33. Stress concentration in cyclic loading is more serious in

A. Ductile materials

B. Brittle materials

C. Equally serious in both cases

D. Depends on other factors

Answer: A

34. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum stress that a member can withstand for an infinite number of load applications without failure when subjected to

A. Dynamic loading

B. Static loading

C. Combined static and dynamic loading

D. Completely reversed loading

Answer: D

35. An Involute pinion and gear are in mesh. If both have the same size of addendum, then there will be interference between the

A. Tip of the pinion and flank of gear

B. Tip of the gear and flank of pinion

C. Flanks of both gear and pinion

D. Tip of both gear and pinion

Answer: B

36. Pick up wrong statement. Fatigue strength can be increased by

A. Cold working

B. Shot peening

C. Grinding and lapping surface

D. Hot working

Answer: D

37. Which of the following is not correct procedure to increase the fatigue limit?

A. Cold working

B. Shot peening

C. Surface decarburisation

D. Under stressing

Answer: C

38. Which of the following screw thread is used for power transmission in one direction only?

A. Square threads

B. Multiple threads

C. Acme threads

D. Buttress threads

Answer: D

39. Coaxing is the procedure of increasing

A. Metal strength by cycling

B. Metal hardness by surface treatment

C. Metal resistance to corrosion by coating

D. Fatigue limit by over-stressing the metal by successively increasing loadings

Answer: D

40. Which of the following statement is correct for gears?

A. The pitch circle diameter is equal to the product of module and number of teeth

B. The addendum is less than dedendum

C. The pitch circle is always greater than the base circle

D. All of the above

Answer: D

41. The belt slip occurs due to

A. Heavy load

B. Loose belt

C. Driving pulley too small

D. Any one of the above

Answer: D

42. Which is correct statement? Stress concentration in static loading is

A. Very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials

B. Very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials

C. Equally serious in both types of materials

D. Seriousness would depend on other factors

Answer: A

43. The cracks in helical springs used in railway carriages usually start on the inner side of the coil because of the fact that

A. It is subjected to a higher cyclic loading than the outer side

B. It is subjected to a higher stress than the outer side

C. It is more stretched than the outer side during the manufacturing process

D. It has a lower curvature than the outer side

Answer: A

44. The notch angle of the Izod impact test specimen is

A. 10°

B. 20°

C. 30°

D. 45°

Answer: D

45. In Vickers hardness testing, the pyramid indentor apex is

A. 40°

B. 122°

C. 136°

D. 152°

Answer: C

46. The toughness of a material _________ when it is heated

A. Does not change

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of the Above

Answer: C

47. The number of slots in a 25 mm castle nut is

A. 8

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

Answer: A

48. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes intersect at an angle greater than a right angle and one of the bevel gears has a pitch angle of 90°, then they are known as

A. Angular bevel gears

B. Mitre gears

C. Internal bevel gears

D. Crown bevel gears

Answer: D

49. The rolling contact bearings are known as

A. Thick lubricated bearings

B. Plastic bearings

C. Antifriction bearings

D. Thin lubricated bearings

Answer: C

50. Cold working

A. Increases the fatigue strength

B. Decreases the fatigue strength

C. Has no influence on fatigue strength

D. Alone has no influence on fatigue strength

Answer: A

51. Yield point in fatigue loading as compared to static loading is

A. Same

B. Higher

C. Lower

D. Depends on other factors

Answer: C

52. The arms of the pulleys for flat belt drive have

A. Elliptical cross-section

B. Major axis in plane of rotation

C. Major axis twice the minor axis

D. All the three characteristics

Answer: D

53. Residual stress in materials

A. Acts when external load is applied

B. Becomes zero when external load is removed

C. Is independent of external loads

D. Is always harmful

Answer: C

54. In a marine flange coupling, the thickness of flange is taken as

A. d/2

B. d/3

C. 3d/4

D. d/4

Answer: B

55. The building up of worn and undersized parts, subjected to repeated loads by electroplating is

A. Best method

B. Extremely hazardous

C. Has no effect as regards fatigue strength

D. Cheapest method

Answer: A

56. In nitrated parts, the origins of the fatigue cracks will occur at

A. Surface

B. Just below the surface

C. Within the core

D. None of the above

Answer: D

57. The objective of idler pulley in belt drive is to

A. Decrease the tendency of belt to slip

B. Increase the power transmission capacity

C. Increase the wrap angle and belt tension

D. All the above objectives

Answer: D

58. The constant factor in case of R10 series of preferred numbers is

A. 1.06

B. 1.12

C. 1.26

D. 1.58

Answer: C

59. Which one of the following is a positive drive?

A. V-belt drive

B. Rope drive

C. Crossed flat belt drive

D. Chain drive

Answer: D

60. Which process will increase the fatigue duration of parts?

A. Finishing and polishing

B. Shot-peening

C. De-carburisation

D. Electroplating

61. In most machine members, the damping capacity of the material should be

A. Low

B. Zero

C. High

D. Could be anything

Answer: C

62. For unequal width of butt straps, the thicknesses of butt straps are

A. 0.75 t for narrow strap on the inside and 0.625 t for wide strap on the outside

B. 0.75 t for wide strap on the inside and 0.625 t for narrow strap on the outside

C. 0.75 t for both the straps on the inside and outside

D. 0.625 t for both the straps on the inside and outside

Answer: B

63. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in flexure is

A. 0.33

B. 0.4

C. 0.5

D. 0.55

Answer: D

64. The backlash for spur gears depends upon

A. Module

B. Tooth profile

C. Both module and pitch line velocity

D. Pitch line velocity

Answer: C

65. A transmission shaft includes

A. Over head shaft

B. Counter shaft

C. Line shaft

D. All of these

Answer: D

66. The groove angle of pulleys for V-belt is

A. 340 to 360

B. 420 to 450

C. More than 400

D. 300 to 320

Answer: A

67. In unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on

A. Both sides of the actual size

B. One side of the actual size

C. One side of the nominal size

D. Both sides of the nominal size

Answer: C

68. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at an edge, the distance from the centre line of the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate should be equal to (where d = Diameter of rivet hole)

A. d

B. 1.5 d

C. 2.5 d

D. 2 d

Answer: B

69. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to ultimate strength in tension is

A. 1/2

B. 1/3

C. 1/4

D. 2/3

Answer: D

70. The endurance limit in shear of carbon steel can be obtained by multiplying the endurance limit in flexure by a factor of

A. 0.45

B. 0.55

C. 0.65

D. 0.75

Answer: D

71. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical portion is recessed to receive the tip of the locking set screw, is called

A. Ring nut

B. Castle nut

C. Sawn nut

D. Jam nut

Answer: A

72. A taper key which fits half in the key way of the hub and half in the key way of shaft, is known as

A. Angular bevel gears

B. Mitre gears

C. Crown Bevel gears

D. Internal bevel gears

Answer: B

73. At low temperatures (say 75°C) the notched bar impact value of steel

A. Increases markedly

B. Decreases markedly

C. Remain same

D. Depends on heat treatment carried out

Answer: B

74. The taper on cotter varies from

A. 1 in 24 to 1 in 20

B. 1 in 15 to 1 in 10

C. 1 in 32 to 1 in 24

D. 1 in 48 to 1 in 24

Answer: D

75. A bolt

A. Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other

B. Has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part to be joined

C. Has both the ends threaded

D. Is provided with pointed threads

Answer: A

76. If P1 and P2 are the tight and slack side tensions in the belt, then the initial tension Pi (according to Barth) will be equal to (Where, Pc is centrifugal tension)

A. [(√P1 + √P2)/2]²

B. P1 + P2

C. ⅟2 × (P1 + P2)

D. [⅟2 × (P1 + P2)] + Pc

Answer: A

77. A stud

A. Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other

B. Has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part to be joined

C. Has both the ends threaded

D. Has pointed threads

Answer: C

78. Shear stress theory is applicable for

A. Ductile materials

B. Brittle materials

C. Elastic materials

D. All of the above

Answer: A

79. When the shaft rotates in anticlockwise direction at slow speed in a bearing, it will

A. Have contact at the bottom most of the bearing

B. Move towards right of the bearing making no metal to metal contact

C. Move towards right of the bearing making the metal to metal contact

D. Move towards left of the bearing making metal to metal contact

Answer: D

80. A tap bolt

A. Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other

B. Has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part to be joined

C. Has both the ends threaded

D. Has pointed threads

Answer: B

81. For applications involving high stresses in one direction only the following type of thread would be best suited

A. ISO metric thread

B. Acme thread

C. Square thread

D. Buttress thread

Answer: D

82. In a horizontal flat belt drive, it is customary to use

A. Bottom side of belt as slack side

B. Top side of belt as slack side

C. Idler pulley

D. None of the above

Answer: B

83. The included angle in unified of American National threads is

A. 60°

B. 55°

C. 47°

D. 29°

Answer: A

84. For a shaft diameter of 200 mm, the number of bolts in a marine flange coupling should be

A. 8

B. 6

C. 4

D. 10

Answer: A

85. The function of a washer is to

A. Provide cushioning effect

B. Provide bearing area

C. Absorb shocks and vibrations

D. Provide smooth surface in place of rough surface

Answer: B

86. Cap screws are

A. Similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of heads are available

B. Slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut

C. Used to prevent relative motion between parts

D. Provided with detachable caps

Answer: A

87. If P1 and P2 are the tight and slack side tensions in the belt, then the initial tension Pi (neglecting centrifugal tension) will be equal to (Where, Pc is centrifugal tension)

A. P1 – P2

B. P1 + P2

C. ⅟2 × (P1 + P2)

D. [⅟2 × (P1 + P2)] + Pc

Answer: C

88. An alien bolt is

A. Self locking bolt

B. Same as stud

C. Provided with hexagonal depression in head

D. Used in high speed components

Answer: C

89. The deflection of a cantilever beam under load W is 8. If its width is halved, then the deflection under load W will be

A. 2/8

B. 8/2

C. 4/8

D. 8/4

Answer: C

90. Ball bearing type screws are found in following application

A. Screw jack

B. Aeroplane engines

C. Crane

D. Steering mechanism

Answer: D

91. Machine screws are

A. Similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of heads are available

B. Slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut

C. Used to prevent relative motion between two parts

D. Similar to stud

Answer: B

92. A machine part subjected to _________ is called a strut.

A. An axial compressive force

B. A tangential force

C. An axial tensile force

D. Any one of these

Answer: A

93. Rivets are generally specified by

A. Thickness of plates to be riveted

B. Length of rivet

C. Diameter of head

D. Nominal diameter

Answer: D

94. The edges of a boiler plate are bevelled to an angle of

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 80°

Answer: D

95. The stress induced in the belt is,

A. Tensile stress

B. Compressive stress

C. Direct shear stress

D. Torsional shear stress

Answer: A

96. Which of the following is a permanent fastening?

A. Bolts

B. Keys

C. Cotters

D. Rivets

Answer: D

97. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at edge, the distance from the center line of the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate in terms of dia. of rivet d should be equal to

A. d

B. 1.25 d

C. 1.5 d

D. 1.75 d

Answer: C

98. The dedendum circle diameter is equal to (where φ = Pressure angle)

A. Pitch circle diameter × cosφ

B. Addendum circle diameter × cosφ

C. Clearance circle diameter × cosφ

D. Pitch circle diameter × sinφ

Answer: A

99. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 75%, then the ratio of diameter of rivet to the pitch is equal to

A. 0.2

B. 0.25

C. 0.50

D. 0.6

Answer: B

100. Transverse fillet welded joints are designed for

A. Tensile strength

B. Compressive strength

C. Shear strength

D. Bending strength

Answer: A

101. A sliding bearing which can support steady loads without any relative motion between the journal and the bearing, is called

A. Hydrostatic lubricated bearing

B. Hydrodynamic lubricated bearing

C. Boundary lubricated bearing

D. Zero film bearing

Answer: A

102. Jam nut is a locking device in which

A. One smaller nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming

B. A slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening a screw

C. A hard fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip

D. Through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter spitted and bent in reverse direction at other end

Answer: A

103. When the belt is transmitting maximum power, the belt speed should be
(Where, m = mass of belt per meter (kg/m) and Pmax = maximum permissible tension in belt (N))

A. √(Pmax / 2m)

B. √(Pmax / 3m)

C. √(Pmax / m)

D. √(3m /Pmax)

Answer: B

104. The pitch of threads on a Jock nut in comparison to pitch of nut is

A. Same

B. Coarser

C. Finer

D. Very fine

Answer: A

105. Buttress threads are usually found on

A. Screw cutting lathes

B. Feed mechanisms

C. Spindles of bench vices

D. Railway carriage couplings

Answer: D

106. A tapered key which fits in a key-way in the hub and is flat on the shaft, is known as

A. Woodruff key

B. Feather key

C. Flat saddle key

D. Gib head key

Answer: C

107. Fibrous fracture occurs in

A. Ductile material

B. Brittle material

C. Elastic material

D. Hard material

Answer: A

108. When the belt is transmitting maximum power,

A. The tension in tight side is twice the centrifugal tension

B. The tension in slack side is equal to the centrifugal tension

C. The tension in tight side is thrice the centrifugal tension

D. None of the above

Answer: A

109. Turn buckle has

A. Right hand threads on bout ends

B. Left hand threads on both ends

C. Left hand threads on one end and right hand threads on other end

D. No threads

Answer: C

110. Eye bolts are used for

A. Foundation purposes

B. Absorbing shock and vibrations

C. Transmission of power

D. Lifting and transportation of machines and cubicles

Answer: D

111. The contact ratio is the ratio of

A. Length of arc of recess to the circular pitch

B. Length of path of contact to the circular pitch

C. Length of arc of contact to the circular pitch

D. Length of arc of approach to the circular pitch

Answer: C

112. Elastic nut is a locking device in which

A. One small nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming

B. A slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening a screw

C. Hard fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is stewed on the bolt causing a tight grip

D. Through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter pin splitted and bent in reverse direction at other end

Answer: C

113. If d is the normal diameter of a bolt in mm, then the initial tension in kg in a bolt used for making a fluid tight joint as for steam engine cover joint is calculated by the relation

A. 124 d

B. 138 d

C. 151 d

D. 168 d

Answer: D

114. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The stress concentration in static loading is more serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials

B. The stress concentration in static loading is more serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials

C. The toughness of a material increases when it is heated

D. The shear stress in a beam varies from zero at the neutral surface and maximum at the outer fibres

Answer: B

115. If threads on a bolt are left hand, threads on nut will be

A. Right hand with same pitch

B. Left hand with same pitch

C. Could be left or right hand

D. Right hand with fine pitch

Answer: B

116. Taper usually provided on cotter is

A. 1 in 5

B. 1 in 10

C. 1 in 24

D. 1 in 40

Answer: C

117. The condition for maximum power transmission is that the maximum tension in the flat belt should be equal to
(Where, Pc = tension in belt due to centrifugal force)

A. 3 Pc

B. Pc

C. Pc/3

D. 2 Pc

Answer: A

118. Applications in which stresses are encountered in one direction only uses following type of threads

A. Metric

B. Buttress

C. Acme

D. Square

Answer: B

119. The draw of cotter need not exceed

A. 3 mm

B. 5 mm

C. 10 mm

D. 20 mm

Answer: A

120. A bench vice has following type of threads

A. Metric

B. Square

C. Buttress

D. Acme

Answer: D

121. The function of cutting oil when threading a pipe is to

A. Provide cooling action

B. Lubricate the dies

C. Help removes chips

D. All of the above

Answer: D

122. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. The V-belt may be operated in either direction with tight side of the belt at the top or bottom

B. The V-belt drive is used with large center distance

C. The power transmitted by V-belts is less than flat belts for the same coefficient of friction, arc of contact and allowable tension in the belts

D. The ratio of driving tensions in V-belt drive is more than flat belt drives

Answer: B

123. Tapered roller bearings can take

A. Axial load only

B. Both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being greater than unity

C. Radial load only

D. Both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being less than unity

Answer: B

124. Silver based solder is used for

A. Flaring

B. Brazing

C. Soft soldering

D. Fusion welding

Answer: B

125. For tight leakage joints, following type of thread is best suited

A. Metric

B. Buttress

C. Square

D. NPT (national pipe threads).

Answer: D

126. In a hydrodynamic lubricated bearing

A. There is a thick film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing

B. There is a thin film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing

C. The lubricant is forced between the journal and the bearing, by external pressure

D. There is no lubricant between the journal and the bearing

Answer: A

127. The power transmitted by belt drive depends upon

A. Belt velocity

B. Initial belt tension

C. Arc of contact

D. All of the above

Answer: D

128. In order to permit the thermal expansion/contraction of tubing, it should be

A. Crimped

B. Honed

C. Flared

D. Bent

Answer: D

129. A tube has the following advantage over pipe

A. Lighter and easier to handle

B. Greater shock absorption

C. Smoother inside walls

D. All of the above

Answer: D

130. The strap end of a connecting rod of steam engine is joined by

A. Gib of cotter joint

B. Sleeve and cotter joint

C. Spigot socket cotter joint

D. Knuckle joint

Answer: A

131. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the bolt should be considered in order to prevent breakage at the

A. Thread

B. Middle

C. Shank

D. Head

Answer: A

132. The application of third type levers is found in

A. A pair of tongs

B. Hand wheel of a punching press

C. Lever of a loaded safety valve

D. Handle of a hand pump

Answer: A

133. A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint when making a

A. Butt weld

B. Fillet weld

C. Sleeve weld

D. Socket weld

Answer: A

134. The suitable material for belt in agricultural machinery is

A. Leather

B. Rubber

C. Cotton duck

D. Balata gum

Answer: B

135. The shear plane in case of bolts should

A. Be across threaded portion of shank

B. Be parallel to axis of bolt

C. Be normal to threaded portion of shank

D. Never be across the threaded portion

Answer: D

136. The edges of the plates for cylindrical vessels are usually bevelled to an angle of 80° for

A. Reducing stress concentration

B. Ease of manufacture

C. Safety

D. Fullering and caulking

Answer: D

137. The piston rod of a steam engine is usually connected to the cross-head by means of

A. Bolted joint

B. Knuckle joint

C. Cotter joint

D. Universal joint

Answer: C

138. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in flexure is

A. 0.70

B. 0.25

C. 0.40

D. 0.55

Answer: D

139. Which of the following pipe joints would be suitable for pipes carrying steam?

A. Flanged

B. Threaded

C. Bell and spigot

D. Expansion

Answer: D

140. When the belt speed increases

A. Power transmitted increases

B. Power transmitted decreases

C. Power transmitted increases to a maximum value and then decreases

D. Power transmitted remains the same

Answer: C

141. Spring index is

A. Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter

B. Load required to produce unit deflection

C. Its capability of storing energy

D. Indication of quality of spring

Answer: A

142. If a bearing is designated by the number 305, it means that the bearing is of

A. Medium series whose bore is 5 mm

B. Medium series whose bore is 25 mm

C. Light series whose bore is 25 mm

D. Light series whose bore is 5 mm

Answer: B

143. The shearing stresses in the inner face as compared to outer face of the wire in a heavy close coiled spring is

A. Larger

B. Smaller

C. Equal

D. Larger/smaller depending on diameter of spring coil

Answer: A

144. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to heavy loads is

A. White metal

B. Silicon bronze

C. Monel metal

D. Phosphor bronze

Answer: A

145. Form coefficient of spring is

A. Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter

B. Load required to produce unit deflection

C. Its capability of storing energy

D. Concerned with strength of wire of spring

Answer: C

146. Spring stiffness is

A. Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter

B. Load required to produce unit deflection

C. Its capability of storing energy

D. Its ability to absorb shocks

Answer: B

147. The creep in the belt is due to

A. Effect of temperature on belt

B. Material of belt

C. Unequal extensions in the belt due to tight and slack side tensions

D. Stresses beyond elastic limit of belt material

Answer: C

148. When two springs are in series (having stiffness K), the equivalent stiffness will be

A. K

B. K/2

C. 2K

D. K/4

Answer: B

149. When a close coiled helical spring is compressed, its wire is subjected to

A. Tension

B. Shear

C. Compression

D. All of the above

Answer: A

150. A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by

A. Keeping the core diameter of threads equal to the diameter of unthreaded portion of the bolt

B. Keeping the core diameter smaller than the diameter of the unthreaded portion

C. Keeping the nominal diameter of threads equal to the diameter of unthreaded portion of the bolt

D. None of the above

Answer: A

151. When the bearing is subjected to large fluctuations of load and heavy impacts, the bearing characteristic number should be _________ the bearing modulus.

A. 10 times

B. 5 times

C. 15 times

D. 20 times

Answer: C

152. Which is positive drive?

A. Flat belt drive

B. V belt drive

C. Crossed belt drive

D. Timing belt

Answer: D

153. If two springs are in parallel then their overall stiffness will be

A. Half

B. Same

C. Double

D. None of the above

Answer: C

154. In hydrodynamic bearings

A. The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal

B. The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure

C. Do not require external supply of lubricant

D. Grease is used for lubrication

155. A sliding bearing which operates without any lubricant present, is called

A. Zero film bearing

B. Boundary lubricated bearing

C. Hydrodynamic lubricated bearing

D. Hydrostatic lubricated bearing

156. The bearings of heavy series have capacity __________ over the medium series.

A. 20 to 30%

B. 10 to 20%

C. 30 to 40%

D. 40 to 50%

Answer: A

157. Antifriction bearings are

A. Sleeve bearings

B. Hydrodynamic bearings

C. Thin lubricated bearings

D. None of the above

Answer: D

158. If p = bearing pressure on projected bearing area, z = absolute viscosity of lubricant, and N = speed of journal, then the bearing characteristic number is given by

A. ZN/p

B. p/ZN

C. Z/pN

D. N/Zp

Answer: A

159. Euler’s formula for a mild steel column is not valid if the slenderness ratio is

A. 90

B. 60

C. 120

D. 100

Answer: B

160. A screw is said to be over hauling screw, if its efficiency is

A. More than 50%

B. Less than 50%

C. Equal to 50%

D. None of these

Answer: A

161. The usual clearance provided in hydrodynamic bearing per mm of diameter of shaft is

A. 0.01 micron

B. 0.1 micron

C. 1 micron

D. 10 microns

Answer: C

162. In hydrostatic bearings

A. The Oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal

B. The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure

C. Do not require external supply of lubricant

D. Grease is used for lubrication

Answer: B

163. For hardening alloy steels and high speed steels, they are heated to

A. 1100 to 1300°C

B. 1300 to 1500°C

C. 500 to 600°C

D. 700 to 900°C

Answer: A

164. Oil in journal bearing should be applied at the point where load is

A. Nil or lightest

B. Maximum

C. Average

D. Any one of the above

Answer: A

165. The rated life of a bearing varies

A. Directly as load

B. Inversely as square of load

C. Inversely as cube of load

D. Inversely as fourth power of load

Answer: C

166. The rolling contact bearings as compared to sliding contact bearings have

A. Low starting and low running friction except at very high speeds

B. Accuracy of shaft alignment

C. Small overall dimensions

D. All of the above

Answer: C

167. Three different weights fall from a certain height under vacuum. They will take

A. Same time to reach earth

B. Times proportional to weight to reach earth

C. Times inversely proportional to weight to reach earth

D. None of the above

Answer: A

168. The pipe joint mostly used for pipes carrying water at low pressures is

A. Socket joint

B. Nipple joint

C. Union joint

D. Spigot and socket joint

Answer: A

169. In cross or regular lay ropes

A. Direction of twist of wires in strands is opposite to the direction of twist of strands

B. Direction of twist of wires and strands are same

C. Wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in opposite direction

D. Wires are not twisted

Answer: A

170. A universal coupling is used to connect two shafts

A. Which are not in exact alignment

B. Which are perfectly aligned

C. Whose axes intersect at a small angle

D. Have lateral misalignment

Answer: C

171. In standard taper roller bearings, the angle of taper of outer raceway is

A. 5°

B. 8°

C. 15°

D. 25°

Answer: D

172. In composite or reverse laid ropes

A. Direction of twist of wires in strands is opposite to the direction of twist of strands

B. Direction of twist of wires and strands are same

C. Wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in opposite direction

D. Wires are not twisted

Answer: C

173. Whether any core is required in wire ropes

A. Yes

B. No

C. Sometimes

D. Rarely

Answer: A

174. The lower deviation is the algebraic difference between the

A. Actual size and the corresponding basic size

B. Maximum limit and the basic size

C. Minimum limit and the basic size

D. None of the above

Answer: C

175. If shearing stress in nut is half the tensile stress in a bolt, then nut length should be equal to

A. Diameter of bolt

B. 0.75 × diameter of bolt

C. 1.25 × diameter of bolt

D. 1.5 × diameter of bolt

Answer: A

176. Basic shaft is one

A. Whose upper deviation is zero

B. Whose lower deviation is zero

C. Whose lower as well as upper deviations are zero

D. Does not exist

Answer: A

177. The maximum normal stress theory is used for

A. Plastic materials

B. Brittle materials

C. Non-ferrous materials

D. Ductile materials

Answer: B

178. The rivet head used for boiler plate riveting is usually

A. Pan Head

B. Snap head

C. Counter sunk head

D. Conical head

Answer: B

179. Basic hole is one

A. Whose upper deviation is zero

B. Whose lower deviation is zero

C. Whose lower as well as upper deviations are zero

D. Does not exist

Answer: B

180. I.S. specifies following total number of grades of tolerances

A. 18

B. 16

C. 20

D. 22

Answer: A

181. In the case of an elastic bar fixed at upper end and loaded by a falling weight at lower end, the shock load produced can be decreased by

A. Decreasing the cross-section area of bar

B. Increasing the cross-section area of bar

C. Remain unaffected with cross-section area

D. Would depend upon other factors

Answer: A

182. The number of slots in a 25 mm castle nut is

A. 8

B. 4

C. 2

D. 6

Answer: D

183. Which of the following material has the maximum ductility?

A. Copper

B. Mild steel

C. Aluminium

D. Zinc

Answer: B

184. The included angle for the British Association thread is

A. 29°

B. 55°

C. 47.3°

D. 60°

Answer: B

185. An open belt drive is used when

A. Shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite direction

B. Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions

C. Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions

D. Driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without interfering with the driving shaft

Answer: C

186. Screws used for power transmission should have

A. Low efficiency

B. High efficiency

C. Very fine threads

D. Strong teeth

Answer: B

187. The maximum stress due to stress concentration in a bar having circular transverse hole, as compared to its static stress without hole will be

A. Same in both cases

B. 2 times more

C. 3 times more

D. 4 times more

Answer: C

188. The fatigue life of a part can be improved by

A. Electroplating

B. Polishing

C. Coating

D. Shot peening

Answer: D

189. Stress concentration in static loading is more serious in

A. Ductile materials

B. Brittle materials

C. Equally serious in both cases

D. Depends on other factors

Answer: B

190. The application of third type levers is found in

A. Handle of a hand pump

B. Hand wheel of a punching press

C. Lever of a loaded safety valve

D. A pair of tongs

Answer: D

191. In case of V belt drive

A. The belt should touch the bottom of groove in the pulley

B. The belt should not touch the bottom of groove in the pulley

C. The belt should not touch the sides of groove in the pulley

D. None of the above

Answer: B

192. Which is correct statement? Stress concentration in cyclic loading is

A. Very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials

B. Very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials

C. Equally serious in both types of materials

D. Seriousness would depend on other factors

Answer: C

193. According to I.B.R., when the thickness of boiler shell (t) is greater than 8 mm, then the diameter of rivet hole D. is obtained by

A. Equating tearing resistance of the plate to the shearing resistance of the rivets

B. Equating tearing resistance of the plate to the crushing resistance of the rivets

C. Equating shearing resistance to the crushing resistance of the rivets

D. None of the above

Answer: B

194. In testing a material for endurance strength, it is subjected to

A. Static load

B. Dynamic load

C. Impact load

D. Completely reversed load

Answer: D

195. If a material fails below its yield point, failure would be due to

A. Straining

B. Fatigue

C. Creep

D. Sudden loading

Answer: B

196. In leaf springs, the longest leaf is known as

A. Master leaf

B. Lower leaf

C. Upper leaf

D. None of these

Answer: A

197. For same pulley diameters, center distance, belt speed and belt and pulley materials,

A. Open belt drive transmits more power than crossed belt drive

B. Crossed belt drive transmits more power than open belt drive

C. Open and crossed belt drives transmit same power

D. Power transmission does not depend upon open and crossed types of constructions

Answer: B

198. Which is correct statement?

A. A member made of steel will generally be more rigid than a member of equal load carrying ability made of cast iron

B. A member made of cast iron will generally be more rigid than a member of equal load carrying ability made of steel

C. Both will be equally rigid

D. Which one is rigid will depend on several other factors

Answer: B

199. When two helical springs of equal lengths are arranged to form a cluster spring, then

A. Shear stress in each spring will be equal

B. Load taken by each spring will be half the total load

C. Only A is correct

D. Both A and B is correct

Answer: D

200. Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by

A. Young’s modulus

B. Coefficient of elasticity

C. Elastic limit

D. Endurance limit

Answer: D

201. The crest diameter of a screw thread is same as

A. Major diameter

B. Minor diameter

C. Pitch diameter

D. Core diameter

Answer: A

202. A localized compressive stress at the area of contact between two members is known as

A. Bending stress

B. Shear stress

C. Tensile stress

D. Bearing stress

Answer: D

203. The objective of ‘crowning’ of the flat pulleys of belt drive is to

A. Prevent the belt from running off the pulley

B. Increase the power transmission capacity

C. Increase the belt velocity

D. Prevent the belt joint from damaging the belt surface

Answer: A

204. Maximum principal stress theory is applicable for

A. Ductile materials

B. Brittle materials

C. Elastic materials

D. All of the above

Answer: B

205. The following type of nut is used with alien bolt

A. Hexagonal nut

B. Slotted nut

C. Castle nut

D. Any one of the above

Answer: D

206. The standard length of the shaft is

A. 6 m

B. 5 m

C. 7 m

D. All of these

Answer: D

207. Set screws are

A. Similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of heads are available

B. Slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut

C. Used to prevent relative motion between parts

D. Similar to stud

Answer: C

208. A self locking screw has

A. Fine threads

B. Course threads

C. Coefficient of friction is greater than tangent of load angle

D. Hole for inserting split pin

Answer: C

209. The included angle between the sides of V-belt is

A. 40°

B. 45°

C. 38°

D. 60°

Answer: A

210. The designation M 33 × 2 of a bolt means

A. Metric threads of 33 numbers in 2 cm

B. Metric threads with cross-section of 33 mm

C. Metric threads of 33 mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch

D. Bolt of 33 mm nominal diameter having 2 threads per cm

Answer: C

211. In order to obtain bolt of uniform strength

A. Increase shank diameter

B. Increase its length

C. Drill an axial hole through head up to threaded portion so that shank area is equal to root area of thread

D. Tighten die bolt properly

Answer: C

212. The wire ropes make contact at

A. Bottom of groove of the pulley

B. Sides and bottom of groove of the pulley

C. Anywhere in the groove of the pulley

D. Sides of groove of the pulley

Answer: A

213. A key capable of tilting in a recess milled out in a shaft is known as

A. Woodruff key

B. Feather key

C. Flat saddle key

D. Hollow saddle key

Answer: A

214. A key made from a cylindrical disc having segmental cross-section, is known as

A. Woodruff key

B. Feather key

C. Flat saddle key

D. Gib head key

Answer: A

215. The flank of the tooth is the

A. Surface of the top of the tooth

B. Surface of the tooth above the pitch surface

C. Width of the tooth measured along the pitch circle

D. Surface of the tooth below the pitch surface

Answer: D

216. The difference between the tooth space and the tooth thickness as measured on the pitch circle, is called

A. Working depth

B. Clearance

C. Backlash

D. Face width

Answer: C

217. The valve rod in a steam engine is connected to an eccentric rod by

A. Cotter joint

B. Bolted joint

C. Knuckle joint

D. Universal coupling

Answer: C

218. Split nut is a locking device in which

A. One smaller nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming

B. A slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening screw

C. A hard fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip

D. Through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter pin splitted and bent in reverse direction at the other end

Answer: B

219. Fabric belts are used in industrial applications because

A. They are cheap

B. They can work at high temperature

C. They are unaffected by moisture and humidity

D. None of the above

Answer: A

220. Taper on the cotter and slot is provided

A. On both the sides

B. On one side only

C. On none of the sides

D. May be provided anywhere

Answer: B

221. Castle nut is a locking device in which

A. One smaller nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming

B. A slot is cut partly is middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening a screw

C. A hard fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip

D. Through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter pin spitted and bent in reverse direction at other end

Answer: D

222. The suitable material for belt used in flour mill is

A. Leather

B. Rubber

C. Canvas or cotton duck

D. Balata gum

Answer: C

223. When a nut is tightened by placing a washer below it, the bolt will be subjected to following type of loads

A. Compression

B. Tension

C. Shear

D. Combined loads

Answer: B

224. Gear box is used

A. To produce torque

B. For speed reduction

C. To obtain variable speeds

D. To increase efficiency of system

Answer: C

225. In order to remove internal stresses produced by hardening the steel, the process usually adopted is

A. Tempering

B. Normalizing

C. Annealing

D. Spheroidizing

Answer: A

226. If a spring is cut down into two springs, the stiffness of cut springs will be

A. Half

B. Same

C. Double

D. None of the above

Answer: C

227. When carbon in the cast iron is principally in the form of graphite, the cast iron will be of

A. Brown colour

B. Yellow colour

C. White colour

D. Grey colour

Answer: D

228. Belt slip may occur due to

A. Heavy load

B. Loose belt

C. Driving pulley too small

D. All of the above

Answer: D

229. The coefficient of friction in belt drive depends upon

A. Material of belt

B. Material of pulley

C. Materials of belt and pulley

D. Belt velocity

Answer: C

230. Aircraft body is usually fabricated by

A. Welding

B. Pre-casting

C. Riveting

D. Casting

Answer: C

231. The resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by

A. Elastic limit

B. Ultimate tensile strength

C. Young’s modulus

D. Endurance limit

Answer: D

232. In oilness bearings

A. The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal

B. The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure

C. Do not require external supply of lubricant

D. Grease required to be applied after some intervals

Answer: C

233. Stress concentration is caused due to

A. Variations in load acting on a member

B. Variations in properties of materials in a member

C. Abrupt change of cross-section

D. All of these

Answer: C

234. In second type of levers,

A. Load is in between the fulcrum and effort

B. Effort is in between the fulcrum and load

C. Fulcrum is in between the load and effort

D. None of these

Answer: A

235. In V-belt drive, belt touches

A. At bottom

B. At sides only

C. Both at bottom and sides

D. Could touch anywhere

Answer: B

236. The radial distance of a tooth from the pitch circle to the top of the tooth is called

A. Addendum

B. Dedendum

C. Clearance

D. Working depth

Answer: A

237. For standard coarse threads of nut, the threads will be as strong in failure by shear as the bolt in tension, if the height of nut (h) is approximately

A. 0.4 times

B. 0.6 times

C. 0.7 times

D. 0.8 times

Answer: A

238. In a gear, having Involute teeth, the normal to the Involute is a tangent to the

A. Base circle

B. Pitch circle

C. Addendum circle

D. Dedendum circle

Answer: A

239. Allen bolts are

A. Self locking bolts

B. Designed for shock load

C. Used in aircraft application

D. Provided with hexagonal depression in head

Answer: D

240. The resultant axial load on a bolt depends on

A. Initial tension

B. External load applied

C. Relative elastic yielding (springness) of the bolt and the connected member

D. All of the above

Answer: D

241. The ratio of driving tensions for flat belts, neglecting centrifugal tension, is (where T₁, and T₂ = Tensions on the tight and slack sides of belt respectively, μ = Coefficient of friction, between the belt and pulley, and θ = Angle of contact)

A. T₁/T₂ = μθ

B. log (T₁/T₂) = μθ

C. T₁/T₂ =eμθ

D. T₁/T₂ = log μθ

Answer: C

242. If the centre distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is increased, then the pressure angle

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains unchanged

D. None of these

Answer: A

243. An open coiled helical compression spring ‘A’ of mean diameter 50 mm is subjected to an axial load ‘W’. Another spring ‘B’ of mean diameter 25 mm is similar to spring ‘A’ in all respects. The deflection of spring ‘B’ will be __________ as compared to spring ‘A’.

A. One-eighth

B. One-fourth

C. One-half

D. Double

Answer: A

244. According to Indian standard specifications, a Grey cast iron designated by ‘FG 200’ means that the

A. Carbon content is 2%

B. Maximum compressive strength is 200 N/mm²

C. Minimum tensile strength is 200 N/mm²

D. Maximum shear strength is 200 N/mm²

Answer: C

245. A bolt is designed on the basis of __________ with a large factor of safety.

A. Direct tensile stress

B. Direct compressive stress

C. Direct bending stress

D. Direct shear stress

Answer: A

246. While designing a screw in a screw jack against buckling failure, the end conditions for the screw are taken as

A. Both the ends fixed

B. Both the ends hinged

C. One end fixed and the other end hinged

D. One end fixed and the other end free

Answer: D

247. In a butt welded joint, the size of weld is __________ the throat of weld.

A. 0.5 times

B. Equal to

C. 2 times

D. Double

Answer: B 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

248. According to I.B.R., when the thickness of the boiler shell (t) is less than 8 mm, then the diameter of the rivet hole D. is obtained by

A. Equating tearing resistance of the plate to the shearing resistance of the rivets

B. Equating tearing resistance of the plate to the crushing resistance of the rivets

C. Equating shearing resistance to the crushing resistance of the rivets

D. None of the above

Answer: C

249. A feather key is generally

A. Loose in shaft and tight in hub

B. Tight in shaft and loose in hub

C. Tight in both shaft and hub

D. Loose in both shaft and hub

Answer: B

250. The process which improves the machinability of steels, but lowers the hardness and tensile strength is

A. Normalising

B. Full annealing

C. Process annealing

D. Spheroidising

Answer: D

251. The acme threads are usually found on

A. Spindles of bench vices

B. Railway carriage couplings

C. Feed mechanism of machine tools

D. Screw cutting lathes

Answer: D

252. A double fillet welded joint with parallel fillet weld of length ‘l’ and leg ‘s’ is subjected to a tensile force ‘P’. Assuming uniform stress distribution, the shear stress in the weld is given by

A. √2P/s.l

B. P/2.s.l

C. P/√2.s.l

D. 2P/s.l

Answer: C

253. The included angle for the V-belt is usually

A. 10°-20°

B. 30°-40°

C. 40°-60°

D. 60°-80°

Answer: B

254. The width of the pulley should be __________ width of the belt.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: C

255. A key way lowers

A. The strength of the shaft

B. The rigidity of the shaft

C. Both the strength and rigidity of the shaft

D. The ductility of the shaft

Answer: C

256. The form factor of a helical gear __________ with the increase in the helix angle.

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains constant

D. None of these

Answer: A

257. For a bevel gear having the pitch angle θ, the ratio of formative number of teeth (TE) to actual number of teeth (T) is

A. 1/sinθ

B. 1/cosθ

C. 1/tanθ

D. sinθ cosθ

Answer: B

258. Which of the following has threads at both ends?

A. Bolt

B. Tap bolt

C. Stud

D. None of these

Answer: C

259. The connecting rod bolts are tightened up so that tightening stress

A. Is just sufficient to hold parts together

B. Approaches yield point

C. Is 50% of yield point

D. Is about yield point divided by safety factor

Answer: B

260. The circumferential and longitudinal strains in a cylindrical boiler under internal steam pressure are εc and εl respectively. The change in volume of the boiler cylinder per unit volume will be

A. εc + 2εl

B. 2εc + εl

C. εc + εl²

D. εc² + εl

Answer: B

261. The material used for brake lining should have __________ coefficient of friction.

A. Low

B. High

C. Moderate

D. None of these

Answer: B

262. 18/8 steel contains

A. 18% nickel and 8% chromium

B. 18% chromium and 8% nickel

C. 18% nickel and 8% vanadium

D. 18% vanadium and 8% nickel

Answer: B

263. Which of the following spring is used in mechanical wrist watch?

A. Helical compression spring

B. Spiral spring

C. Torsion spring

D. Belleville spring

Answer: C

264. The effective stress in wire ropes during normal working is equal to the stress due to

A. Axial load plus stress due to bending

B. Acceleration/retardation of masses plus stress due to bending

C. Axial load plus stress due to acceleration/retardation

D. Bending plus stress due to acceleration/retardation

Answer: A

265. In levers, leverage is the ratio of

A. Load lifted to the effort applied

B. Mechanical advantage to the velocity ratio

C. Load arm to the effort arm

D. Effort arm to the load arm

Answer: D

266. A special case of ductility which permits materials to be rolled or hammered into thin sheets, is called

A. Plasticity

B. Elasticity

C. Ductility

D. Malleability

Answer: D

267. Wahl’s stress factor __________ very rapidly as the spring index decreases.

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remain same

D. None of these

Answer: A

268. When an open coiled helical compression spring is subjected to an axial compressive load, the maximum shear stress induced in the wire is (where D = Mean diameter of the spring coil, d = Diameter of the spring wire, K = Wahl’s stress factor, and W = Axial compressive load on the spring)

A. (WD/ πd3) × K

B. (2WD/ πd3) × K

C. (4WD/ πd3) × K

D. (8WD/ πd3) × K

Answer: D

269. The face of the tooth is the

A. Surface of the top of the tooth

B. Surface of the tooth above the pitch surface

C. Surface of the tooth below the pitch surface

D. Width of the tooth measured along the pitch circle

Answer: B

270. In a marine flange coupling, the pitch circle diameter of bolts is taken as

A. 1.2 d

B. 1.6 d

C. 2 d

D. 2.5 d

Answer: B

271. The helix angle for double helical gears may be made up to

A. 45°

B. 60°

C. 75°

D. 90°

Answer: A

272. The bending moment ‘M’ and a torque ‘T’ is applied on a solid circular shaft. If the maximum bending stress equals to maximum shear stress developed, then ‘M’ is equal to

A. T/2

B. T

C. 2 T

D. 4 T

Answer: A

273. The distribution of the forces along the length of key fitted in a shaft

A. Varies linearly

B. Is uniform throughout

C. Varies exponentially, being more near the torque-input end

D. Varies exponentially, being less near the torque-input end

Answer: C

274. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means that

A. Tolerance grade for the hole is 6 and for the shaft is 5

B. Tolerance grade for the shaft is 6 and for the hole is 5

C. Tolerance grade for the shaft is 4 to 8 and for the hole is 3 to 7

D. Tolerance grade for the hole is 4 to 8 and for the shaft is 3 to 7

Answer: A

275. In designing a flange coupling, the pitch circle diameter of bolts is taken as (where d = Diameter of the shaft)

A. 2 d

B. 3 d

C. 4 d

D. 5 d

Answer: B

276. A column of length l is fixed at both ends. The equivalent length of the column is

A. l/2

B. l/√2

C. l

D. 2 l

Answer: A

277. The notch sensitivity q is expressed in terms of fatigue stress concentration factor Kf and theoretical stress concentration factor Kt as

A. (Kf + 1)/ (Kt + 1)

B. (Kf – 1)/ (Kt – 1)

C. (Kt + 1)/ (Kf + 1)

D. (Kt – 1)/ (Kf – 1)

Answer: B

278. If the centre distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is varied within limits, the velocity ratio

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains unchanged

D. None of these

Answer: C

279. A type of brake commonly used in motor cars is a

A. Shoe brake

B. Band and block brake

C. Band brake

D. Internal expanding brake

Answer: D

280. Which of the following property is essential for spring materials?

A. Stiffness

B. Ductility

C. Resilience

D. Plasticity

Answer: C

281. The objective of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint

A. Free from corrosion

B. Stronger in tension

C. Free from stress

D. Leak-proof

Answer: D

282. The bending stress in a curved beam is

A. Zero at the centroidal axis

B. Zero at the point other than centroidal axis

C. Maximum at the neutral axis

D. None of these

Answer: B

283. Rankine Gordon formula for buckling is valid for

A. Long column

B. Short column

C. Short and long column

D. Very long column

Answer: C

284. In the levers of third type, the mechanical advantage is __________ one.

A. Less than

B. Equal to

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: A

285. The maximum efficiency of a square threaded screw is

A. (1 – sinφ)/ (1 + sinφ)

B. (1 + sinφ)/ (1 – sinφ)

C. (1 – sinφ)/ (1 + cosφ)

D. (1 + cosφ)/ (1 – sinφ)

Answer: A

286. A compound cylinder with inner radius 50 mm and outer radius 70 mm is made by shrinking one cylinder on to the other cylinder, the junction radius is 60 mm and the junction pressure is 1.1 N/mm². The maximum hoop stress developed in the inner cylinder is

A. 3.6 N/mm² compression

B. 3.6 N/mm² tension

C. 7.2 N/mm² compression

D. 7.2 N/mm² tension

Answer: C

287. When the screw in a mechanical screw jack rotates, the load kept on the top of it moves

A. Axially upwards

B. Axially downwards

C. Axially upwards or downwards

D. None of these

Answer: C

288. A bolt of M 24 × 2 means that

A. The pitch of the thread is 24 mm and depth is 2 mm

B. Cross-sectional area of the threads is 24 mm²

C. The nominal diameter of bolt is 24 mm and pitch is 2 mm

D. The effective diameter of bolt is 24 mm and there are 2 threads per cm

Answer: C

289. Oldham coupling is used to connect two shafts

A. Which are perfectly aligned

B. Which are not in exact alignment

C. Which have lateral misalignment

D. Whose axes intersect at a small angle

Answer: C

290. The size of a cam depends upon

A. Base circle

B. Pitch circle

C. Prime circle

D. Pitch curve

Answer: A

291. According to I.B.R., the factor of safety of riveted joint should not be less than

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: D

292. When a material is subjected to fatigue loading, the ratio of the endurance limit to the ultimate tensile strength is

A. 0.20

B. 0.35

C. 0.50

D. 0.65

Answer: C
293. A hollow saddle key is

A. A taper key which fits half in the key way of hub and half in the key way of shaft

B. A taper key which fits in a key way of the hub and is flat on the shaft

C. A taper key which fits in a key way of the hub and the bottom of the key is shaped to fit the curved surface of the shaft

D. Provided in pairs at right angles and each key is to withstand torsion in one direction only

Answer: C

294. A tapered key which fits in a key way in the hub and the bottom of which is shaped to fit the curved surface of the shaft, is known as,

A. Hollow saddle key

B. Hollow key

C. Soft key

D. None of these

Answer: A

295. When the length of the journal is equal to the diameter of the journal, then the bearing is said to be a

A. Short bearing

B. Long bearing

C. Medium bearing

D. Square bearing

Answer: D

296. In order to determine the stresses in a thin cylinder due to an internal pressure, it is assumed that

A. The effect of curvature of the cylinder wall is neglected

B. The tensile stresses are uniformly distributed over the section of the walls

C. The effect of the restraining action of the heads at the end of the pressure vessel is neglected

D. All of the above

Answer: D

297. Two closely coiled helical springs with stiffness k₁ and k₂ respectively are connected in series. The stiffness of an equivalent spring is given by

A. (k₁ k₂)/ (k₁ + k₂)

B. (k₁ – k₂)/ (k₁ + k₂)

C. (k₁ + k₂)/ (k₁ k₂)

D. (k₁ – k₂)/ (k₁ k₂)

Answer: A

298. The cross-section of the arm of a bell crank lever is

A. Rectangular

B. Elliptical

C. I-section

D. Any one of these

Answer: D

299. Two shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ under pure torsion are of identical length and identical weight and are made of the same material. The shaft ‘A’ is solid and the shaft ‘B’ is hollow. We can say that

A. Shaft B is better than shaft A

B. Shaft A is better than shaft B

C. Both the shafts are equally good

D. None of these

Answer: A

300. The connecting rod bolts are tightened up with initial tension greater than the external load so that

A. Joint may not open up

B. Bolts are weakest elements

C. The resultant load on the bolt would not be affected by the external cyclic load

D. Bolts will not loosen during service

Answer: C

301. When spring index increases, the value of Wahl’s stress factor

A. Increases linearly

B. Decreases linearly

C. Remains same

D. Increases exponentially

Answer: D

302. In worm gears, the pressure angle is __________ the angle between two inclined faces in axial plane.

A. Half

B. Twice

C. Thrice

D. None of these

Answer: A

303. A steel containing _________ 0.8% carbon is known as hypo-eutectoid steel.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: B

304. The material commonly used for crane hooks is

A. Cast iron

B. Wrought iron

C. Mild steel

D. Aluminium

Answer: B

305. A leaf spring in automobiles is used

A. To apply forces

B. To measure forces

C. To absorb shocks

D. To store strain energy

Answer: C

306. The velocity factor for very accurately cut and ground metallic gears operating at velocities upto __________ are equal to 6/(6 + v).

A. 10 m/s

B. 12.5 m/s

C. 15 m/s

D. 20 m/s

Answer: D

307. When a circular beam of diameter d is subjected to a shear force F, the maximum shear stress induced will be

A. 4F/ πd²

B. 6F/ πd²

C. 8F/ πd²

D. 16F/ 3πd²

Answer: D

308. According to Indian standards, total numbers of fundamental deviations are

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

Answer: D

309. The most important dimension in the design of a nut is

A. Pitch diameter

B. Inside diameter

C. Outside diameter

D. Height

Answer: D

310. When an open coiled helical compression spring is subjected to an axial compressive load, the stress induced in the wire is

A. Tensile stress

B. Compressive stress

C. Shear stress

D. Bending stress

Answer: C

311. If T₁ and T₂ are the tensions on the tight and slack sides of the belt respectively, and Tc is the centrifugal tension, then initial tension in the belt is equal to

A. T₁ – T₂ + Tc

B. T₁ + T₂ + Tc

C. (T₁ – T₂ + Tc)/2

D. (T₁ + T₂ + Tc)/2

Answer: D

312. The relation between the pitch of the chain (p) and pitch circle diameter of the sprocket D. is given by (where T = Number of teeth on the sprocket)

A. p = D sin (90°/T)

B. p = D sin (120°/T)

C. p = D sin (180°/T)

D. p = D sin (360°/T)

Answer: C

313. Cast iron pipes are mainly used

A. For conveying steam

B. In water and sewage systems

C. In pressure lubrication systems on prime movers

D. All of the above

Answer: B

314. The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to

A. 80 kN/mm²

B. 100 kN/mm²

C. 110 kN/mm²

D. 210 kN/mm²

Answer: D

315. If an application calls for stresses on screw threads in one direction only, then the following type of thread would be best suited

A. Square

B. Acme

C. Buttress

D. BSW

Answer: C

316. The stress in the threaded part of the bolt will be __________ as compared to the shank.

A. Same

B. Higher

C. Lower

D. None of these

Answer: B

317. In designing a connecting rod, it is considered like __________ for buckling about Y-axis.

A. Both ends hinged

B. Both ends fixed

C. One end fixed and the other end hinged

D. One end fixed and the other end free

Answer: B

318. For a square key made of mild steel, the shear and crushing strength are related as

A. Shear strength is equal to crushing strength

B. Shear strength is greater than crushing strength

C. Shear strength is less than crushing strength

D. None of the above

Answer: A

318. In thrust bearings, the load acts

A. Along the axis of rotation

B. Parallel to the axis of rotation

C. Perpendicular to the axis of rotation

D. In any direction

Answer: A

319. When compared to the rod of the same diameter and material, a wire rope

A. Is less flexible

B. Has a much smaller load carrying capacity

C. Does not provide much warning before failure

D. Provides much greater time for remedial action before failure

Answer: B

320. In the assembly of pulley, key and shaft

A. Pulley is made the weakest

B. Key is made the weakest

C. Key is made the strongest

D. All the three are designed for equal strength

Answer: B

321. Lewis form factor for 14½° composite and full depth involute system is (where T = Number of teeth)

A. 0.124 – (0.684/T)

B. 0.154 – (0.912/T)

C. 0.175 – (0.841/T)

D. None of these

Answer: A

322. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The distance from a point on one thread to the corresponding point on the next thread is called pitch

B. The distance which a screw thread advances axially in one rotation of the nut is called lead

C. In single start threads, lead is equal to pitch

D. All of the above

Answer: D

323. The design of shafts made of brittle materials is based on

A. Guest’s theory

B. Rankine’s theory

C. St Venant’s theory

D. Von Mises theory

Answer: B

324. When a beam of rectangular cross-section of width b and depth d, is subjected to a shear force F, the maximum shear stress induced will be

A. F/bh

B. 3F/2bh

C. 2F/bh

D. 4F/bh

Answer: B

325. The endurance or fatigue limit is defined as the maximum value of the stress which a polished standard specimen can withstand without failure, for infinite number of cycles, when subjected to

A. Static load

B. Dynamic load

C. Static as well as dynamic load

D. Completely reversed load

Answer: D

326. Two shafts will have equal strength, if

A. Diameter of both the shafts is same

B. Angle of twist of both the shafts is same

C. Material of both the shafts is same

D. Twisting moment of both the shafts is same

Answer: D

327. The pitch diameter is the __________ diameter of an external or internal screw thread.

A. Effective

B. Smallest

C. Largest

D. None of these

Answer: A

327. The efficiency of a square threaded screw is maximum if the helix angle is equal to
(Where φ = Angle of friction)

A. 90° – φ

B. 45° – φ

C. 45° – φ/2

D. 45° + φ/2

Answer: C

328. The efficiency of a square threaded screw is maximum if the helix angle is equal to
(Where φ = Angle of friction)

A. (1/2) × √(σ² + 4τ²)

B. √(σ² + 4τ²)

C. (1/2) × [σ + √(σ² + 4τ²)]

D. σ + √(σ² + 4τ²)

Answer: A

329. When two non-intersecting and non-coplanar shafts are connected by gears, the arrangement is known as

A. Spur gearing

B. Helical gearing

C. Bevel gearing

D. Spiral gearing

Answer: D

330. The ratio of driving tensions in V-belt drives is __________ flat belt drives.

A. Equal to

B. sin α times more than

C. sin α times less than

D. cosec α times more than

Answer: D

331. The temperature required for full annealing in hypereutectoid steel is

A. 50°C above upper critical temperature

B. 50°C below upper critical temperature

C. 50°C above lower critical temperature

D. 50°C below lower critical temperature

Answer: A

332. A screw is said to be over hauling screw, if the

A. Friction angle is less than helix angle

B. Friction angle is more than helix angle

C. Friction angle is equal to helix angle

D. Efficiency of screw is 100%

Answer: A

333. In case of thick cylinders, the tangential stress across the thickness of cylinder is

A. Maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface

B. Maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface

C. Maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface

D. Maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface

Answer: B

334. In a partial journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bearing with the journal is

A. 120°

B. 180°

C. 270°

D. 360°

Answer: A

335. In a band and block brake, the ratio of tensions on the tight and slack sides of band is given by (where μ = Coefficient of friction between the blocks and the drum, θ = Semi-angle of each block subtending at the centre of drum, and n = Number of blocks)

A. T₁/T₂ = μθ × n

B. T₁/T₂ = (μθ)n

C. T₁/T₂ = [(1 – μ tanθ)/ (1 + μ tanθ)]n

D. T₁/T₂ = [(1 + μ tanθ)/ (1 – μ tanθ)]n

Answer: D

336. In a flat belt drive, if the slip between the driver and belt is 1 %, between the belt and follower is 3% and driver and follower pulley diameters are equal, then velocity ratio of the drive will be

A. 0.96

B. 0.97

C. 0.98

D. 0.99

Answer: A

337. The allowable static stress for steel gears is approximately __________ of the ultimate tensile stress.

A. One-fourth

B. One-third

C. One-half

D. Double

Answer: B

338. Rankine’s theory is used for

A. Brittle materials

B. Ductile materials

C. Elastic materials

D. Plastic materials

Answer: A

339. Wire ropes as compared to cotton ropes

A. Are lighter in weight

B. Offer silent operation

C. Can withstand shock loads

D. All of these

Answer: D

340. A connecting rod subjected to an axial load may buckle with

A. X-axis as neutral axis

B. Y-axis as neutral axis

C. X-axis or Y-axis as neutral axis

D. Z-axis

Answer: C

341. Two shafts A and B are made of the same material. The diameter of shaft A is twice as that of shaft B. The power transmitted by the shaft A will be __________ of shaft B.

A. Twice

B. Four times

C. Eight times

D. Sixteen times

Answer: C

342. The material commonly used for machine tool bodies is

A. Mild steel

B. Aluminium

C. Brass

D. Cast iron

Answer: D

343. For longitudinal joint in boilers, the type of joint used is

A. Butt joint with single cover plate

B. Butt joint with double cover plate

C. Lap joint with one ring overlapping the other

D. Any one of the above

Answer: B

344. In helical gears, the distance between similar faces of adjacent teeth along a helix on the pitch cylinders normal to the teeth, is called

A. Normal pitch

B. Axial pitch

C. Diametral pitch

D. Module

Answer: A

345. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion which will mesh with any gear without interference for 20° full depth involute teeth will be

A. 12

B. 14

C. 18

D. 24

Answer: C

346. In a multiple V-belt drive, when a single belt is damaged, it is preferable to change the complete set in order to

A. Reduce vibration

B. Reduce slip

C. Ensure uniform loading

D. Ensure proper alignment

Answer: C

347. According to Rankine’s theory, the failure occurs at a point in a member

A. When the maximum shear stress in a biaxial stress system reaches the shear stress at elastic limit in a simple tension test

B. When the maximum principal stress in a biaxial stress system reaches the elastic limit of the material in a simple tension test

C. When the strain energy per unit volume in a biaxial stress system reaches the strain energy at the elastic limit per unit volume as determined from a simple tension test

D. When the maximum principal strain in a biaxial stress system reaches the strain at the elastic limit as determined from a simple tension test

Answer: B

348. Which one of the following loading is considered for the design of axles?

A. Bending moment only

B. Twisting moment only

C. Combined bending moment and twisting moments

D. Combined action of bending moment, twisting moment and axial thrust

Answer: A

349. Lewis equation in gears is used to find the

A. Tensile stress in bending

B. Shear stress

C. Compressive stress in bending

D. Fatigue stress

Answer: C

350. A metal pipe of 1 m diameter contains a fluid having a pressure of 1 N/mm². If the permissible tensile stress in the metal is 20 N/mm², then the thickness of the metal required for making the pipe will be

A. 5 mm

B. 10 mm

C. 15 mm

D. 25 mm

Answer: D

351. The elasticity is the property of a material which enables it to

A. Regains its original shape after deformation when the external forces are removed

B. Draw into wires by the application of a tensile force

C. Resists fracture due to high impact loads

D. Retain deformation produced under load permanently

Answer: A

352. A locking device extensively used in marine type connecting rod ends is a

A. Jam nut

B. Castle nut

C. Sawn nut

D. Ring nut

Answer: D

353. For a shaft diameter of 100 mm, the number of bolts in a flange coupling should be

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 10

Answer: A

354. When the connected members are very yielding (soft gasket) as compared to the bolt, then the resultant load on the bolt will be equal to the

A. Initial tension

B. External load applied

C. Sum of the initial tension and external load applied

D. Initial tension or external load, whichever is greater

Answer: C

355. The shock absorbing capacity of a bolt can be increased by

A. Tightening it properly

B. Increasing shank diameter

C. Grinding the shank

D. Making shank diameter equal to core diameter of thread

Answer: D

356. According to Unwin’s formula, the relation between the diameter of rivet hole D. and the thickness of plate (t) is given by (where d and t are in mm)

A. d = t

B. d = 1.6 t

C. d = 2 t

D. d = 6 t

Answer: D

357. When two non-parallel or intersecting but coplanar shafts are connected by gears, the arrangement is known as,

A. Bevel gearing

B. Helical gearing

C. Worm gearing

D. None of these

Answer: A

358. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. The pitch of rivets is obtained by equating the tearing resistance of the plate to the shearing resistance of the rivets

B. The pitch of rivets should not be less than 2d, where d is the diameter of rivet hole

C. The maximum value of the pitch of rivets for a longitudinal joint of a boiler, as per I.B.R., is given by Pmax = C.t + 41.28 mm

D. According to I.B.R., the thickness of butt strap shall not be less than 5 mm

Answer: D

358. The process extensively used for making bolts and nuts is

A. Hot piercing

B. Extrusion

C. Cold peening

D. Cold heading

Answer: D

359. What is the answer to this question?

A. 2WD3n/Gd⁴

B. 4WD3n/Gd⁴

C. 8WD3n/Gd⁴

D. 16WD3n/Gd⁴

Answer: C

360. In a steam engine, the piston rod is usually connected to the cross-head by means of a

A. Knuckle joint

B. Cotter joint

C. Oldham coupling

D. Universal joint

Answer: B

361. When a closely coiled helical spring is subjected to a couple about its axis, the stress induced in the wire material of the spring is

A. Bending stress only

B. A combination of torsional shear stress and bending

C. Direct shear stress only

D. A combination of bending stress and direct shear stress

Answer: A

362. In a belt drive, if the pulley diameter is doubled keeping the tension and belt width constant, then it will be necessary to

A. Increase the key length

B. Increase the key depth

C. Increase the key width

D. Decrease the key length

Answer: A

363. In an oil lubricated journal bearing, the coefficient of friction between the journal and the bearing

A. Remains constant at all speeds

B. Is minimum at zero speed and increases monotonically with increase in speed

C. Is maximum at zero speed and decreases monotonically with increase in speed

D. Becomes minimum at an optimum speed and then increases with further increase in speed

Answer: D

364. The largest diameter of an external or internal screw thread is known as

A. Minor diameter

B. Major diameter

C. Pitch diameter

D. None of these

Answer: B

365. For high speed engines, the cam follower should move with

A. Uniform velocity

B. Simple harmonic motion

C. Uniform acceleration and retardation

D. Cycloidal motion

Answer: D

366. The taper on a rectangular sunk key is

A. 1 in 16

B. 1 in 32

C. 1 in 48

D. 1 in 100

Answer: D

368. In designing thick cylinders, the equation used is

A. Lame’s equation

B. Birnie’s equation

C. Clavarinos’ equation

D. All of these

Answer: D

369. A double strap butt joint (with equal straps) is

A. Always in single shear

B. Always in double shear

C. Either in single shear or double shear

D. Any one of these

Answer: B

370. The ratio of pitch circle diameter in millimeters to the number of teeth, is called

A. Circular pitch

B. Diametral pitch

C. Module

D. None of these

Answer: C

371. A sliding bearing in which although lubricant is present, the working surfaces __________ contact each other at least part of the time, is called boundary lubricated bearing.

A. Partially

B. Fully

C. Either A or B

D. None of these

Answer: A

372. In radial bearings, the load acts __________ to the axis of rotation.

A. Parallel

B. Perpendicular

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

Answer: B

373. The shear stress at a point in a shaft subjected to a torque is

A. Directly proportional to the polar moment of inertia and to the distance of the point from the axis

B. Directly proportional to the applied torque and inversely proportional to the polar moment of inertia

C. Directly proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia

D. Inversely proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia

Answer: B

374. The dedendum is the radial distance from the

A. Pitch circle to the top of a tooth

B. Pitch circle to the bottom of a tooth

C. Top of a tooth to the bottom of a tooth

D. Addendum circle to the clearance circle

Answer: B

375. According to Indian standards, the diameter of rivet hole is made larger than the basic size of rivet by

A. 0.5 mm up to rivet diameter of 24 mm

B. 1 mm for rivet diameter from 27 mm to 36 mm

C. 2 mm for rivet diameter from 39 mm to 48 mm

D. All of the above

Answer: C

376. The helix angle for single helical gears ranges from

A. 10° to 15°

B. 15° to 20°

C. 20° to 35°

D. 35° to 50°

Answer: C

377. The centre distance between two meshing involute gears is equal to

A. Sum of base circle radii/cosφ

B. Difference of base circle radii/cosφ

C. Sum of pitch circle radii/cosφ

D. Difference of pitch circle radii/cosφ

Answer: A

378. In block brakes, the ratio of shoe width to wheel diameter is taken between

A. 0.1 and 0.25

B. 0.25 and 0.50

C. 0.50 and 0.75

D. 0.75 and 1

Answer: B

379. Auto frettage is the method of

A. Joining thick cylinders

B. Calculating stresses in thick cylinders

C. Pre-stressing thick cylinders

D. Increasing the life of thick cylinders

Answer: C

380. A fast and loose pulley drive is used when

A. Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions

B. Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions

C. Shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite direction

D. Driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without interfering with the driving shaft

Answer: D

381. The stretching in a belt can be controlled by __________ the stress in the belt.

A. Reducing

B. Increasing

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

Answer: A

382. The property of a material which enables it to be drawn into wires with the application of a tensile force, is called

A. Plasticity

B. Elasticity

C. Ductility

D. Malleability

Answer: C

383. The cold working of metals is carried out __________ the recrystallization temperature.

A. Above

B. Below

C. At

D. None of these

Answer: B

384. The expansion joint is mostly used for pipes which carry steam at __________ pressures.

A. Low

B. High

C. Medium

D. None of these

Answer: B

384. Crushing resistance required to crush the rivet per pitch length is

A. p.d.σc

B. p.t.σc

C. n.d.t.σc

D. (p – d) t.σc

Answer: C

385. The strength of a riveted joint is equal to

A. Tearing strength of plate (Pt)

B. Shearing strength of rivet (Ps)

C. Crushing strength of rivet (Pc)

D. Least value of Pt Ps and Pc

Answer: D

386. The material generally used for aircraft components is

A. Mild steel

B. High speed steel

C. Stainless steel

D. Aluminium

Answer: D

387. In the calculation of induced shear stress in helical springs, the Wahl’s stress factor is used to take care of

A. Combined effect of transverse shear stress and bending stress in the wire

B. Combined effect of bending stress and curvature of the wire

C. Combined effect of transverse shear stress and curvature of wire

D. Combined effect of torsional shear stress and transverse shear stress in the wire

Answer: B

388. During hot working of metals,

A. Porosity of the metal is largely eliminated

B. Grain structure of the metal is refined

C. Mechanical properties are improved due of refinement of grains

D. All of the above

Answer: D

389. The static tooth load should be __________ the dynamic load.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: C

390. For circumferential joint in boilers, the type of joint used is

A. Butt joint with single cover plate

B. Butt joint with double cover plate

C. Lap joint with one ring overlapping the other

D. Any one of the above

Answer: C

391. The efficiency of a riveted joint is equal to

A. Pt /P

B. Ps /P

C. Pc /P

D. Least of Pt, Ps and Pc/P

Answer: D

391. If a shaft made from ductile material is subjected to combined bending and twisting moment, calculations based on which one of the following failure theories will give the most conservative value?

A. Maximum principal stress theory

B. Maximum shear stress theory

C. Maximum strain energy theory

D. Maximum distortion energy theory

Answer: A

392. An elastic bar is fixed at the upper end and loaded at the lower end by a falling weight. The shock load produced can be reduced by

A. Increasing the length of bar

B. Decreasing the cross-sectional area of the bar

C. Decreasing the modulus of elasticity of the bar

D. All of the above

Answer: D

393. A localized compressive stress at the area of contact between two members is known as

A. Tensile stress

B. Bending stress

C. Bearing stress

D. Shear stress

Answer: C

394. According to I.B.R., shearing resistance required to shear off the rivet per pitch length (in double shear) is (where n = Number of rivets per pitch length)

A. (π/4) d² × τ × n

B. 1.875 × (π/4) d² × τ × n

C. 2 × (π/4) d² × τ × n

D. 3 × (π/4) d² × τ × n

Answer: B

395. A shaft is subjected to a maximum bending stress of 80 N/mm² and maximum shearing stress equal to 30 N/mm² at a particular section. If the yield point in tension of the material is 280 N/mm² and the maximum shear stress theory of failure is used, then the factor of safety obtained will be

A. 2.5

B. 2.8

C. 3.0

D. 3.5

Answer: B

396. The initial tension (in newtons) in a bolt used for making a fluid tight joint like steam engine cover joints, is calculated by the relation (where d = Nominal diameter of bolt in mm)

A. 1420 d

B. 1680 d

C. 2080 d

D. 2840 d

Answer: D

397. A connecting rod should be

A. Strong in buckling about X-axis

B. Strong in buckling about Y-axis

C. Equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis

D. Any one of the above

Answer: C

398. Two shafts of the same length and material are joined in series. If the ratio of their diameters is 2, then the ratio of their angles of twist will be

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

Answer: D

399. A steel containing 0.8% carbon is known as

A. Eutectoid steel

B. Hypereutectoid steel

C. Hypo-eutectoid steel

D. None of these

Answer: A

400. Creep in belt is due to

A. Material of the belt

B. Material of the pulley

C. Uneven extensions and contractions due to varying tension

D. All of the above

Answer: C

401. Stress concentration factor is defined as the ratio of

A. Maximum stress to the endurance limit

B. Nominal stress to the endurance limit

C. Maximum stress to the nominal stress

D. Nominal stress to the maximum stress

Answer: C

402. Deep groove ball bearings are used for

A. Heavy thrust load only

B. Small angular displacement of shafts

C. Radial load at high speed

D. Combined thrust and radial loads at high speed

Answer: D

403. Which of the following screw thread is adopted for power transmission in either direction?

A. Acme threads

B. Square threads

C. Buttress threads

D. Multiple threads

Answer: B

404. The contact ratio for gears is

A. Zero

B. Less than one

C. Greater than one

D. None of these

Answer: C

405. The gears are termed as medium velocity gears, if their peripheral velocity is

A. 1-3 m/s

B. 3-15 m/s

C. 15-30 m/s

D. 30-50 m/s

Answer: B

406. The design calculations for members subject to fluctuating loads with the same factor of safety, yield the most conservative estimates when using

A. Gerber relation

B. Soderberg relation

C. Goodman relation

D. None of these

Answer: C

407. In a multiple V-belt drive, if one of the belts break, then

A. Only the broken belt is replaced

B. The entire set of belts is replaced

C. The broken belt and the belt on either side of it, is replaced

D. The broken belt need not to be replaced

Answer: B

408. A steel containing up to 0.15% carbon is known as

A. Mild steel

B. Dead mild steel

C. Medium carbon steel

D. High carbon steel

Answer: B

409. When a helical compression spring is cut into halves, the stiffness of the resulting spring will be

A. Same

B. Double

C. One-half

D. One-fourth

Answer: B

410. A coupling used to connect two perfectly aligned shafts, is

A. Muff coupling

B. Compression coupling

C. Flange coupling

D. All of these

Answer: D

411. Soderberg relation is based on __________ of the material whereas all other failure relation for dynamic loading are based on ultimate strength of the material.

A. Elastic strength

B. Yield strength

C. Shear strength

D. None of these

Answer: B

412. A connecting rod is designed as a

A. Long column

B. Short column

C. Strut

D. All of these

Answer: C

413. When bevel gears having equal teeth and equal pitch angles connect two shafts whose axes intersect at right angle, then they are known as

A. Angular bevel gears

B. Crown bevel gears

C. Internal bevel gears

D. Miter gears

Answer: D

414. When the connected members are very yielding (soft gasket) as compared to the bolt, then the resultant load on the bolt will be equal to the

A. Initial tension

B. External load applied

C. Sum of the initial tension and external load applied

D. Initial tension or external load, whichever is greater

Answer: C

415. The property of a bearing material which has the ability to accommodate shaft deflections and bearing inaccuracies by plastic deformation without excessive wear and heating, is known as

A. Bondability

B. Embeddability

C. Comformability

D. Fatigue strength

Answer: C

416. The shock resistance of steel is increased by adding

A. Nickel

B. Chromium

C. Nickel and chromium

D. Cobalt and molybdenum

Answer: C

417. In cylindrical cams, the follower moves

A. In a direction perpendicular to the cam axis

B. In a direction parallel to the cam axis

C. In any direction irrespective of cam axis

D. Along the cam axis

Answer: B

418. For general industrial machinery, the ratio of the length of journal to its diameter is taken as

A. 0.5 to 1

B. 1 to 2

C. 3 to 5

D. 5 to 10

Answer: B

419. In order to ensure self locking in a screw jack, it is essential that helix angle is __________ friction angle.

A. Larger than

B. Smaller than

C. Equal to

D. None of these

Answer: B

420. Which of the following key is preferred for the condition when a large amount of impact type torque is to be transmitted in both direction of rotation?

A. Woodruff key

B. Feather key

C. Gib-head key

D. Tangent key

Answer: D

421. The washer is generally specified by its

A. Outer diameter

B. Hole diameter

C. Thickness

D. Mean diameter

Answer: B

422. According to I.B.R., the distance between the rows of rivets, for equal number of rivets in more than one row for lap joint or butt joint (chain riveting) shall not be less than

A. d

B. 1.5 d

C. 2 d

D. 2.5 d

Answer: C

423. The product of the diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to

A. 1

B. 1/π

C. π

D. π × number of teeth

Answer: C

424. In order to have a connecting rod equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis, the moment of inertia about X-axis should be __________ the moment of inertia about Y-axis.

A. Equal to

B. Twice

C. Three times

D. Four times

Answer: D

425. In a boundary lubricated bearing, there is a __________ of lubricant between the journal and the bearing.

A. Thick film

B. Thin film

C. Either A or B

D. None of these

Answer: B

426. Tearing resistance required to tear off the plate per pitch length is (where p = Pitch of rivets, d = Dia. of rivet hole, and σt = Permissible tensile stress for plate material)

A. p.d.σt

B. p.t.σt

C. (p – d) σt

D. (p – d) t.σt

Answer: D

427. According to Indian standards, total numbers of tolerance grades are

A. 8

B. 12

C. 18

D. 20

Answer: C

428. The ball bearings are, usually, made from

A. Low carbon steel

B. High carbon steel

C. Medium carbon steel

D. High speed steel

Answer: C

430. A plate with an elliptical hole in the centre, with semi-major axis A. perpendicular to the direction of loading and semi-minor axis B. along the direction of loading, is subjected to a pull P. The maximum stress induced at the edge of the hole is equal to (where σ = Stress for a plate with no hole i.e. nominal stress)

A. σ [1 + (b/2a)]

B. σ [1 + (2a/b)]

C. σ [1 + (b/3a)]

D. σ [1 + (3a/b)]

Answer: B

431. In helical gears, the right hand helixes on one gear will mesh __________ helixes on the other gear.

A. Right hand

B. Left hand

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

Answer: B

432. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. A parallel sunk key is a taperless key

B. A parallel sunk key may be rectangular or square in cross-section

C. A flat saddle key is a taper key which fits in a key way of the hub and is flat on the shaft

D. All of the above

Answer: D

433. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the design stress is known as

A. Elastic limit

B. Strain

C. Factor of safety

D. Bulk modulus

Answer: C

434. A shaft is subjected to fluctuating loads for which the normal torque (T) and bending moment (M) are 1000 N-m and 500 N-m respectively. If the combined shock and fatigue factor for bending is 1.5 and combined shock and fatigue factor for torsion is 2, then the equivalent twisting moment for the shaft is

A. 2000 N-m

B. 2050 N-m

C. 2100 N-m

D. 2136 N-m

Answer: D

435. Which of the following formula is used in designing a connecting rod?

A. Euler’s formula

B. Rankine’s formula

C. Johnson’s straight line formula

D. Johnson’s parabolic formula

Answer: B

436. In the levers of first type, the mechanical advantage is ________ one.

A. Less than

B. Equal to

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: C

437. The plasticity is the property of a material which enables it to

A. Regain its original shape after deformation when the external forces are removed

B. Draw into wires by the application of a tensile force

C. Resist fracture due to high impact loads

D. Retain deformation produced under load permanently

Answer: D

438. In a journal bearing, the load on the bearing is __________ to the axis of the journal.

A. Parallel

B. Perpendicular

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

Answer: B

439. Which of the following cotter joint will be used to connect strap end of a connecting rod?

A. Spigot and socket cotter joint

B. Sleeve and cotter joint

C. Gib and cotter joint

D. Any one of these

Answer: C

440. The fatigue stress concentration factor is defined as

A. The ratio of endurance limit with stress concentration to the endurance limit without stress concentration

B. The ratio of endurance limit without stress concentration to the endurance limit with stress concentration

C. The product of the endurance limits with and without stress concentration

D. All of the above

Answer: B

441. A flange coupling is used to connect two shafts

A. Which are perfectly aligned

B. Which are not in exact alignment

C. Have lateral misalignment

D. Whose axes intersect at a small angle

Answer: A

442. In a full journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bearing with the journal is

A. 120°

B. 180°

C. 270°

D. 360°

Answer: D

443. The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley depends upon the

A. Material of belt and pulley

B. Slip of belt

C. Speed of belt

D. All of these

Answer: D

444. The steel pulleys are __________ in weight than cast iron pulleys of the same capacity.

A. Heavier

B. Lighter

C. Moderate

D. None of these

Answer: B

445. Margin

B. Pitch

C. Back pitch

D. Diagonal pitch

Answer: B

446. If the size of a standard specimen for a fatigue testing machine is increased, the endurance limit for the material will

A. Have same value as that of standard specimen

B. Increase

C. Decrease

D. None of these

Answer: C

447. A crankshaft is a __________ shaft.

A. Transmission

B. Machine

C. Machine frame

D. None of these

Answer: B

448. In designing a sleeve coupling, length of the sleeve is taken as (where d = Diameter of the shaft)

A. d + 17 mm

B. 2d + 13 mm

C. 2d + 20 mm

D. 3.5 d

Answer: D

449. The maximum shear stress theory is used for

A. Brittle materials

B. Ductile materials

C. Plastic materials

D. Nonferrous materials

Answer: B

450. A circular shaft can transmit a torque of 5 kN-m. If the torque is reduced to 4 kN-m, then the maximum value of bending moment that can be applied to the shaft is

A. 1 kN-m

B. 2 kN-m

C. 3 kN-m

D. 4 kN-m

Answer: C

451. In worm, gears, pitch lead angle is

A. Half the angle between two inclined faces in axial plane

B. The angle between the tangent to the pitch helix and the plane of rotation

C. The angle between the tangent to the pitch helix and an element of the cylinder

D. None of the above

Answer: B

452. In designing a connecting rod, it is considered like __________ for buckling about X-axis.

A. Both ends hinged

B. Both ends fixed

C. One end fixed and the other end hinged

D. One end fixed and the other end free

Answer: A

453. Two rigid plates are clamped by means of bolt and nut with an initial force F. After tightening, a separating force P (P < F) is applied to the lower plate, which in turn acts on the nut. The tension in the both after this is

A. F + P

B. F.P

C. P

D. F

Answer: A

454. The spring mostly used in gramophones is

A. Helical spring

B. Conical spring

C. Flat spiral spring

D. Volute spring

Answer: C

455. The maximum bending stress in a curved beam having symmetrical section always occur at the

A. Centroidal axis

B. Neutral axis

C. Inside fiber

D. Outside fiber

Answer: C

456. In a flange coupling, the bolts are subjected to

A. Tensile stress

B. Compressive stress

C. Shear stress

D. None of these

Answer: C

457. The ratio of circumferential stress to longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder subjected to an internal pressure is

A. 1/2

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Answer: C

458. For a shoe brake, the equivalent coefficient of friction is equal to (where μ = Actual coefficient of friction, and θ = Semi-block angle)

A. 2μ sinθ/(θ + sinθ)

B. μ sinθ/(2θ + sin 2θ)

C. 4μ sinθ/(θ + sinθ)

D. 4μ sinθ/(2θ + sin 2θ)

Answer: D

459. When a hole of diameter ‘d’ is punched in a metal of thickness ‘t’, then the force required to punch a hole is equal to (where τu = Ultimate shear strength of the material of the plate)

A. d.t.τu

B. πd.t.τu

C. π/4 × d².τu

D. π/4 × d² × tτu

Answer: B

460. In static loading, stress concentration is more serious in

A. Brittle materials

B. Ductile materials

C. Brittle as well as ductile materials

D. Elastic materials

Answer: A

461. Which of the following statement is correct, for two shafts connected in parallel?

A. Torque in each shaft is the same

B. Shear stress in each shaft is the same

C. Angle of twist of each shaft is the same

D. Torsional stiffness of each shaft is the same

Answer: C

462. According to I.B.R., the efficiency of a double riveted butt joint with double cover straps of equal width should be

A. 45 to 60%

B. 63 to 70%

C. 70 to 83%

D. 80 to 90%

Answer: C

463. The velocity of sliding __________ the distance of the point of contact from the pitch point.

A. Is directly proportional to

B. Is inversely proportional to

C. Is equal to cos φ multiplied by

D. Does not depend upon

Answer: A

464. Idler pulley is used for

A. Increasing velocity ratio

B. For applying tension

C. Changing the direction of motion of belt

D. All of these

Answer: B

465. The period during which the cam follower remains at rest, when cam moves, is known as

A. Constant period

B. Fixed period

C. Dwell period

D. Idle period

Answer: C

466. According to I.B.R., the efficiency of a triple riveted butt joint with double straps of unequal width (5 rivets per pitch length) should be

A. 45 to 60%

B. 63 to 70%

C. 70 to 83%

D. 80 to 90%

Answer: D

467. Crowning on pulley helps

A. In decreasing the slip of the belt

B. In increasing the slip of the belt

C. To keep the belt in centre on a pulley while it is in motion

D. To increase pulley life

Answer: C

468. Which of the following coupling is used to connect two shafts which have both lateral and angular misalignment?

A. Bushed pin type coupling

B. Universal coupling

C. Oldham coupling

D. All of these

Answer: D

469. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action gives the same motion as the actual gear, is called

A. Addendum circle

B. Dedendum circle

C. Pitch circle

D. Clearance circle

Answer: C

470. Which of the following statement is wrong for a connecting rod?

A. The connecting rod will be equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis, if Ixx = 4 Iyy

B. If Ixx > 4 Iyy, the buckling will occur about Y-axis

C. If Ixx < 4 Iyy, the buckling will occur about X-axis

D. The most suitable section for the connecting rod is T-section

Answer: D

471. Which of the following statement is correct regarding power screws?

A. The efficiency of a self locking screw can not be more than 50%

B. The efficiency of Acme (trapezoidal) thread is less than that of a square thread

C. If the friction angle is less than the helix angle of the screw, then the efficiency will be more than 50%

D. Both A. and B.

Answer: D

472. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. A key is used as a temporary fastening

B. A key is subjected to tensile stresses

C. A key is always inserted parallel to the axis of the shaft

D. A key prevents relative motion between the shaft and boss of the pulley

Answer: B

473. A spring is used to

A. Measure forces

B. Apply forces

C. Store energy

D. All of these

Answer: D

474. The stiffness of a closely coiled helical spring subjected to an axial load W is equal to (where G = Modulus of rigidity, and n = Number of active coils)

A. Gd⁴/ 8D3n

B. Gd3/ 8D3n

C. Gd⁴/ 4D3n

D. Gd⁴/ 8D²n

Answer: A

475. Two helical springs of the same material and of equal circular cross-section, length and number of turns, but having radii 80 mm and 40 mm, kept concentrically (smaller radius spring within the larger radius spring), are compressed between two parallel planes with a load W. The inner spring will carry a load equal to

A. W/2

B. 2W/3

C. W/9

D. 8W/9

Answer: B

476. When the fulcrum is in between the load and effort, the lever is said to be of

A. First type

B. Second type

C. Third type

D. Any one of these

Answer: A

477. A column is known as a long column if the slenderness ratio is

A. 40

B. 50

C. 70

D. 100

Answer: D

478. In worm gears, the angle between the tangent to the pitch helix and an element of the cylinder, is known as

A. Helix angle

B. Pressure angle

C. Pitch lead angle

D. None of these

Answer: A

479. The yield point in static loading is __________ as compared to fatigue loading.

A. Higher

B. Lower

C. Same

D. None of these

Answer: A

480. The resilience of a bolt may be increased by

A. Increasing its shank diameter

B. Increasing its length

C. Decreasing its shank diameter

D. Decreasing its length

Answer: B

481. The velocity factor for ordinary cut gears operating at velocities up to 12.5 m/s is equal to

A. 0.75/(0.75 + √v)

B. 3/(3 + v)

C. 4.5/(4.5 + v)

D. 6/(6 + v)

Answer: B

482. The bearings of medium series have capacity __________ over the light series.

A. 10 to 20%

B. 20 to 30%

C. 30 to 40%

D. 40 to 50%

Answer: C

483. The square threads are usually found on

A. Spindles of bench vices

B. Railway carriage couplings

C. Feed mechanism of machine tools

D. Screw cutting lathes

Answer: C

484. Multiple threads are used to secure

A. Low efficiency

B. High efficiency

C. High load lifting capacity

D. High mechanical advantage

Answer: B

485. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The cold rolled shafting is stronger than hot rolled shafting

B. The hot rolled shafting is stronger than cold rolled shafting

C. The cold rolled and hot rolled shafting are equally strong

D. The shafts are not made by rolling process

Answer: A

486. The speed of the sprocket reduces as the chain pitch __________ for a given number of teeth.

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remain same

D. None of these

Answer: A

487. The permissible stress in the fillet weld is 100 N/mm². The fillet weld has equal leg lengths of 15 mm each. The allowable shearing load on the weldment per cm length of the weld is

A. 7.5 kN

B. 10.6 kN

C. 15 kN

D. 22.5 kN

Answer: B

488. The smallest diameter of an external or internal screw thread is known as

A. Minor diameter

B. Major diameter

C. Pitch diameter

D. None of these

Answer: A

489. The shock absorbing capacity of a bolt may be increased by

A. Increasing its shank diameter

B. Decreasing its shank diameter

C. Tightening the bolt properly

D. Making the shank diameter equal to core diameter of thread

Answer: B

490. The piston pin bearings in heavy duty diesel engines are

A. Needle roller bearings

B. Tapered roller bearings

C. Spherical roller bearings

D. Cylindrical roller bearings

Answer: A

491. The tension on the slack side of the belt is __________ the tension on the tight side of the belt.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: B

492. In skew bevel gearing, the axes of shafts are

A. Intersecting and the teeth are curved

B. Non-intersecting and nonparallel and the teeth are curved

C. Non-intersecting and non-parallel and the teeth are straight

D. None of the above

Answer: C

493. The ball bearings are provided with a cage

A. To reduce friction

B. To facilitate slipping of balls

C. To prevent the lubricant from flowing out

D. To maintain the balls at a fixed distance apart

Answer: D

494. A single strap butt joint is always in __________ shear.

A. Single

B. Double

C. Triple share

D. None of these

Answer: A

495. The cam follower extensively used in aircraft engines is

A. Knife edge follower

B. Flat faced follower

C. Spherical faced follower

D. Roller follower

Answer: D

496. The shear stress in a beam varies from zero at the outer fibers to a maximum at the________.

A. Neutral surface

B. Upper surface

C. Lower surface

D. None of these

Answer: A

497. In helical gears, the distance parallel to the axis, between similar faces of adjacent teeth, is called

A. Normal pitch

B. Axial pitch

C. Diametral pitch

D. Module

Answer: B

498. The velocity factor for precision metallic gears cut with high accuracy and operating at velocities up to 20 m/s is equal to

A. 0.75/ (0.75 + √v)

B. 3/ (3 + v)

C. 4.5/ (4.5 + v)

D. 6/ (6 + v)

Answer: A

499. In case of pressure vessels having open ends, the fluid pressure induces

A. Longitudinal stress

B. Circumferential stress

C. Shear stress

D. None of these

Answer: B

500. When the bolt is very yielding as compared to the connected members, then the resultant load on the bolt will be equal to the

A. Initial tension

B. External load applied

C. Sum of the initial tension and external load applied

D. Initial tension or external load, whichever is greater

Answer: D

501. The value of Lewis form factor used in design of gears is

A. Dependent on number of teeth of a gear

B. Dependent on system of teeth

C. Independent of size of teeth

D. All of these

Answer: D

501. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of

A. Elastic limit to the working stress

B. Elastic limit to the yield point

C. Endurance limit to the working stress

D. Young’s modulus to the ultimate tensile strength

Answer: C

502. If T is the actual number of teeth on a helical gear and φ is the helix angle for the teeth, then formative number of teeth is written as

A. T sec3φ

B. T sec²φ

C. T/sec3φ

D. T cosecφ

Answer: A

503. The stress which vary from a minimum value to a maximum value of the same nature (i.e. tensile or compressive) is called

A. Repeated stress

B. Yield stress

C. Fluctuating stress

D. Alternating stress

Answer: C

504. A screw is said to be a self locking screw, if its efficiency is

A. Less than 50%

B. More than 50%

C. Equal to 50%

D. None of these

Answer: Option

505. In designing a key, it is assumed that the distribution of forces along the length of key

A. Varies linearly

B. Is uniform throughout

C. Varies exponentially, being more at the torque-input end

D. Varies exponentially, being less at the torque-input end

Answer: B

506. The design of the pressure vessel is based on

A. Longitudinal stress

B. Hoop stress

C. Longitudinal and hoop stress

D. None of these

Answer: B

507. A triple riveted butt joint with double straps of unequal width is to be designed for a boiler shell. The pitch of the rivets in the outer row is double the pitch in the inner row and zigzag riveting is proposed. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. There are four rivets per pitch length, all in double shear

B. There are four rivets per pitch length, out of which two are in single shear and two are in double shear

C. There are five rivets per pitch length, all in double shear

D. There are five rivets per pitch length, out of which four are in double shear and one is in single shear

Answer: D

508. A chain drive transmits __________ power as compared to belt drive.

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. None of these

Answer: A

510. For maximum power, the velocity of the belt will be

A. √(T/m)

B. √(T/2m)

C. √(T/3m)

D. None of these

Answer: C

511. The expression 0.175 – 0.841/T is the Lewis form factor for

A. 14½° composite and full depth involute system

B. 20° full depth involute system

C. 20° stub system

D. None of the above

Answer: C

512. The design of pin of a rocker arm of an I.C. engine is based on

A. Bearing failure

B. Shearing failure

C. Bending failure

D. All of these

Answer: D

513. According to Indian standards, a bolt thread of 6 mm size of coarse pitch and with allowance on the threads and normal tolerance grade is designated as

A. M6

B. M8

C. M6 – 8d

D. M8 – 6d

Answer: C

514. A thin spherical shell of internal diameter d is subjected to an internal pressure p. If V is the storage capacity of shell, then its diameter will be

A. (6V/ π)1/2

B. (6V/ π)1/3

C. (6V/ π)2

D. (6V/ π)3

Answer: B

515. In a transverse fillet welded joint, the size of weld is __________ the throat of weld.

A. 0.5 times

B. Equal to

C. 2 times

D. Double

Answer: C

516. The draw of cotter should not be more than

A. 3 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 8 mm

D. 12 mm

Answer: A

517. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is known as

A. Lower critical temperature

B. Upper critical temperature

C. Recrystallization temperature

D. None of these

Answer: C

518. The taper on key is given on

A. Bottom side only

B. Top side only

C. On both sides

D. Any side

Answer: B

519. When a belt drive is transmitting maximum power,

A. Effective tension is equal to centrifugal tension

B. Effective tension is half of centrifugal tension

C. Driving tension on slack side is equal to centrifugal tension

D. Driving tension on tight side is twice the centrifugal tension

Answer: D

520. The angle of twist of shaft is

A. Directly proportional to (shaft diameter)²

B. Inversely proportional to (shaft diameter)²

C. Directly proportional to (shaft diameter)⁴

D. Inversely proportional to (shaft diameter)⁴

Answer: D

521. A spring of stiffness 1000 N/m is stretched initially by 100 mm from the undeformed position. The work required to stretch it by another 100 mm is

A. 5 N-m

B. 7 N-m

C. 10 N-m

D. 15 N-m

Answer: D

522. The resultant axial load on a bolt depends upon

A. External load applied

B. Initial tension due to tightening of the bolt

C. Relative elastic yielding of the bolt and the connected members

D. All of the above

Answer: D

523. The buckling load will be maximum for a column, if

A. One end of the column is clamped and the other end is free

B. Both ends of the column are clamped

C. Both ends of the column are hinged

D. One end of the column is hinged and the other end is free

Answer: B

524. A flanged pipe joint will be a leak-proof joint, if the circumferential pitch of the bolts is (where d = Diameter of bolt hole)

A. Less than 20d

B. Greater than 30d

C. Between 20d and 30d

D. Equal to inside diameter of pipe

Answer: C

525. Which of the following is an anti-friction bearing?

A. Journal bearing

B. Pedestal bearing

C. Collar bearing

D. Needle bearing

Answer: D

526. For low and moderate speed engines, the cam follower should move with

A. Uniform velocity

B. Simple harmonic motion

C. Uniform acceleration and retardation

D. Cycloidal motion

Answer: B

527. The diameter of the rivet hole is usually __________ the nominal diameter of the rivet.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: C

528. When a machine member is subjected to torsion, the torsional shear stress set up in the member is

A. Zero at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member

B. Maximum at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member

C. Zero at the centroidal axis and maximum at the outer surface of the member

D. Maximum at the centroidal axis and zero at the outer surface of the member

Answer: B

529. The root angle of a bevel gear is equal to

A. Pitch angle – addendum angle

B. Pitch angle + addendum angle

C. Pitch angle – dedendum angle

D. Pitch angle + dedendum angle

Answer: C

530. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. The solid length of a spring is the product of total number of coils and the diameter of the wire

B. The spring index is the ratio of mean diameter of the coil to the diameter of the wire

C. The spring stiffness is the load required per unit deflection of the spring

D. The pitch of the coil is the axial distance between adjacent coils in the compressed state

Answer: D

531. Which of the following bearing is preferred for oscillating conditions?

A. Double row roller bearing

B. Taper roller bearing

C. Angular contact single row ball bearing

D. Needle roller bearing

Answer: D

532. The usual proportion for the width of key is (where d = Diameter of shaft or diameter of hole in the hub)

A. d/8

B. d/6

C. d/4

D. d/2

Answer: C

533. A hollow shaft will transmit a __________ torque than a solid shaft of the same mass and same material.

A. Smaller

B. Greater

C. Medium

D. None of these

Answer: B

534. The groove angle of the pulley for rope drive is usually

A. 20°

B. 35°

C. 45°

D. 60°

Answer: C

535. The diameter of knuckle pin in a knuckle joint is usually taken as (where d = Diameter of the rod)

A. 0.5 d

B. 0.8 d

C. d

D. 1.2 d

Answer: C

536. The centrifugal tension in the belt

A. Increases the power transmitted

B. Decreases the power transmitted

C. Has no effect on the power transmitted

D. Is equal to maximum tension on the belt

Answer: C

537. A woodruff key is

A. A tapered key with head at one end

B. Fitted in pairs at right angles

C. Capable of tilting in a recess milled out in the shaft

D. All of the above

Answer: C

538. The wear load should be __________ the dynamic load.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: B

539. The power transmitted by means of a belt depends upon

A. Velocity of the belt

B. Tension under which the belt is placed on the pulleys

C. Arc of contact between the belt and the smaller pulley

D. All of the above

Answer: D

540. According to Indian standard specifications, plain carbon steel designated by 40C8 contains carbon

A. 0.20 to 0.40%

B. 0.35 to 0.45%

C. 0.40 to 0.60%

D. None of these

Answer: B

541. The longitudinal joint in boilers is used to get the required

A. Length of boiler

B. Diameter of boiler

C. Length and diameter of boiler

D. Efficiency of boiler

Answer: B

542. A riveted joint is a __________ fastening.

A. Permanent

B. Temporary

C. Either A or B

D. None of these

Answer: A

543. A long helical spring having a spring stiffness of 12 kN/m and number of turns 20, breaks into two parts with number of turns 10 each in both the parts. If the two parts are connected in series, then the softness of the resultant spring will be

A. 6 kN/m

B. 12 kN/m

C. 24 kN/m

D. 30 kN/m

Answer: B

544. A locking device extensively used in automobile industry is a

A. Jam nut

B. Castle nut

C. Sawn nut

D. Ring nut

Answer: B

545. Failure of a material is called fatigue when it fails

A. At the elastic limit

B. Below the elastic limit

C. At the yield point

D. Below the yield point

Answer: D

546. The endurance limit for a mirror polished material will be __________ as compared to unpolished material.

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. None of these

Answer: C

548. The V-belts are particularly suitable for __________ drives.

A. Short

B. Long

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

Answer: A

549. A pressure vessel is said to be a thick shell, if the ratio of wall thickness to its diameter is

A. Equal to 1/10

B. Less than 1/10

C. Greater than 1/10

D. None of these

Answer: C

550. The lead angle of a worm is 22.5°. Its helix angle will be

A. 22.5°

B. 45°

C. 67.5°

D. 90°

Answer: C

551. The ends of the leaves of a semi-elliptical leaf spring are made triangular in order to

A. Obtain variable moment of inertia (I) in each leaf

B. Permit each leaf to act as an overhanging beam

C. Have variable bending moment (M) in each leaf

D. Make M/I constant throughout the length of the leaf

Answer: D

552. When a load W is applied suddenly on a bar of cross-sectional area A, the stress induced in the bar will be

A. W/A

B. W/2A

C. 2W/A

D. 3W/A

Answer: C

554. When the material of key and shaft is same, and the width of key is one-fourth of the diameter of shaft D., then length of key will be

A. 0.8 d

B. 1.2 d

C. 1.57 d

D. 1.8 d

Answer: C

555. A compound belt drive is used when

A. Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions

B. Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions

C. Shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite direction

D. None of the above

Answer: D

556. The application of second type levers is found in

A. Handle of a hand pump

B. Hand wheel of a punching press

C. Lever of a loaded safety valve

D. A pair of tongs

Answer: C

557. When a shaft is subjected to combined twisting moment (T) and bending moment (M), then the equivalent twisting moment is equal to

A. (1/2) × √(M² + T²)

B. √(M² + T²)

C. (1/2) × [M + √(M² + T²)]

D. M + √(M² + T²)

Answer: B

558. For crank shaft bearings, the ratio of the length of the journal to its diameter is_________.

A. Less than unity

B. Greater than unity

C. Equal to 1

D. None of these

Answer: A

559. Pitch point of a cam is

A. A point on the pitch curve having minimum pressure angle

B. A point on the pitch curve having maximum pressure angle

C. Any point on the pitch curve

D. Any point on the pitch circle

Answer: B

560. The property of a bearing material which has the ability to accommodate small particles of dust, grit etc. without scoring the material of the journal, is called

A. Bondability

B. Embeddability

C. Comformability

D. Fatigue strength

Answer: B

561. The face angle of a bevel gear is equal to

A. Pitch angle – addendum angle

B. Pitch angle + addendum angle

C. Pitch angle – dedendum angle

D. Pitch angle + dedendum angle

Answer: B

562. A thin spherical shell of internal diameter d is subjected to an internal pressure p. If σt is the tensile stress for the shell material, then thickness of shell is equal to

A. pd/σt

B. pd/2σt

C. pd/3σt

D. pd/4σt

Answer: D

563. When the pulley or other mating piece is required to slide along the shaft, a __________ sunk key is used.

A. Rectangular

B. Square

C. Parallel

D. None of these

Answer: C

564. The algebraic difference between the maximum limit and the basic size is called

A. Lower deviation

B. Upper deviation

C. Actual deviation

D. Mean deviation

Answer: B

565. If b denotes the face width and L denotes the cone distance for a bevel gear, then the bevel factor is written as

A. b/L

B. b/2L

C. 1 – 2 b.L

D. 1 – (b/L)

Answer: D

567. In order to have smooth operation, the minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket, for moderate speeds, should be

A. 15

B. 17

C. 21

D. 25

Answer: B

568. The included angle for the British standard whitworth thread is

A. 29°

B. 47.5°

C. 55°

D. 60°

Answer: C

569. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to light loads is

A. Silicon bronze

B. White metal

C. Monel metal

D. Phosphor bronze

Answer: D

570. In order to withstand resistance to wear, the best profile of gear is

A. 14½° full depth involute tooth

B. 20° full depth involute tooth

C. 20° involute stub tooth

D. 14½° stub tooth

Answer: A

571. In a steam engine, the valve rod is connected to an eccentric rod by means of

A. Cotter joint

B. Knuckle joint

C. Universal joint

D. Flange coupling

Answer: B

572. Guest’s theory is used for

A. Brittle materials

B. Ductile materials

C. Elastic materials

D. Plastic materials

Answer: B

573. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock and impact loads?

A. Strength

B. Stiffness

C. Brittleness

D. Toughness

Answer: D

574. The steel widely used for motor car crankshafts is

A. Nickel steel

B. Chrome steel

C. Nickel Chrome steel

D. High speed steel

Answer: B

575. According to I.B.R., the thickness of the boiler shell should not be less than

A. 4 mm

B. 5 mm

C. 6 mm

D. 7 mm

Answer: D

576. Gears are casted by

A. Sand mould casting

B. Slush casting

C. Permanent mould casting

D. Centrifugal casting

Answer: C

577. A tapered key which fits in a key way in the hub and is flat on the shaft, is known as

A. Feather key

B. Gib-head key

C. Wood ruff key

D. Flat saddle key

Answer: D

578. When a bolt is subjected to an external load, the stress induced in the bolt will be

A. Tensile stress

B. Shear stress

C. Combined tensile and shear stress

D. Any one of these

Answer: D

579. The rocker arms in internal combustion engines are of__________.

A. First type levers

B. Second type levers

C. Third type levers

D. None of these

Answer: A

580. Which one of the following loading is considered for the design of axles?

A. Bending moment only

B. Twisting moment only

C. Combined bending moment and twisting moments

D. Combined action of bending moment, twisting moment and axial thrust

Answer: A

581. When a metal or alloy is cold worked,

A. Its hardness and strength increases

B. It is worked below recrystallization temperature

C. Both A. and B.

D. None of these

Answer: C

582. In designing a sleeve coupling, outer diameter of the sleeve is taken as (where d = Diameter of the shaft)

A. d + 17 mm

B. 2d + 13 mm

C. 2d + 20 mm

D. 3.5d

Answer: B

583. When the shaft rotates in anticlockwise direction at high speed in a bearing, it will

A. Have contact at the bottom most of the bearing

B. Move towards right of the bearing making metal to metal contact

C. Move towards right of the bearing making no metal to metal contact

D. Move towards left of the bearing making metal to metal contact

Answer: C

584. A cotter joint is used to connect two __________ rods.

A. Co-axial

B. Perpendicular

C. Parallel

D. None of these

Answer: A

585. The difference between the upper limit and lower limit of a dimension is called

A. Nominal size

B. Basic size

C. Actual size

D. Tolerance

Answer: D

586. The stress in the bar when the load is applied suddenly is __________ as compared to the stress induced due to gradually applied loads.

A. Same

B. Double

C. Three times

D. Four times

Answer: B

587. All stresses produced in a belt are

A. Compressive stresses

B. Tensile stresses

C. Both tensile and compressive stresses

D. Shear stresses

Answer: B

588. A screw is specified by its

A. Major diameter

B. Minor diameter

C. Pitch diameter

D. Pitch

Answer: A

589. The longitudinal stress is __________ of the circumferential stress.

A. One-half

B. Two-third

C. Three-fourth

D. Double

Answer: A

590. A rivet is specified by

A. Shank diameter

B. Length of rivet

C. Type of head

D. Length of tail

Answer: A

591. A shaft is subjected to

A. Bending stresses

B. Shear stresses

C. Combined bending and shear stresses

D. All of these

Answer: D

592. When a bolt and nut is made of mild steel, then the effective height of nut is made equal to (where d = Nominal diameter of bolt)

A. 0.5 d

B. 0.75 d

C. d

D. 1.25 d

Answer: C

593. A closely coiled helical spring is acted upon by an axial force. The maximum shear stress developed in the spring is τ. The half of the length of the spring if cut off and the remaining spring is acted upon by the same axial force. The maximum shear stress in the spring in new condition will be

A. τ/2

B. τ

C. 2 τ

D. 4 τ

Answer: B

594. The radial distance from the __________ to the clearance circle is called working depth.

A. Addendum circle

B. Dedendum circle

C. Pitch circle

D. None of these

Answer: A

595. A screw will be self locking, if

A. Friction angle is less than helix angle

B. Friction angle is more than helix angle

C. Friction angle is equal to helix angle

D. Efficiency of screw is 100%

Answer: B

596. In cyclic loading, stress concentration is more serious in

A. Brittle materials

B. Ductile materials

C. Brittle as well as ductile materials

D. Elastic materials

Answer: B

597. In a turnbuckle, if one of the rods has left hand threads, then the other rod will have

A. Right hand threads

B. Left hand threads

C. Multiple threads

D. Pointed threads

Answer: A

598. The railway carriage couplings have

A. Square threads

B. Acme threads

C. Knuckle threads

D. Buttress threads

Answer: D

599. The anti-friction bearings

A. Have low starting and low running friction at moderate speeds

B. Have high initial cost

C. Can carry both radial and thrust loads

D. All of these

Answer: D

600. Lewis equation is applied

A. Only to the pinion

B. Only to the gear

C. To stronger of the pinion or gear

D. To weaker of the pinion or gear

Answer: D

601. The bearing characteristic number in a hydrodynamic bearing depends upon

A. Length, width and load

B. Length, width and speed

C. Viscosity, speed and load

D. Viscosity, speed and bearing pressure

Answer: D

602. Which of the following welded joint is designed for shear strength?

A. Transverse fillet welded joint

B. Parallel fillet welded joint

C. Butt welded joint

D. All of these

Answer: B

603. The surface finish factor for a mirror polished material is

A. 0.45

B. 0.65

C. 0.85

D. 1

Answer: D

604. According to maximum normal stress theory, the maximum normal stress in the shaft is

A. (1/2) × √(σ² × 4τ²)

B. √(σ² × 4τ²)

C. (1/2) × [σ + √(σ² × 4τ²)]

D. σ + √(σ² × 4τ²)

Answer: D

605. The dynamic tooth load is due to

A. Inaccuracies of tooth spacing

B. Irregularities in tooth profiles

C. Deflections of teeth under load

D. All of these

Answer: D

606. In helical bevel gearing, the axes of shafts are __________ and the teeth are curved.

A. Intersecting

B. Non-intersecting and non-parallel

C. Intersecting and non-parallel

D. None of these

Answer: B

607. In a flange coupling, the keys are staggered at __________ along the circumference of the shafts in order to divide the weakening effect caused by key ways.

A. 90°

B. 135°

C. 160°

D. 180°

Answer: A

608. In the levers of __________ type, the mechanical advantage is less than one.

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. None of these

Answer: C

609. The strength of the unriveted plate (P) per pitch length is equal to

A. p.d.σt

B. p.t.σt

C. (p – d) σt

D. (p – d) t.σt

Answer: B

610. A shaft coupling should

A. Be easy to connect or disconnect

B. Transmit full power of the shaft

C. Hold the shafts in perfect alignment

D. All of these

Answer: D

611. The function of the washer is to

A. Fill up the axial gap

B. Provide bearing area

C. Provide cushioning effect

D. Absorb shocks and vibrations

Answer: D

612. Shaft coupling is used in machinery to

A. Introduce mechanical flexibility

B. Introduce protection against over loads

C. Reduce the transmission of shock loads

D. All of these

Answer: D

613. A saddle key __________ power through frictional resistance only.

A. Transmits

B. Does not transmit

C. Either A or B

D. None of these

Answer: A

614. The cam follower generally used in automobile engines is

A. Knife edge follower

B. Flat faced follower

C. Spherical faced follower

D. Roller follower

Answer: C

615. The shear modulus of resilience is proportional to

A. Shear stress

B. (Shear stress)²

C. (Shear stress)3

D. (Shear stress)⁴

Answer: B

Machine Design objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

[PDF Notes] What are the Merits of Protection Method of Economy Policy?

Protection is also advocated on the following non-economic arguments:

1. Defence Argument:

Tariffs are necessary in order to develop national defence industries. Though economically such industries may be unjustified, but their existence and development is of critical importance particularly in war times.

National security is even more important than economic prosperity. As Adam Smith says. “Defence is better than opulence.” Thus, the defence industrises must be developed behind the wall of protection.

2. Nationalist Argument:

Protection is also justified on the nationalist ground. The spirit of patriotism requires that every citizen of the country should prefer home made (swadeshi) goods to imported goods.

Such nationalist feelings give a good boost to the development of domestic industries and necessitate restrictions on imports through protective measures as well as encouragement to import substitution.

3. Preservation Argument:

Protection is also advocated in some countries to preserve certain classes of population or certain occupations. For example, agriculturists and farming occupation should be preserved on political and social grounds.

The basic argument is that the agriculturist community is the backbone of the society and, therefore, the interests of agriculturists should be preserved by imposing tariff duties on the import of cheap food grains. In England, for instance, ‘Corn Laws’ imposed tariff in 1819 on the import of wheat.

4. To Check Import of Harmful Goods:

Tariffs may be imposed to check the import of harmful and socially undesirable goods. The consumption of certain commodities such as alcoholic beverages, tobacco, etc. is detrimental to the health of the people. Therefore, the import of such goods should be restricted.

300+ TOP Compressors, Gas Turbines & Jet Engines MCQs

Compressors, Gas Turbines and Jet Engines Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. Free air is the air at
A. atmospheric conditions at any specific location
B. 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 36%
C. 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
D. 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 50%.
Answer: A

2. Standard air is the air at
A. atmospheric conditions at any specific location
B. 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity 36%
C. 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
D. 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and RH of 60%.
Answer: B

3. 1 m of air at atmospheric condition weighs approximately
A. 0.5 kg
B. 1.0 kg
C. 1.3 kg
D. 2.2 kg
E. 3.2 kg.
Answer: C

4. Adiabatic compression is one in which
A. temperature during compression remains constant
B. no heat leaves or enters the compressor cylinder during cornpression
C. temperature rise follows a linear relationship
D. work done is maximum
E. entropy decreases.
Answer: B

5. The capacity of a compressor is 5 m /mih. 5 m /min refers to
A. standard air
B. free air
C. compressed air
D. compressed air at delivery pressure
E. air sucked.
Answer: B

6. The overall isothermal eiffciency of compressor is defined as the ratio of
A. isothermal h.p. to the BHP of motor
B. isothermal h.p. to adiabatic h.p.
C. power to drive compressor to isothermal h.p.
D. work to compress air isothermally to work for actual compression
E. isothermal work to ideal work.
Answer: A

7. The- most efficient method of compressing air is to compress it
A. isothermally
B. adiabatically
C. isentropically
D. isochronically
E. as per law pV
Answer: A

8. Maximum work is done in compressing air when the compression is
A. isothermal
B. adiabatic
C. polytropic
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

9. The pressure and temperature conditions of air at the suction of compressor are
A. atmospheric
B. slightly more than atmospheric
C. slightly less than atmospheric
D. pressure slightly more than atmospheric and temperature slightly less than atmospheric
E. pressure sightly less than atmospheric and temperature slightly more than atmospheric.
Answer: e

10. Isothermal compression effeicency can be attained by running the compressor
A. at very high speed
B. at very slow speed
C. at average speed
D. at zero speed
E. isothermally.
Answer: B

11. The compressor capacity with decrease in suction temperature
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase or decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. increases upto certain limit and then decreases.
Answer: A

12. Isothermal compression efficiency, even when running at high speed, can be approached by using
A. multi-stage compression
B. cold water spray
C. both A. and B. above
D. fully insulating the cylinder
E. high stroke.
Answer: C

13. Compression efficiency is compared against
A. ideal compression
B. adiabatic compression
C. botii isothermal and adiabatic compression
D. isentropic compression
E. isothermal compression.
Answer: e

14. Aeroplanes employ following type of compressor
A. radial flow
B. axial flow
C. centrifugal
D. combination of above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

15. Inter cooling in compressors
A. cools the delivered air
B. results in saving of power in compressing a given volume to given pressure
C. is the standard practice for big compressors
D. enables compression in two stages
E. prevents compressor jacket running very hot.
Answer: B

16. An ideal air compressor cycle without clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by following processes
A. one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
B. two adiabatic and two isobaric
C. two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume
D. one adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volume
E. two isobaric, two adiabatic and one constant volume.
Answer: A

17. An ideal air compressor cycle with clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by following processes
A. one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
B. two adiabatic and two isobaric
C. two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume,
D. one adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volume
E. two isobaric, two adiabatic and one constant volume.
Answer: B

18. What will be the volume of air at 327°C if its volume at 27°C is 1.5 m3/mt
A. 3 m3/mt .
B. 1.5 m3/mt
C. 18 m3/mt’
D. 6 m3/mt
E. 0.75 m3/mt.
Answer: A

19. The work done per unit mass of air in compression will’be least when n is equal to
A. 1
B. 1.2 ,
C. 1.3
D. 1.4
E. 1.5
Answer: A

20. Isothermal compression though most efficient, but is not -practicable because
A. ityrequires very big cylinder
B. it does not increase pressure much
C. it is impossible in practice
D. compressor has to run at very slow speed to achieve it
E. it requires cylinder to be placed in water.
Answer: D

21. Ratio of indicated H.P. and brake H.P. is known as
A. mechanical efficiency
B. volumetric efficiency
C. isothermal efficiency
D. adiabatic efficiency
E. relative efficiency.
Answer: A

22. The ratio of work doen per cycle to the swept volume in case of compressor is called
A. compression index
B. compression ratio
C. compressor efficiency
D. mean effective pressure
E. compressor effectiveness.
Answer: D

23. Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be
A. as large as possible
B. as small as possible
C. about 50% of swept volume
D. about 100% of swept volume
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

24. Ratio of compression is the ratio of
A. gauge discharge pressure to the gauge intake pressure
B. absolute discharge pressure to the ab-solute intake pressure
C. pressures at discharge and suction cor-responding to same temperature
D. stroke volume and clearance volume
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

25. Clearance volume in actual reciprocating compressors is essential
A. to accommedate Valves in the cylinder head
B. to provide cushioning effect
C. to attain high volumetric efficiency
D. to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head
E. to provide cushioning effect and also to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head.
Answer: e

26. The net work input required for compressor with increase in clearance volume
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. increases/decreases depending on com-pressor capacity
E. unpredictable.
Answer: C

27. Ratio of indicated h.p. to shaft h.p. in known as
A. compressor efficiency
B. isothermal efficiency
C. volumetric efficiency
D. mechanical efficiency
E. adiabatic efficiency.
Answer: D

28. Volumetric efficiency is
A. the ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
B. the ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount of piston displacement
C. reciprocal of compression ratio
D. index of compressor performance
E. proportional to compression ratio.
Answer: B

29. Volumetric efficiency of air compressors is of the order of
A. 20-30%
B. 40-50%
C. 60-70%
D. 70-90%
E. 90-100%.
Answer: D

30. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor with clearance volume
A. increases with increase in compression ratio
B. decreases with increase in compression ratio
C. in not dependent upon compression ratio
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B

31. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor without clearance volume
A. increases with increase in compression ratio
B. decreases with increase in compression ratio
C. is not dependent upon compressin ratio
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable.
Answer: C

32. The clearance volume of the air compressor is kept minimum because
A. it allows maximum compression to be achieved
B. it greatly affects volumetric efficiency
C. it results in minimum work
D. it permits isothermal compression
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

33. Euler’s equation is applicable for
A. centrifugal compressor
B. axial compressor
C. pumps
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

40. Out of the following, from where you will prefer to take intake for air compressor
A. from an air conditioned room maintained at 20°C
B. from outside atmosphere at 1°C
C. from coal yard side
D. from a side where cooling tower is located nearby
E. from any one of the above locations.
Answer: D

41. Mining industry usually employs following motive power
A. A.C. electric motor
B. compressed air
C. petrol engine
D. diesel engine
E. D.C. electric motor.
Answer: B

42. Which is false statement about air receivers
A. These are used to dampen pulsations ,
B. These act as reservoir to- take care of sudden demands
C. These increase compressor efficiency
D. These knock out some oil and moisture
E. These reduce frequent on/off operation of compressors.
Answer: C

44. An air receiver is to be placed outside. Should it be placed in
A. sun
B. shade
C. rain
D. enclosed room
E. anywhere.
Answer:

45. Which is false statement about multistage compression .
A. Power consumption per unit of air delivered is low
B. Volumetric efficiency is high
C. It is best suited for compression ratios around 7:1
D. The moisture in air is condensed in the intercooler
E. Outlet temperature is reduced.
Answer: B

46. In multistage compressor, the isothermal compression is achieved by
A. employing intercooler
B. by constantly cooling the cylinder
C. by running compressor at very slow speed
D. by insulating the cylinder
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

47. Reciprocating air compressor is best suited for
A. large quantity of air at high pressure
B. small quantity of air at high pressure
C. small quantity of air at low pressure
D. large quantity of air at low pressure
E. any one of the above.
Answer: A

48. Rotary compressor is best suited for
A. large quantity of air at high pressure
B. small quantity of air at high pressure
C. small quantity of air at low pressure
D. large quantity of air at low pressure
E. any one of the above.
Answer: B

49. The capacity of compressor will be highest when its intake temperature is
A. lowest
B. highest
C. anything.
D. atmospheric
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

50. After-cooler is used to
A. cool the air
B. decrease the delivery temperature for ease in handling
C. cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
D. reduce volume
E. increase pressure.
Answer: C

51. To aviod moisture troubles, the compressed air main line should
A. rise gradually towards the point of use
B. drop gradually towards the point of use
C. be laid vertically
D. be laid exactly horizontally
E. none of the above
Answer: B

52. Separators in compressor installations are located
A. before intercooler
B. after intercooler
C. after receiver
D. between after-cooler and air receiver
E. before suction.
Answer: D

53. The area of actual indicator diagram on an air compressor as compared to area of ideal indicator diagram is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. more/less depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B

54. An air compressor may be controlled by
A. throttle control B. clearance control
C. blow-off control
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

55. The compressor efficiecny is the
A. isothermal H.P/indicated H.R
B. isothermal H.P./shaft H.R
C. total output/air input
D. compression work/motor input
E. none Of the above.
Answer: A

56. To avoid moisture troubles, the branch connections from compressed air lines should be taken from
A. top side of main
B. bottom side of main
C. left side of main
D. right side of main
E. any location.
Answer: A

57. The thrust on the rotor in a centrifugal compressor is produced by
A. radial component
B. axial component
C. tangential component
D. resultant component
Answer: B

58. The compressor performance at higher altitude compared to sea level will be
A. same
B. higher
C. lower
D. dependent on other factors
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

59. A compressor at high altitude will draw
A. more power
B. less power
C. same power
D. more/less power depending on other factors
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

60. During peak load periods, the best method of controlling compressors is
A. start-stop motor
B. constant speed unloader
C. relief valve
D. variable speed
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

61. A centrifugal compressor works on the principle of
A. conversion of pressure energy into kinetic energy
B. conversion of kinetic energy into pres¬sure energy
C. centripetal action
D. generating pressure directly
E. combination of A. and D..
Answer: B

62. For a compressor, least work will be done if the compression is
A. isentropic
B. isothermal
C. polytropic
D. somewhere in between isentropic and isothermal
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

67. In a compressor, free air delivered is the actual volume delivered at the stated pressure reduced to
D. N.T.P. conditions
B. intake temperature and pressure conditions
C. 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
D. 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

68. The volumetirc efficiency of a compressor is calculated on the basis of
A. volume of air inhaled at working conditions
B. volume of air inhaled at N.T.P. conditions
C. volume at 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
D. volume at 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

69. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 100 m increase in elevation
A. 0.1%
B. 0.5%
C. 1.0%
D. 5%
E. 10%.
Answer: C

70. For slow-speed large capacity compressor, following type of valve will be best suited
A. poppet valve
B. mechanical valve of the corliss, sleeve, rotary or semirotary type
C. disc or feather type
D. any of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

71. During base load operation, the best method of controlling compressor is
A. start-stop motor
B. constant speed unloader
C. relief valve
D. variable speed
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

72. More than one stage will be preferred for reciprocating compressor if the delivery pressure is more than
A. 2 kg/cm2
B. 6 kg/cm2
C. 10 kg/cm2
D. 14.7 kg/cm2
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

73. The advantage of multistage compression over single stage compression is
A. lower power consumption per unit of air delivered
B. higher volumetric efficiency
C. decreased discharge temperature
D. moisture free air
E. all of the above.
Answer: e

74. Pick up the wrong statement about advantages of multistage compression
A. better lubrication is possible advantages of multistage
B. more loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
C. mechanical balance is better
D. air can be cooled perfectly in between
E. more uniform torque, light cylinder and saving in work.
Answer: B

75. As the value of index ‘«’ is decreased, the volumetric efficiency will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor clearance
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

76. The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of centrifugal compressor is called
A. slip factor
B. velocity factor
C. velocity coefficient
D. blade effectiveness
Answer: A

79. Losses in a centrifugal compressor are due to
A. inlet losses
B. impeller channel losses
C. diffuser losses
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Answer: D

80. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 5°C increase in atmospheric temperature
A. 0.1%
B. 0.5%
C. 1%
D. 5%
(e ) 10%.
Answer: C

81. The indicated work per unit mass of air delivered is
A. directly proportional to clearance volume
B. greatly affected by clearance volume
C. not affected by clearance volume
D. inversely proportional to clearance volume
Answer: C

89. For actual single stage centrifugal compressor, the maximum pressure ratio is of the order of
A. 1 : 1.2
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 4
D. 1 : 10
E. 1 : 1
Answer:

90. Which is false statement about advantages of multistage compressor in comparison to single stage compressor
A. less power requirement
B. better mechanical balance
C. less loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
D. more effective lubrication
E. lower volumetric efficiency.
Answer: e

91. The ratio of isentropic work to Euler work is known as
A. pressure coefficient
B. work coefficient
C. polytropic reaction
D. slip factor
E. compressor efficiency.
Answer: A

92. The criterion of the thermodynamic efficiency for rotary compressor is
A. isentropic compression
B. isothermal compression
C. polytropic compression
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

93. For supplying intermittent small quantity of air at high pressure, following compressor is best suited
A. centrifugal
B. reciprocating
C. axial
D. screw
E. turbo jet.
Answer: B

94. For minimum work in multistage compression, assuming same index of compression in all stages
A. work done in first stage should be more
B. work done in subsequent stages should increase
C. work done in subsequent stages should decrease
D. work done in all stages should be equal
E. work done in any stage is no criterion for minimum work but depends on other factors.
Answer: D

95. For a two stage compressor* if index of compression for higher stage is greater than index of compression for lower stage, then the optimum pressure as compared to ideal case will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unaffected
D. other factors control it
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A

96. Diffuser in a compressor is used to
A. increase velocity
B. make the flow stream-line
C. convert pressure energy into kinetic energy
D. convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
E. increase degree of reaction.
Answer: D

98. The ratio of isentropic work to euler’s work is known as
A. compressor efficiency
B. isentropic efficiency
C. Euler’s efficiency
D. pressure coefficient
E. pressure ratio.
Answer: D

99. The thermodynamic efficiency of rotary compressor is based on
A. isothermal compression
B. adiabatic compression
C. isentropic compression
D. polytropic compression
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

100. Phenomenon of choking in compressor means
A. no flow of air
B. fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio
C. reducing mass flow rate with increase in pressure ratio
D. increased inclination of chord with air steam
E. does not occur.
Answer: B

Compressors, Gas Turbines and Jet Engines Interview Questions and Answers :-

101. The maximum compression ratio in an actual single stage axial flow comperssor is of the order of
A. 1 : 1.2
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 5
D. 1 : 10
E. 1 : 1
Answer: A

102. Maximum delivery pressure is a rotary air compressor is of the order of
A. 6 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm2
C. 16 kg/cm2
D. 25 kg/cm2
E. 40 kg/cm2.
Answer: B

103. Surging is the phenomenon of
A. air stream blocking the passage
B. motion of air at sonic velocity
C. unsteady, periodic and reversed flow
D. air stream not able to follow the blade contour
E. production of no air pressure.
Answer: C

104. Pick up wrong statement.
Surging phenomenon in centrifugal com-pressor depends on
A. mass flow rate
B. pressure ratio
C. change in load
D. stagnation pressure at the outlet
E. all of the above.
Answer: D

105. The ratio of the increase in pressure in rotor blades to total increase in pressure in the stage is called
A. pressure ratio
B. pressure coefficient
C. degree of reaction
D. slip factor
E. stage factor.
Answer: C

106. Axial flow compressor resembles
A. centrifugal pump
B. reciprocating pump
C. turbine
D. sliding vane compressor
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

107. Axial flow compressor has the following advantage over centrifugal compressor
A. larger air handling ability per unit frontal area
B. higher pressure ratio per stage
C. aerofoil blades are used
D. higher average velocities
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

108. Actual compression curve is
A. same as isothermal
B. same as adiabatic
C. better than isothermal and adiabatic
D. in between isothermal and adiabatic
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

109. Atmospheric pressure is 1.03 kg/cm and vapour pressure is 0.03 kg/cm . The air pressure will be
A. 1.03 kg/cm2
B. 1.06 kg/cm2
C. 1.00 kg/cm2
D. 0.53 kg/cm2
E. 0.5 kg/cm2.
Answer: C

110. The pressure ratio of an ideal vaned compressor with increase in mass flow rate
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. first decreases and then increases
E. unpredictable.
Answer: C

111. Rotary compressors are suitable for
A. large discharge at high pressure
B. low discharge at high pressure
C. large discharge at low pressure
D. low discharge at low pressure
E. there is no such limitation.
Answer: C

112. The vloumetric efficiency of compressor with increase in compression ratio will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. may increase/decrease depending on clearance volume
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

113. Stalling of blades in axial flow compressor is the phenomenon of
A. air stream blocking the passage
B. motion of air at sonic velocity
C. unsteady periodic and reversed flow
D. air stream not able to follow the blade contour
E. production of no air pressure.
Answer: D

114. Pick up the wrong statement
A. centrifugal compressors deliver prac-tically constant pressure over a considerable range of capacities
B. Axial flow compressors have a sub-stantially constant delivery at variable pressures
C. centrifugal compressors have a wider stable operating range than axial flow compressors
D. axial flow compressors are bigger in diameter compared to centrifugal type
E. axial flow compressors apt to be longer as compared to centrifugal type.
Answer: D

115. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is defined as the ratio of
A. net work output and heat supplied (6) net work output and work done by tur¬bine
C. actual heat drop and isentropic heat drop
D. net work output and isentropic heat drop
E. isentropic increase/drop in tempera¬ture and actual increase/ drop in temperature.
Answer: B

116. Gas turbine works on
A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle
B. Carnot cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Erricsson cycle
E. Joule cycle.
Answer: A

117. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends on
A. pressure ratio
B. maximum cycle temperature
C. minimum cycle temperature
D. all of the above
E. none of die above.
Answer: D

118. The pressure ratio for an open cycle gas turbine compared to closed cycle gas turbine of same h.p. is
A. low
B. high
C. same
D. low/high depending on make and type
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A

119. Open cycle gas turbine works on
A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle
(6) Rankine cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Erricsson cycle
E. Joule cycle.
Answer: A

120. The fuel consumption in gas turbines is accounted for by
A. low.er heating value
B. higher heating value
C. heating value
D. higher calorific value
E. highest calorific value.
Answer: A

121. Gas turbines for power generaion are normally used
A. to supply base load requirements
B. to supply peak load requirements
C. to enable start thermal power plant
D. in emergency
E. when other sources of power fail.
Answer: B

122. Mechanical efficiency of gas turbines as compared to I.C engines is
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. depends on on odier considerations
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A

123. The ratio of specific weighf/h.p. of gas turbin and I.C engines may be typically of the order of
A. 1 : 1
B. 2 : 1
C. 4 : 1
D. 1:2
E. 1 : 6.
Answer: e

124. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to a diesel plant is
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. depends on other factors
E. unpredictably.
Answer: C

125. The air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is of the order of
A. 7 : 1
B. 15 : 1
C. 30 : 1
D. 40 : 1
E. 50: 1.
Answer: e

126. The pressure ratio in gas turbines is of the order of
A.,2:l
B.4:1
C. 61: 1
D. 9 : 1
E. 12:1.
Answer: C

128. The hottest point in a gas turbine is
A. at the base
B. at the tip
C. in the center
D. between ~ to i of the blade height
E. uniformly heated.
Answer: D

129. The following is true for an open cycle gas turbine having exhaust heat exchanger. Atmospheric air before entering the compressor is
A. heated
B. compressed air before entering the combustion chamber is heated
C. bled gas from turbine is heated and readmitted for complete expansion
D. exhaust gases drive the compressor
E. part of exhaust gases are heated and mixed up with atmospheric air to utilise exhaust heat.
Answer: B

130. Gas turbine blades are given a rake
A. equal to zero
B. in the direction of motion of blades
C. opposite to the direction of motion of blades
D. depending on the velocity
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

131. Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by
A. reheating
B. inter cooling
C. adding a regenerator
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

132. Temperature of gases at end of compression as compared to exhaust gases in a gas turbine is
A. higher
B. lower
C. equal
D. can’t be compared
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B

133. The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle depends on
A. pressure ratio
B. maximum cycle temperature
C. minimum cycle temperature
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

134. The thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine for a given turbine inlet temperature with increase in pressure ratio
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases and then decreases
D. first decreases and then increases
E. remains same.
Answer: A

135. Gas turbines use following type of air compressor
A. centrifugal type
B. reciprocating type
C. lobe type
D. axial flow type
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

136. As the turbine inlet temperature increases, the thermal efficiency of gas turbine for the optimum pressure ratio
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. first increases and then decreases
E. first decreases and then increases.
Answer: A

137. There is a certain pressure ratio (optimum) for a gas turbine at which its thermal efficiency is maximum. With increase in turbine temperature, the value of pressure ratio for the peak efficiency would
A. remain same
B. decrease
C. increase
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

138. The material commonly used for air craft gas turbine is
A. stainless steel
B. high alloy’ steel
C. duralumin
D. Timken, Haste and Inconel allpys
E. titanium.
Answer: D

139. It is not possible to use closed gas turbine cycle in aeronautical engines because
A. it is inefficient
B. it is bulky
C. it requires cooling water for its operation
Answer: C

140. The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine using perfect combustion chamber is of the order of
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 90%
(e ) 99%.
Answer: e

141. The jnaximum combustion pressure in gas turbine as compared to I.C. engine is
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. depends on other factors
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B

142. For an irreversible gas turbine cycle, the efficiency and work ratio both depend on
A. pressure ratio alone
B. maximum cycle temperature alone
C. minimum cycle temperature alone
D. both pressure ratio and maximum cycle temperature
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

143. Producer gas is produced by
A. carbonisation of coal
B. passing steam over incandescent coke
C. passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 65°C
D. partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
E. same way as the natural gas.
Answer: D

144. Water gas is produced by
A. carbonisation of coal
B. passing steam over incandescent coke
C. passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 65°C
D. partial combustion of caol, eke, anthractie coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
E. same way as the natural gas.
Answer: B

14 Water is injected in gas turbine cycle to
A. control temperature
B. control output of turbine
C. control fire hazards
D. increase efficiency
E. it is never done.
Answer: B

146. A gas turbine used in air craft should have
A. high h.p. and low weight
B. low weight and small frontal area
C. small frontal area and high h.p.
D. high speed and high h.p.
E. all of the above.
Answer: B

148. The closed cycle in gas turbines
A. provides greater flexibility
B. provides lesser flexibility
C. in never used
D. is used when gas is to be burnt
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

149. In the axial flow gas turbine, the work ratio is the ratio of
A. compressor work and turbine work
B. output and input
C. actual total head tempeature drop to the isentrpic total head drop from total head inlet to static head outlet
D. actual compressor work and theoretical comprssor work
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

150. The degree of reaction of an axial flow turbine is the ratio of isentropic temperature drop in a blade row to the
A. adiabatic temperature drop in the stage
B. total temperature drop
C. total temperature drop in the stage
D. total adiabaitc temperature drop
E. difference of maximum and minimum temperature in the cycle.
Answer: C

153. If infinite number of heaters be used in a gas turbine, then expansion process in turbine approaches
A. isothermal
B. isentropic
C. adiabatic
D. isochoric
E. isobaric.
Answer: A

154. Pick up the correct statement
A. gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to economise on fuel
B. gas turhine uses high air-fuel ratio to reduce outgoing temperature
C. gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to develop the high thrust required
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

15 Intercooling in gas turbine results in
A. increase in net output but decrease in thermal efficiency
B. increase in thermal efficiency but decrease in net output
C. increase in both thermal efficiency and net output
D. decrease in both thermal efficiency and net output
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

156. If V, U and Vr represent the absolute velocity of fluid, velocity of blade, and relative velocity of fluid, and suffix i and o stand for entry and exit conditions, then in a rotary machine whose degree of reaction is unity
A.Vi=V0
B.Vt>V0
C. U,<V0
D.V,= U0
E. Vri=Vm.
Answer: A

157. Pick up the wrong statement
A. large gas turbines employ axial flow compressors
B. axial flow compressors are more stable than centrifugal type compressors but not as efficient
C. axial flow compressors have high capacity and efficiency
D. axial flow compressors have instability region of operation
E. centrifugal compressors are used mainly on low flow pressure ratio gas turbines.
Answer: B

158. The power available for take off and climb in case of turbojet engine as compared to reciprocating engine is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. may be less or more depending on ambient conditons
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A

159. Pick up the correct statement
A. large gas turbines use radial inflow turbines
B. gas turbines have their blades similar to steam turbine
C. gas .turbine’s blade will appear as impulse section at the hub and as a reaction section at tip
D. gas turbines use both air and liquid cooling
E. all of the above are correct.
Answer: C

160. A closed gas turbine in which fuel is burnt directly in the air is not possible because of
A. high pressure ratio
B. increasing gas temperature
C. high specific volume
D. high friction losses
E. paucity of 02.
Answer: e

161. Choose the correct statement
A. gas turbine requires lot of cooling water
B. gas turbine is capable of rapid start up and loading
C. gas turbines have flat efficiency at part loads
D. gas turbines have high standby losses and require lot of maintenance
E. gas turbines can be used to generate power only.
Answer: B

162. Ram compression in turbojet involves
A. reduction of speed of incoming air and conversion of part of it into pressure energy
B. compression of inlet air
C. increasing speed of incoming air
D. lost work
E. leakage losses.
Answer: A

163. In gas turbines^ high thermal efficiency is obtained in
A. closed cycle
B. open cycle
C. both of the above
D. closed/open depending on other con-siderations
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A

164. In the cross compounding of the gas turbine plant
A. h.p. compressor L connected to h.p. turbine and l.p. compressor ot l.p. tur-bine
B. h.p. compressor is connected to l.p. turbine and l.p. compressor is con-nected to h.p. turbine
C. both the arrangements can be employed
D. all are connected in series
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

16 A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of
A. mass
B. energy
C. flow
D. linear momentum
E. angular momentum.
Answer: D

166. In jet engines, for the efficient production of large power, fuel is burnt in an atmosphere of
A. vacuum
B. atmospheric air
C. compressed air
D. oxygen alone
E. liquid hydrogen.
Answer: C

167. Which of the following fuels can be used in turbojet engines
A. liquid hydrogne
B. high speed diesel oil
C. kerosene
D. demethylated spirit
E. methyl alcohol
Answer: C

168. Turbo propeller has the^following additional feature over the turbojet
A. peopeller
B. diffuser
C. intercooler
D. turbine and combustion chamber
E. starting engine.
Answer: A

169. Propulsive efficiency is defined as ratio of
A. thrust power and fuel energy
B. engine output and propulsive power
C. propulsive power and fuel input
D. thrust power and propulsive power
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

170. In jet engines, paraffin is usually used as the fuel because of its
A. high calorific value
B. ease of atomisation
C. low freezing point
D. A. and C. above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

171. A rocket engine for the combustion of its fuel
A. carries its own oxygen
B. uses surrounding air
C. uses compressed atmospheric air
D. does not require oxygen
E. depends on electrical energy supplied by solar cells.
Answer: A

172. A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air craft velocity is equal to the
A. jet velocity
B. twice the jet velocity
C. half the jet velocity
D. average of the jet velocity
E. no such co-relationship with jet velocity exists.
Answer: C

173. Propulsion efficiency of the following order-is obtained in practice
(ti) 34%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 72%
E. 85%.
Answer: C

174. The maximum propulsion efficiency of a turbojet is attained at around following speed –
A. 550 km/hr
B. 1050km/hr
C. 1700 km/hr
D. 2400km /hr
E. 4000 km/hr.
Answer: D

17 In jet propulsion power unit, the inlet duct of diverging shape is used in order to
A. collect more air
B. convert kinetic energy of air into pres-sure energy
C. provide robust structure
D. beautify the shape
E. none of the above
Answer: B

176. In jet engines the products of combustion after passing through the gas lurbine are discharged into
A. atmosphere
B. back to the compressor
C. discharge nozzle
D. vacuum
E. none of the above.
Answer: C

177. The air entry velocity m a rocket as compared to aircraft is
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. zero
E. dependent on power and speed.
Answer: D

183. The weight per horse power ratio for gas. turbine as compared to I.C. engine and steam turbine is
A. same
B. higher
C. lower
D. uncomparable
E. unpredictable.
Answer: C

184. Fighter bombers use following type of engine
A. turbo-jet
B. turbo-propeller
C. rocket
D. ram-jet ,
E. pulsojet.
Answer: A

18 Pick up the wrong statement
A. pulsojet requires no ambient air for propulsion
B. ramjet-engine has no turbine
C. turbine drives compressor in a burbojet
D. bypass turbo-jet engine increases the thrust without adversely affecting, the propulsive efficiency and fuel economy
E. propeller is an indirect reaction device.
Answer: A

186. Thrust of a jet propulsion power unit can be increased by
A. burning fuel after gas turbine
B. injecting water in the compressor
C. injecting ammonia into the combustion chamber
D. all of the three above
E. none of the above.
Answer:

187. The blades of gas turbine are made of
A. mild steel
B. stainless steel
C. carbon steel
D. high alloy seel
E. high nicket alloy (neimonic).
Answer: e

188. The following property is most important for material used for gas turbine blade
A. toughness
B. fatigue
C. creep
D. corrosion resistance
E. bulk modulus.
Answer: C

189. The effective power of gas turbines is increased by adding the following in compressor
A. ammonia and water vapour
B. carbon dioxide
C. nitrogen
D. hydrogen
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

190. High air-fuel ratio is used in gas turbines
A. to increase the output
B. to increase the efficiency
C. to save fuel
D. to reduce the exit temperature
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

191. Air-fuel ratio in a jet engine will be of the order of
A. 10: 1
B. 15: 1
C. 20 : 1
D. 60 : 1
E. 100 : 1.
Answer: D

192. In which case the air-fuel ratio is likely to be maximum
A. 2-stroke engine
B. 4-stroke petrol engine
C. 4-stroke diesef engine
D. multi-cylinder engine
E. gas turbine.
Answer: e

193. In jet engines the compression ratio
A. varies as square root of the speed
B. Varies linearly to the speed
C. varies as square of the speed
D. varies as cube of the speed
E. is constant irrespective of variation in speed.
Answer: C

194. The specific output per kg mass flow rate of a gas turbine (having fixed efficiencies of compressor and turine and fixed higher and lower temperature) with increase in pressure ratio will
A. increase first at fast rate and then slow
B. increase first at slow rate and then fast
C. decrease continuously
D. first increase, reach maximum and then decrease
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

195. The working fluid in ai turbine is
A. in two phases
B. in three phases
C. in a single phase
D. in the form of air and water mixture
E. gas and no air.
Answer: C

196. Gas turbine cycle with regenerator
A. increases thermal efficiency
B. allows high compression ratio
C. decreases heat loss is exhaust
D. allows operation at very high altitudes
E. permits high moisture content fuel to be used.
Answer: A

197. The compression ratio in a gas turbine is of the roder of
A. 3.5 : 1
B. 5 : 1
C. 8 : 1
D. 12 : 1
E. 20 : 1.
Answer: C

198. Reheating in multistage expansion gas turbine results in
A. high thermal efficiency
B. reduction in compressor work
C. decrease of heat loss in exhaust
D. maximum work output
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

199. The main purpose of reheating in gas turbine is to
A. increase temperature
B. reduce turbine size
C. increase power output
D. increase speed
E. increase pressure ratio.
Answer: C

200. Reheating in gas turbine results in
A. increase of work ratio
B. decrease of thermal efficiency
C. decrease of work ratio
D. both A. and B. above
E. both B. and C. above.
Answer: D

201. Work ratio of a gas turbine plant is ratio of
A. net work output and work done by turbine
B. net work output and heat supplied
C. work done by turbine and heat supplied
D. work done by turbine and net work output
E. actual/heat drop and isentropic heat drop.
Answer: A

202. Work ratio of a gas turbine may be improved by f
A. decreasing the compression work
B. increasing the compression work
C. increasing the turbine work
D. decreasing the turbine work
E. A. and C. above.
Answer: e

203. Maximum temprature in a gas turbine is of the order of COMPRESSORS, GAS TURBINES AND JET ENGINES
A. 2500°C
B. 2000°C
C. 1500°C
D. 1000°C
E. 700°C.
Answer: e

215. In the aircraft propellers
A. the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
B. propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body
C. its functioning does not depend on presence of air
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D

216. In air breathing jet engine, the jet is formed by expading
A. gases
B. solids
C. liquid
D. plasma
E. highly heated atmospheric air.
Answer: e

217. Ram-jet engine
A. is self-operating at zero flight speed
B. is not self-operating at zero^flight speed
C. requires no air for its operation
D. produces a jet consisting of plasma
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

218. For speed above 3000 km/hour, it is more advantageous to use
A. turbo-jet engine
B. ram-jet engine
C. propellers
D. rockets
E. hydraulic jet propulsion.
Answer: B

219. A simple turbo-jet engine is basically
A. a propeller system
B. gas-turbine engine equipped with a propulsive nozzle and diffuse*
C. chemical rocket regine
D. ram-jet enigne
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

220. Which of the following plants is smallest and lightest for genrating a given amount of power
A. steam power plant
B. petrol engine
C. diesel engine’
D. solar plant
E. gas turbine plant.
Answer: e

221. In turbo fan engine, the jet velocity as compared to turbo-jet engine is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. may be less or more depening upon speed
E. none of the above.
Answer: A

222. Turbofan engine employs
A. one air stream
B. two or more air streams
C. no air stream
D. solid fuel firing
E. rocket principle for its operation.
Answer: B

223. Pressure ratio in gas turbines is the ratio of
A. compressor pressure ratio
B. highest pressure to exhaust pressure
C. inlet pressure to exhaust pressure
D. pressures across the turbine
E. none of the above.
Answer: B

224. Pick up the false statement
A. gas turbine is a self-starting unit
B. gas turbine does not require huge quantity of water like steam plant
C. exhaust losses in gas turbine are high due to large mass flow rate
D. overall efficiency of gas turbine plant is lower than that of a reciprocating engine
E. gas turbine can be easily started and stopped and thus is best suited for peaking demands.
Answer: A

22 The efficiency and work ratio of a gas turbine plant can be increased by
A. using mulit-stage compressor with mfercooler
B. adding heat exchanger
C. injecting water in/around combustion chamber
D. reheating the air after partial expansion in the turbine
E. all of the above.
Answer: e

226. Pick up the correct statement
A. closed cycle gas turbine is an I.C engine
B. gas turbine uses same working fluid over and over again
C. air-fuel ratio in a gas turbine is 100 : 1
D. ideal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine plant is more than carnot cycle efficiency
E. thrust in turbo-jet is produced by nozzle exit gases.
Answer: e

227. The compression ratio in a jet engine varies proportional to
A. speed
B. speed
C. altitude
D. Vspeed
E. does not Vary.
Answer: B

228. The efficiency of jet engine is
A. higher at ground
B. higher at high altitudes
C. same at all altitudes
D. higher at high speed
E. lower at low speed.
Answer: B

Compressors, Gas Turbines and Jet Engines objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test

[PDF Notes] Why Protection Method is Important in Economy Policy?

Protection is used as method (a) to influence a country’s relations with other countries and (b) to influence the domestic economy. International objectives of protection include improving terms of trade and achieving favourable balance of payments.

Domestic objectives include industrialisation, diversification of industries, increasing employment, removing domestic distortions, increasing government revenue and other non-economic objectives.

It should be noted that protection is only the second-best method of dealing with domestic objectives. While dealing with the domestic objectives, the following implications of protection are to be kept in mind.

(i) Protection is not possibly the first-best method to achieve the domestic objectives. It is necessarily the second-best policy because it not only helps correcting distortions in the domestic economy, but also introduces distortion of its own (i.e., a consumption cost).

The first-best method is that which directly deals with the domestic objectives and does not have undesirable side effects of protection. Thus, protection is inferior to a more direct method; tariffs and quotas which protect the industries are inferior to subsidies which promote industries.

(ii) In practice, however, the second-best policy of protection is preferred to the direct measures due to political and administrative considerations.

(iii) While imposing a protective tariff, the additional distortions which this tariff introduces must be weighed against the distortions corrected by it.

(iv) A small tariff is better than free trade because gains due to correcting the distortions are larger than the additional distortion in the form of consumption.

(v) A moderate-to-large tariff may be either better or worse than no tariff at all.