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PHYSICIAN Online Test and Answers Pdf Download :-
These are very useful & Most Asked Questions in your certification Exam. Read all Online Mock Test Exam Question Bank for Beginners Freshers & Experienced.
1.Which Diagnosis and treating abnormalities, diseases, and disorders of the heart.
A. CORRECT: Cardiology
B. Urology
C. Nephrology
D. Radiology
2.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating tumors and cancer.
A. Gynecology
B. Urology
C. CORRECT: Oncology
D. Radiology
3.Which is Similiar to general practice in nature, but centering around the family unit.
A. Geriatrics
B. Pediatrics
C. CORRECT: Family Practice
D. Obstetrics
4.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating conditions of altered immunologic reactivity ?
A. CORRECT: Allergy
B. Urology
C. Radiology
D. Oncology
5.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the female reproductive tract; strong emphasis on preventive measures.
A. Urology
B. Neurology
C. Oncology
D. CORRECT: Gynecology
6.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the central nervous system.
A. Nephrology
B. Urology
C. CORRECT: Neurology
D. Gynecology
7.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating disorders and diseases of the ear, nose, and throat.
A. CORRECT: Otorhinolaryngology
B. Endocrinology
C. Radiology
D. Ophthalmology
8.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the kidney.
A. Oncology
B. Urology
C. CORRECT: Nephrology
D. Neurology
9.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders with Roentgen rays (x-rays) and other forms of radiant energy.
A. Urology
B. Neurology
C. Cardiology
D. CORRECT: Radiology
10.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating disorders of the skin.
A. Radiology
B. Cardiology
C. Neurology
D. CORRECT: Dermatology
11.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the stomach and intestines.
A. Nephrology
B. Dermatology
C. CORRECT: Gastroenterology
D. Gynecology
12.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating disorders and diseases of the bones, muscles, ligaments, and tendons and fractures of the bones.
A. Pediatrics
B. Geriatrics
C. CORRECT: Orthopedics
D. Obstetrics
13.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the eye.
A. CORRECT: Ophthalmology
B. Oncology
C. Radiology
D. Dermatology
14.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating pronounced manifestations of emotional problems or mental illness that may have an organic causative factor.
A. CORRECT: Psychiatry
B. Oncology
C. Pediatrics
D. Geriatrics
15.Providing direct care to women during pregnancy, childbirth, immediately is called_________?
A. Pediatrics
B. CORRECT: Obstetrics
C. Geriatrics
D. Orthopedics
16.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the internal organs.
A. Geriatrics
B. CORRECT: Internal Medicine
C. Pediatrics
D. Orthopedics
17.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the urinary system of females and genitourinary system of males.
A. CORRECT: Urology
B. Neurology
C. Oncology
D. Radiology
18.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of children; strong emphasis on preventive measures.
A. Psychiatry
B. Geriatrics
C. Obstetrics
D. CORRECT: Pediatrics
19.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and malfunctions of the glands of internal secretion.
A. CORRECT: Endocrinology
B. Nephrology
C. Radiology
D. Oncology
20.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases, disorders, and problems associated with aging.?
A. CORRECT: Geriatrics
B. Dermatology
C. Obstetrics
D. Pediatrics
21.Which is a designation placed on a patient’s medical record indicating that in the case of cessation of circulation and breathing, artificial resuscitation is not to be done?
A. Durable Power of Attorney
B. CORRECT: DNR (do not resuscitate)
C. Advanced Directives
D. Prognosis
22.withdrawing medical care from a patient without providing sufficient notice to the patient is called_______?
A. Agent
B. Consent
C. CORRECT: Abandonment
D. AIDS
Ans C:
23.What is called when a legal agreement that allows an agent or representative of the patient to act on behalf of the patient?
A. Advanced Directives
B. DNR (do not resuscitate)
C. CORRECT: Durable Power of Attorney
D. Parens Patiae Authority
24.What is the virus that causes the immune system to break down and can eventually result in the disease AIDS?
A. Privileged Communication
B. Advanced Directives
C. AMA (against medical advice)
D. CORRECT: HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)
25.What is the prediction for the cause of a disease?
A. CORRECT: Prognosis
B. Minor
C. Proxy
D. Consent
26.a person assigned by a court to stand in place of the parents and possess their legal rights and responsibilities toward the child is called_______?
A. CORRECT: In Loco Parentis
B. Implied Consent
C. Advanced Directives
D. Consent
27.What is the various methods by which a patient has the right to self-determination prior to a medical necessity; includes living wills, health care proxies, and durable power of attorney?
A. Abandonment
B. Living Will
C. In Loco Parentis
D. CORRECT: Advanced Directives
28.What occurs when the state takes responsibility from the parents for the care and custody of minors under thee age of 18?
A. CORRECT: Parens Patiae Authority
B. Durable Power of Attorney
C. In Loco Parentis
D. Proxy
29.What is the consent granted by a person after the patient has received knowledge and understanding of potential risks and benefits?
A. Consent
B. Advanced Directives
C. CORRECT: Informed (expressed) Consent
D. Implied Consent
30.a legal document in which a person states that life-sustaining treatments and nutritional support should not be used to prolong life; a type of advance directive is called________?
A. AIDS
B. Minor
C. Prognosis
D. CORRECT: Living Will
31.Which is an agreement that is made through inference by signs, inaction, or silence?
A. Consent
B. Abandonment
C. In Loco Parentis
D. CORRECT: Implied Consent
32.What is called when a non compliant patient leaves a hospital without physician’s permission ?
A. Parens Patiae Authority
B. DNR (do not resuscitate)
C. Advanced Directives
D. CORRECT: AMA (against medical advice)
33.Who is a person authorized to act on behalf of a patient?
A. Consent
B. Minor
C. AIDS
D. CORRECT: Agent
34.What is a disease resulting in infections that occur as a result of exposure to the human immunodeficiency virus, which causes the immune system to break down?
A. Agent
B. Proxy
C. CORRECT: AIDS
D. Minor
35.A person who acts on behalf of another person?
A. AIDS
B. CORRECT: Proxy
C. Minor
D. Agent
Answer:B
36.What is the name of the act when a state statute allowing persons 18 years of age and of sound mind to make a gift of any or all body parts for purposes of organ transplantation or medical research?
A. Parens Patiae Authority
B. CORRECT: Uniform Analytical Gift Act
C. DNR (do not resuscitate)
D. Implied Consent
37.The voluntary agreement that a patient gives to allow a medically trained person the permission to touch, examine, and perform a treatment is called_________?
A. Abandonment
B. CORRECT: Consent
C. AIDS
D. Agent
38.Which provides confidential information that has been told to a physician (or attorney) by the patient?
A. Advanced Directives
B. Implied Consent
C. In Loco Parentis
D. CORRECT: Privileged Communication
39. Who is mental health specialist?
A. oncologist
B. CORRECT: psychiatrist
C. podiatrist
D. pharmacist
40.who takes x-ray readings?
A. neurologist
B. CORRECT: radiologists
C. audiologist
D. oncologist
41.who is specialist in the male reproductive system?
A. neurologist
B. audiologist
C. oncologist
D. CORRECT: urologist
Answer:D
42.Who is specialist in the female reproductive system?
A. oncologist
B. neurologist
C. urologist
D. CORRECT: gynecologist
Answer:D
43.Who is specialist in baby and children’s health?
A. CORRECT: pediatrician
B. pharmacist
C. podiatrist
D. obstetrician
Answer:A
44.who deals with heart and blood vessels?
A. audiologist
B. urologist
C. radiologists
D. CORRECT: cardiology
45.Who is the specialist in the nerves and the central nervous center?
A. oncologist
B. audiologist
C. urologist
D. CORRECT: neurologist
46.Who is licensed to do most patient care but must be overseen by a MD or OD.
A. CORRECT: PA
B. MD
C. GP
D. OD
47.Who is cancer specialist?
A. CORRECT: oncologist
B. gynecologist
C. audiologist
D. urologist
48.who is specialist in digestive system, intestines, and colon?
A. neurologist
B. gynecologist
C. CORRECT: gastroenterologist
D. Anesthesiologist
49.Who specializes in skin ailments, skin cancers, etc.
A. urologist
B. neurologist
C. CORRECT: dermatologist
D. Oncologist
50.Who specializes in hearing and ear health?
A. CORRECT: audiologist
B. urologist
C. oncologist
D. radiologists
PHYSICIAN Objective type Questions with Answers
51.who puts patients to sleep or controls pain for surgery?
A. dermatologist
B. audiologist
C. CORRECT: anesthesiologist
D. Neurologist
52.Who is foot specialist?
A. pediatrician
B. CORRECT: podiatrist
C. psychiatrist
D. audiologist
53. who trained and licensed to treat people?
A. GP
B. OD
C. CORRECT: MD
D. PA
54.Who deals with pregnancy cases?
A. podiatrist
B. orthopedist
C. CORRECT: obstetrician
D. Pediatrician
56.Liquid portion of blood after blood cells and clotting elements form a clot; used for testing chemicals found in blood.
A. sputum
B. solutes
C. heparin
D. CORRECT: serum
Answer:D
57.Which certificate that allows a physician in the office laboratory to conduct both low-complexity and moderate-complexity tests.
A. order of draw
B. certificate of waiver
C. CORRECT: provider-performed microscopy (PPM) procedures
D. midstream clean-catch specimen
58.what is the process of identifying compatibility by determining proteins on the red blood cells of the donor and recipient.
A. CORRECT: crossmatching
B. urinalysis
D. compound
59.what is the order or manner in which blood collection tubes are to be drawn order or manner in which blood collection tubes are to be drawn.
A. compound
B. heparin
C. CORRECT: order of draw
D. Serology
60.Which is the test that study the body’s immune response by detecting antibodies in the serum.
A. serum
B. solutes
C. microbiology
D. CORRECT: serology
61.bacteria in the urine is called_________.
A. CORRECT: bacteriuria
B. heparin
C. serology
D. serum
62.federal agency that oversees financial regulations of Medicare and Medicaid is called____________.
A. QNS
B. CORRECT: Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
C. certificate of waiver
D. first morning specimen
63.blood collection tube in which the internal atmosphere is a vacuum allowing blood to flow into the tubes is called__________.
A. venipuncture
B. bacteriuria
C. CORRECT: evacuated tube
D. Sputum
64.Which is the narrow tube used for transferring liquids by suction.
A. sputum
B. heparin
C. plasma
D. CORRECT: pipette
Answer:D
65.What is the liquid portion of the blood.
A. CORRECT: plasma
B. sputum
C. solutes
D. serum
66.studies that evaluate the clotting process of blood.
A. evacuated tube
B. CORRECT: coagulation studies
C. reagents
D. solutes
67.insufficient amount of a specimen for performing the desired test.
A. CORRECT: quantity not sufficient (QNS)
B. coagulation studies
C. chain of evidence
D. urinalysis
68.urine specimen that requires a strict cleaning procedure and collection during the middle of voiding. (also called ccms) is called_________?
A. CORRECT: midstream clean-catch specimen
B. 24-hour urine specimen
C. crossmatching
D. first morning specimen
69.collection of urine over a 24-hour period to test for kidney infection, checking for high levels of creatinine, uric acid, hormones, electrolytes, and medication is called___________.
A. nosepiece
B. first morning specimen
C. CORRECT: 24-hour urine specimen
D. coagulation studies
Answer:C
70.which is a blood collection method using a winged infusion set.
A. bacteriuria
B. CORRECT: butterfly method
C. serology
D. syringe method
71.urine specimen taken when the patient first awakens; most concentrated specimen is called_________.
A. 24-hour urine specimen
B. midstream clean-catch specimen
C. syringe method
D. CORRECT: first morning specimen
72.test performed to study microorganisms.
A. serology
B. compound
C. bacteriuria
D. CORRECT: microbiology
74.puncture of a vein to obtain a venous blood sample is__________ .
A. pipette
B. CORRECT: venipuncture
C. sputum
D. reagents
75.which organization that conducts studies for ABO blood grouping and Rh typing.
A. CORRECT: blood bank
B. plasma
C. compound
D. nosepiece
76.what is called lung secretions produced by the bronchi.
A. serum
B. plasma
C. CORRECT: sputum
D. Solutes
77. Which certificate that allows a physician office laboratory to perform low-complexity testing.
A. CORRECT: certificate of waiver
B. coagulation studies
C. evacuated tube
D. chain of evidence
78.what are the solutions used when testing specimens in the laboratory.
A. heparin
B. pipette
C. solutes
D. CORRECT: reagents
79.Which blood collection method uses a syringe and sterile needle.
A. reagents
B. butterfly method
C. serum
D. CORRECT: syringe method
80.What is the part of the microscope that holds the objects.
A. sputum
B. CORRECT: nosepiece
C. solutes
D. serum
Answer:B
81.laboratory form showing the identification of a specimen and the laboratory test to be performedis _________________.
A. bacteriuria
B. butterfly method
C. coagulation studies
D. CORRECT: laboratory requisition
82.Which is the analysis of urine to include physical, chemical, and microscopic properties.
A. solutes
B. heparin
C. CORRECT: urinalysis
D. Reagents
Answer:C
83.What is the legislation enacted to ensure the quality of laboratory results by setting performance standards.
A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
B. CORRECT: Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA 88)
C. coagulation studies
D. laboratory requisition
Answer:B
84.which is the collection routine for a specimen used as evidence.
A. CORRECT: chain of evidence
B. nosepiece
C. order of draw
D. evacuated tube
85.materials suspended in liquid that are not dissolvable are __________.
A. sputum
B. pipette
C. serum
D. CORRECT: solutes
86.Which is having two sets of lens on a microscope.
A. heparin
B. nosepiece
C. solutes
D. CORRECT: compound
Answer:D
87.Which natural substance that prevents clotting; a vacuum tube additive that prevents clotting of the blood in the tube.?
A. pipette
B. serum
C. CORRECT: heparin
D. Sputum
88.a designation placed on a patients medical record indicating that in the case of cessation of circulation and breathing, artificial resuscitation is not to be done?
A. CORRECT: do not resuscitate
B. prognosis
C. advance directive
D. consent
89.which is used when patient who is noncompliant may discharge him or herself?
A. CORRECT: against medical advise
B. advance directive
C. do not resuscitate
D. informed consent
90.who promotes individual wellness & public health?
A. Emergency Medicine Specialist
B. Sports Medicine Specialist
C. Nuclear Medicine Specialist
D. CORRECT: Preventative Medicine Specialist
91.Who conducts laboratory studies of cells & tissues to aid in diagnosis?
A. Radiologist
B. Nephrologist
C. CORRECT: Pathologist
D. Cardiologist
92.Who specializes in lung & airway diseases such as asthma & emphysema?
A. Dermatologist
B. Pathologist
C. CORRECT: Pulmonologist
D. Oncologist
93.Who specializes in diagnosis & treatment of a broad range of common illnesses & injuries for patients of all ages?
A. Vascular Surgeon
B. Psychiatrics
C. CORRECT: Family Practitioner
D. Pediatrician
94.Who uses radioactive materials to diagnose & treat disease?
A. Emergency Medicine Specialist
B. Preventative Medicine Specialist
C. Sports Medicine Specialist
D. CORRECT: Nuclear Medicine Specialist
95.Who focuses on the health & disorders of the elderly?
A. Nuclear Medicine Specialist
B. Sports Medicine Specialist
C. Pediatrician
D. CORRECT: Geriatric Specialist
96.Who specializes in a broad range of illnesses & injuries in adults & the elderly, physicals, well visit, primary care physician?
A. Urologist
B. Oncologist
C. CORRECT: Internist
D. Pathologist
97.Who specializes in surgery involving joints, muscles, tendons, & ligaments?
A. Colon/Rectal Surgeon
B. Plastic Surgeon
C. CORRECT: Orthopedic Surgeon
D. Neurological Surgeon
98.Who specializes in diseases of joints & immune system, such as arthritis
A. CORRECT: Rheumatologist?
B. Dermatologist
C. Hematologist
D. Neurologist
100.Who treats injuries caused by athletic activities?
A. Emergency Medicine Specialist
B. Preventative Medicine Specialist
C. CORRECT: Sports Medicine Specialist
D. Nuclear Medicine Specialist
101.Who treats disorders of the nervous system including epilepsy & Parkinson’s disease, neuropathy, sciatica, back & leg pain, nerve damage?
A. Nephrologist
B. Urologist
C. Oncologist
D. CORRECT: Neurologist
102.Who specializes in diseases of the hormone-producing glands, including diabetes & thyroid disease?
A. Nephrologist
B. CORRECT: Endocrinologist
C. Neurologist
D. Oncologist
Answer:B
103.Who specializes in surgery of the chest, including lung & open heart surgery?
A. Colon/Rectal Surgeon
B. Vascular Surgeon
C. Orthopedic Surgeon
D. CORRECT: Thoracic Surgeon (Cardiac Surgeon)
Answer:D
104.Who specializes in disorders of the digestive system, including stomach, liver, gallbladder and bowels?
A. Cardiologist
B. Oncologist
C. Pulmonologist
D. CORRECT: Gastroenterologist
Answer:D
105.Who specializes in diseases of the ear, nose, & throat?
A. Endocrinologist
B. CORRECT: Otolaryngologist
C. Pulmonologist
D. Oncologist
106. specializes in skin diseases such as psoriasis, acne, & skin cancer
a. Rheumatologist
B. CORRECT: Dermatologist
c. Cardiologist
d. Hematologist
107. Who specializes in surgery of the veins & arteries
a. Plastic Surgeon
b. Orthopedic Surgeon
C. CORRECT: Vascular Surgeon
d. Neurological Surgeon
108. Who specializes in surgical treatment of brain, spinal cord & nerve disorders
a. Colon/Rectal Surgeon
b. Orthopedic Surgeon
c. Plastic Surgeon
D. CORRECT: Neurological Surgeon
109. Who treats victims & others in need of trauma care
a. Nuclear Medicine Specialist
B. CORRECT: Emergency Medicine Specialist
c. Preventative Medicine Specialist
d. Sports Medicine Specialist
110. Who specializes in kidney disease & high blood pressure
a. Hematologist
b. Neurologist
C. CORRECT: Nephrologist
d. Pathologist
111. Who treats patients with disabilities caused by stroke, injury or illness
a. Nuclear Medicine Specialist
b. Sports Medicine Specialist
c. Preventative Medicine Specialist
D. CORRECT: Physical Medicine & Rehabilitation Specialist
112. Who specializes in eye health, disorders & injuries
a. Dermatologist
B. CORRECT: Ophthalmologist
c. Pathologist
d. Hematologist
113. Which uses X-rays, ultrasound, MRI & other technologies to diagnose & treat problems
a. Pathologist
b. Urologist
c. Cardiologist
D. CORRECT: Radiologist
114. Who specializes in diagnosis & treatment of cancer & other tumors
a. Urologist
b. Pathologist
c. Radiologist
D. CORRECT: Oncologist
115. Who specializes in the care of infants, children, & teens
a. Radiologist
b. Psychiatrics
C. CORRECT: Pediatrician
d. Dermatologist
116. Who specializes in mental & emotional disorders
a. Internist
b. Pathologist
c. Pediatrician
D. CORRECT: Psychiatrics
117. Who specializes in keeping patients pain-free during medical procedures such as surgery
A. CORRECT: Anesthesiologist
b. Nephrologist
c. Ophthalmologist
d. Pathologist
118. Who specializes in colon/rectal surgery for conditions such as cancer, colitis, & hemorrhoids. AKA Proctologist
a. Plastic Surgeon
B. CORRECT: Colon/Rectal Surgeon
c. Orthopedic Surgeon
d. Neurological Surgeon
119. Which seaweed extract used to make certain media solid for bacterial cultures.
a. HDL
B. CORRECT: agar
c. EDTA
d. C&S
120. What is the test to determine which antibiotic is most effective against cultured organisms.
a. agar
B. CORRECT: C&S
c. crenated
d. EDTA
121. What is the formation of notches on the edges of red blood cells.
a. hemolyzed
b. agar
C. CORRECT: crenated
d. EDTA
122. What is the test measuring a patient’s ability to metabolize food 2 hours after a meal.
a. crenated
B. CORRECT: 2-hour postprandial test
c. renal epithelial cells
d. chemistry profile
123. what is the method to measure ESR using a self-zeroing tube calibrated from 0 to 100.
a. hemolyzed
b. crenated
C. CORRECT: Westergren method
d. reagent strip
124. what are the common casts found in urine that are pale and transparent; appear in unchecked hypertension.
a. hemolyzed
b. reagent strip
c. HDL
D. CORRECT: hyaline casts
125. Which epithelial cells are released by the kidney indicating disease.
a. hyaline casts
b. total cholesterol
C. CORRECT: renal epithelial cells
d. reagent strip
126. which red blood cells are colorless and cannot be seen under magnification.
A. CORRECT: hemolyzed
b. EDTA
c. HDL
d. Crenated
127. blood test that details the chemical composition of the blood. Is called__________
A. CORRECT: chemistry profile
b. reagent strip
c. urochrome
d. hemolyzed
128. what is the combined measurement of LDL and HDL cholesterol.
a. hyaline casts
b. serum cholesterol
c. reagent strip
D. CORRECT: total cholesterol
129. white, fatlike substance made in the liver is ___________.
a. total cholesterol
b. reagent strip
C. CORRECT: serum cholesterol
d. Hemolyzed
130. What is the equipment that uses light photometry to analyze a reagent test strip.
a. total cholesterol
b. hyaline casts
C. CORRECT: automated urine analyzer
d. Crenated
131. yellow pigment derived from urobilin that is left over when hemoglobin breaks down during red blood cell destruction is __________.
a. HDL
b. crenated
c. agar
D. CORRECT: urochrome
132. chemical pad on a dipstick that tests for the presence of sugar is called_________.
a. reagent strip
b. crenated
C. CORRECT: glucose reagent strip
d. hyaline casts
133. Dipstick containing several chemical pads that detects a specific substance in a body fluid is_________.
a. glucose reagent strip
b. hyaline casts
c. myoglobinuria
D. CORRECT: reagent strip
134. Which anticoagulant is used for preserving blood for hematology studies.
a. agar
B. CORRECT: EDTA
c. HDL
d. Crenated
135. globin from damaged muscle cells in the urine is ____________.
A. CORRECT: myoglobinuria
b. reagent strip
c. agar
d. hyaline casts
136. which medical care based on the latest and most accurate clincial research
A. CORRECT: Evidence-based medicine
b. Electronic prescribing
c. Computer-assisted coding
d. Walkout statement
e.
137. assigning preliminary diagnosis and procedure codes using computer software is ____________
a. Autoposting
b. Evidence-based medicine
C. CORRECT: Computer-assisted coding
d. Electronic prescribing
138. Which automated processes used to protect data and control access to data
A. CORRECT: Technical safeguards
b. Physical safeguards
c. Administrative safeguards
d. Audit trail
139. Which policies and procedures designed to protect electronic health information outlined by the HIPAA security rule
a. Technical safeguards
B. CORRECT: Administrative safeguards
c. Audit/edit report
d. Physical safeguards
140. Which provides the electronic routing of funds between banks
a. Electronic data interchange (EDI)
b. Electronic medical records (EMRs)
C. CORRECT: Electronic funds transfer (EFT)
d. Electronic prescribing
141. A triangular muscle that covers the shoulder is __________.
a. Allergy
b. Diluent
C. CORRECT: Deltoid
d. Distal
142. The site used for an intramuscular injection into the muscle of the outer thigh area is _________.
a. Aspirate
b. Intradermal
c. Gastroenterology
D. CORRECT: Vastus lateralis
143. A small glass container with a rubber stopper containing medications is _________.
a. Distal
b. Scalpel
C. CORRECT: Vial
d. Proximal
144. A hypersensitivity to a substance that does not normally cause a reaction is _________.
a. Diluent
b. Ampule
c. Gauge
D. CORRECT: Allergy
145. The term describing the administration of an injectable medication by placing it into the superficial layer, or dermis, of the skin is ____________.
A. CORRECT: Intradermal
b. Intramuscular
c. Distal
d. Proximal
146. What is used to determine the accuracy of a machine or piece of equipment.
a. Allergy
b. Gauge
C. CORRECT: Calibrate
d. Aspirate
147. A small portable machine to measure blood sugar is__________.
a. Gauge
B. CORRECT: Glucometer
c. Purulent
d. Allergy
148. The process of bringing two edges, as in a wound, closer together is ______.
A. CORRECT: Approximation
b. Glucometer
c. Proximal
d. Aspirate
149. A small glass container that can be sealed with its contents sterilized.
A. CORRECT: Ampule
b. Gauge
c. Purulent
d. Vial
150. Which Deals with disorders of the stomach and intestines.
A. CORRECT: Gastroenterology
b. Allergy
c. Dermatology
d. Vastus lateralis
151. Drainage from a wound or body part that contains pus.
a. Gauge
b. Diluent
C. CORRECT: Purulent
d. Ampule
152. The point farthest from a medical line, or the center, of a body or a body part. When applied to the location of teeth, the surface of the tooth farthest away from the midline is _________. (missing sentence)
a. Vial
b. Deltoid
C. CORRECT: Distal
d. Diluent
153. Which is used to draw liquid in or out by using suction.
A. CORRECT: Aspirate
b. Allergy
c. Ampule
d. Calibrate
154. Thread or wire material used to surgically close an open wound is ___________.
a. Intradermal
B. CORRECT: Suture Material or Sutures
c. Subcutaneous
d. Vastus lateralis
155. The study of the skin and accessory structures and related diseases is ____________.
a. Allergy
B. CORRECT: Dermatology
c. Distal
d. Deltoid
156. A liquid agent added to medication in a solid or powder form for administration by injection is _________.
a. Deltoid
b. Purulent
c. Distal
D. CORRECT: Diluent
157. The point closest to a medical line, or the center, of a body or body part is _______.
a. Vial
B. CORRECT: Proximal
c. Approximation
d. Distal
158. The term used to identify the site used for an intramuscular injection into the gluteus medius muscle is _________.
A. CORRECT: Dorsogluteal
b. Proximal
c. Distal
d. Diluent
159. A sharp surgical instrument used for cutting and dissecting tissue is__________
a. Vial
B. CORRECT: Scalpel
c. Gauge
d. Ampule
160. Photoreceptors that respond to dim light and are responsible for black and white color is called_____
A. CORRECT: Rods
b. Otic
c. Miosis
d. Cones
161. Loss of transparency of the lens of the eye is ________
a. Rods
b. Cornea
c. Otic
D. CORRECT: Cataract
162. 1 inch segment of tube that runs from the external ear to the middle ear is_______
a. Cataract
b. Auditory occicles
C. CORRECT: Auditory canal
d. Accomodation
163. Which of the following is Pertaining to the eye
a. Otic
b. mydriasis
c. Cataract
D. CORRECT: Ophthalmic
164. The change that occurs in the ocular lens when it focusses at various distances is ______
A. CORRECT: Accomodation
b. Otic
c. Cornea
d. Cataract
165. Contraction of the pupil is called_________
a. Cones
B. CORRECT: Miosis
c. Otic
d. Myopia
166. Photoreceptors responsible for color is___________
A. CORRECT: Cones
b. Cornea
c. Miosis
d. Rods
167. Which of the following is Pertaining to the ear
a. Miosis
B. CORRECT: Otic
c. Cones
d. Myopia
168. A bony maze composed of the vestibule, cochlea, and sicirclar canals of the inner ear
A. CORRECT: Labryinth
b. Cornea
c. Cataract
d. Rods
169. The transparent tissue covering the anterior portion of the eye is________
a. Cones
b. Rods
c. Otic
D. CORRECT: Cornea
170. A memranous skin that separates the external ear from the middle ear is________
a. Acoustic nerve
b. Cornea
C. CORRECT: Tympanic membrane
d. Myopia
171. The fluid that is found in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye is __________
a. Accomodation
b. Rods
C. CORRECT: Aqueous humor
d. Miosis
172. What is called the process of dilation?
A. CORRECT: mydriasis
b. Rods
c. Miosis
d. Myopia
173. Atubular structure within the middle ear that runs to the nasopharynx
a. Cataract
b. Ophthalmic
C. CORRECT: Eustachian tube
d. Acoustic nerve
174. The set of small bony structures in the ear is
a. Miosis
b. Auditory canal
c. mydriasis
D. CORRECT: Auditory occicles