200+ TOP SURGERY Online Quiz Questions – Exam Test

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These are very useful & Most Asked Questions in your certification Exam. Read all Online Mock Test Exam Question Bank for Beginners Freshers & Experienced.

1. Which is not true of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?
A. Closed chest massage is as effective as open chest massage.
B. The success rate for out-of-hospital resuscitation may be as high as 30% to 60%.
C. The most common cause of sudden death is ischemic heart disease.
D. Standard chest massage generally provides less than 15% of normal coronary and cerebral blood flow.

Answer: A

2. Which maneuver generally is not performed early before chest compression in basic life support outside the hospital?
A. Call for help.
B. Obtain airway.
C. Electrical cardioversion.
D. Ventilation.
Answer: C

3. Which treatment would be least effective for asystole?
A. External pacemaker.
B. Intravenous epinephrine, 10 ml. of 1:10,000.
C. Intravenous calcium gluconate, 10 ml. of 10% solution.
D. Intravenous atropine, 0.5 mg.

Answer: C

4. The most important factor that influences the outcome of penetrating cardiac injuries is:
A. Comminuted tear of a single chamber.
B. Multiple-chamber injuries.
C. Coronary artery injury.
D. Tangential injuries.

Answer: C

5. The most useful incision in the operating room for patients with penetrating cardiac injury is:
A. Left anterior thoracotomy.
B. Right anterior thoracotomy.
C. Bilateral anterior thoracotomy.
D. Median sternotomy.
E. Subxyphoid.

Answer: D

6. In patients who present with a penetrating chest injury, injury to the heart is most likely when the following physical sign(s) is/are present:
A. Hypotension.
B. Distended neck veins.
C. Decreased heart sound.
D. All of the above.

Answer: D

7. Which of the following would be an acceptable method of repair for a neonate with symptomatic isolated coarctation of the aorta?
A. Resection with end-to-end anastomosis.
B. Prosthetic patch aortoplasty.
C. Subclavian flap aortoplasty.
D. Prosthetic tube graft repair.

Answer: AC

8. Which of the following constitutes a true vascular ring?
A. Pulmonary artery sling.
B. Double aortic arch.
C. Anomalous origin of right subclavian artery from the descending aorta.
D. Cervical aortic arch.

Answer: B

9. Which of the following may be physical examination findings in a young adult with coarctation of the aorta?
A. Posterior systolic murmur between the scapulas.
B. Diminished femoral pulses.
C. Elevated blood pressure in left arm as compared with right arm.
D. Peripheral cyanosis.

Answer: A, B, C

10. In a premature infant with hyaline membrane disease and inability to be weaned from mechanical ventilation, which of the following would suggest hemodynamically significant patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?
A. Continuous murmur.
B. Hyperactive precordium with bounding peripheral pulses.
C. Jaundice.
D. Diminished femoral pulses.

Answer: A,B

11. In an infant with suspected PDA, which of the following would be the optimal method of confirming the agnosis?
A. Chest film.
B. Cardiac catheterization.
C. Retrograde aortography via an umbilical artery catheter.
D. Two-dimensional echocardiography with continuous-wave and color-flow Doppler echocardiography.

Answer: D

12. Which of the following are potential complications of untreated coarctation of the aorta?
A. Endocarditis.
B. Pulmonary vascular disease.
C. Cerebrovascular accident.
D. Congestive heart failure.

Answer: ACD

13. The atrial septal defect (ASD) most commonly associated with partial anomalous pulmonary venous return (PAPVR) is:
A. Secundum defect.
B. Sinus venosus defect.
C. Ostium primum defect.
D. Complete atrioventricular (AV) canal defect.
E. Coronary sinus defect.

Answer: B

14. The direction of an intracardiac shunt at the atrial level is controlled by:
A. The size of the defect
B. The compliance of the right and left ventricles.
C. The systemic oxygen saturation.
D. Right atrial pressure.
E. The presence or absence of an associated ventricular septal defect (VSD).

Answer: B

15. The ASD most commonly associated with mitral insufficiency is:
A. Secundum defect
B. Sinus venosus defect
C. Ostium primum defect.
D. Coronary sinus defect.

Answer: C

16. An electrocardiogram (ECG) in a patient with a systolic ejection murmur that shows an incomplete bundle branch block in the precordial lead is most consistent with:
A. A secundum ASD.
B. A sinus venosus ASD with PAPVR.
C. An ostium primum ASD.
D. A complete AV canal defect.

Answer: A

17. ASDs can all be closed with a pericardial or prosthetic patch. Which of the following ASDs can also be safely closed primarily without the use of a patch?
A. Secundum ASD.
B. Sinus venosus ASD with PAPVR.
C. An ostium primum ASD.
D. A complete AV canal defect.

Answer: A

18. Obstruction to pulmonary venous return is associated with which of the following anomalies?
A. Partial anomalous pulmonary venous connection (PAPVC) to the superior vena cava.
B. Infracardiac (Type III) total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC).
C. Pulmonary vein stenosis.
D. Cor triatriatum.
E. Supracardiac (Type I) TAPVC.

Answer: BCDE

19. Postoperative complications associated with repair of TAPVC include:
A. Complete heart block.
B. Acute pulmonary hypertensive crisis.
C. Pleural effusions.
D. Pulmonary venous obstruction.

Answer: BD

20. Which of the following statements about VSDs is/are correct?
A. Perimembranous lesions are located in the region of the membranous portion of the interventricular septum near the anteroseptal commissure of the tricuspid valve.
B. Muscular VSDs are holes in the interventricular septum that are bordered by muscle on three sides and by the pulmonary and the aortic valve annulus superiorly.
C. VSD, in its isolated form, is the most commonly recognized congenital heart defect.
D. The conduction bundle runs along the posteroinferior rim of a perimembranous VSD.

Answer: ACD

21. Which of the following statements about VSDs is/are true?
A. When coarctation of the aorta is associated with VSD, it most commonly occurs in infants with large lesions who have to undergo repair before age 3 months.
B. In some patients with VSD, aortic valve incompetence develops over time and progresses.
C. In the United States doubly committed or juxta-arterial VSDs are most commonly associated with aortic insufficiency.
D. PDA is present in approximately one fourth of infants with a VSD and concomitant congestive heart failure.

Answer: ABD

22. Which of the following statements about VSD is/are correct?
A. A large VSD is approximately the size of the pulmonary valve orifice or larger.
B. Large VSDs associated with high pulmonary blood flow result in an enlarged left atrium on chest x-ray.
C. Patients with small (restrictive) VSDs tend to have normal right ventricular and pulmonary arterial pressures with normal pulmonary vascular resistance and no evidence of pulmonary vascular disease.
D. A pulmonary vascular resistance greater than 10 to 12 units per sq. m. is considered a contraindication to operation.

Answer: BCD

23. Which of the following statements about VSDs is/are correct?
A. Spontaneous closure of VSDs occurs in 25% to 50% of patients during childhood.
B. Tachypnea and failure to thrive are symptoms frequently associated with large VSDs.
C. Patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance and left-to-right shunting across the VSD have Eisenmenger’s complex.
D. Patients with a large VSD and low pulmonary vascular resistance can present with a middiastolic murmur at the apex.

Answer: ABD

24. Which of the following is/are true of the surgical treatment of VSDs?
A. A right ventricular approach is employed for the repair of most perimembranous VSDs.
B. Intracardiac repair is advisable for patients with intractable symptoms and for asymptomatic infants with evidence of increasing pulmonary vascular resistance.
C. Complete heart block is a common complication.
D. Hospital mortality after repair of VSD in infants approaches 20%.

Answer: B

25. Tetralogy of Fallot consists of all of the following features except:
A. ASD.
B. VSD.
C. Dextroposition of the aorta.
D. Pulmonary stenosis.
E. Right ventricular hypertrophy.

Answer: A

26. Which of the following has the greatest impact on the physiology of tetralogy of Fallot?
A. The size of the ASD.
B. The size of the VSD.
C. The degree of pulmonary stenosis.
D. The amount of aortic overriding.
Answer: C

27. Which of the following anomalies is not associated with tetralogy of Fallot?
A. Absence of the left pulmonary artery.
B. A right aortic arch.
C. A retroesophageal subclavian artery.
D. Anomalous origin of the left anterior descending coronary artery from the right coronary artery.
E. Primary pulmonary hypertension.
Answer: E

28. Surgical treatment of a patient with tetralogy of Fallot can include any of the following except:
A. Maintenance of ductal patency with prostaglandins (PGE 1) to provide pulmonary blood flow while the baby is transferred to an institution equipped to provide more definitive therapy.
B. Banding of the pulmonary artery in an acyanotic patient with tetralogy of Fallot to control pulmonary blood flow and prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension.
C. Placement of a subclavian-to-pulmonary artery shunt on the side opposite the aortic arch in a 3-day-old infant with severe cyanosis.
D. Closure of the VSD and transannular patching of the right ventricle onto the main pulmonary artery in a 2-day-old infant.
Answer: B

29. The predominant determinant of outcome for patients with pulmonary atresia and an intact ventricular septum revolves around:
A. The size of the ASD.
B. The baby’s age at presentation.
C. The size of the right ventricular cavity and tricuspid valve.
D. The presence of a tricuspid—as opposed to a bicuspid—pulmonary valve.
E. The level of hypoxemia at presentation.
Answer: C

30. Which of the following statements about double-outlet right ventricle are true?
A. A VSD is usually present.
B. In the Taussig-Bing type of double-outlet right ventricle, the VSD is usually noncommitted.
C. Patients with double-outlet right ventricle and a subaortic VSD usually have pulmonary stenosis.
D. Patients with double-outlet right ventricle with a subpulmonary VSD (Taussig-Bing malformation) tend to mimic patients with transposition of the great arteries and VSD in their presentation and natural history.
Answer: ACD

31. Which of the following statements about the surgical repair of double-outlet right ventricle are true?
A. In double-outlet right ventricle with a subaortic or doubly committed VSD, a tunnel-type repair connecting a committed VSD with its respective great artery is usually employed.
B. Repair of the Taussig-Bing malformation can be accomplished using an intraventricular tunnel technique or by performing a straight patch closure of the VSD combined with an arterial switch procedure.
C. The hospital mortality rate is highest when a subaortic VSD is present.
D. Some hearts with double-outlet right ventricle and a noncommitted VSD must be repaired using a modification of the Fontan procedure.
Answer: ABD

32. Management of a patient with tricuspid atresia within the first month of life may include:
A. Creation of a systemic artery–to–pulmonary artery shunt.
B. Observation.
C. Creation of a bidirectional superior cavopulmonary anastomosis.
D. Pulmonary artery banding.
E. Fontan procedure.
Answer: ABD

33. Which of the following should contraindicate performance of the Fontan procedure?
A. Patient age of 25 years.
B. Severe mitral insufficiency.
C. Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure of 18 mm. Hg.
D. Right pulmonary artery stenosis.
E. Pulmonary vascular resistance of 6 Woods units.
Answer: CE

34. Initial management of a newborn infant with hypoplastic left heart syndrome should include:
A. Intravenous administration of PGE 1.
B. Supplemental oxygen.
C. Routine intubation and mechanical ventilation to achieve a PCO 2 between 30 and 35 mm. Hg.
D. Cardiac catheterization and balloon atrial septostomy.
Answer: A

35. The performance of a bidirectional superior cavopulmonary (Glenn) anastomosis as the second stage in the reconstructive approach to hypoplastic left heart syndrome:
A. Provides early relief of volume load on the single right ventricle.
B. Increases peripheral oxygen saturations to greater than 90%.
C. Permits concomitant repair of pulmonary artery or aortic arch stenoses.
D. Improves mortality and morbidity of subsequent Fontan procedure.
Answer: ACD

36. Which of the following statements about truncus arteriosus are true?
A. Most infants survive without operations until late childhood.
B. Most infants present with cyanosis.
C. Most infants present with congestive heart failure.
D. Repair requires a conduit from right ventricle to pulmonary arteries.
Answer: BCD

37. Truncus arteriosus is a diagnosis with anatomic components including:
A. VSD.
B. Abnormal origin of pulmonary arteries.
C. Subaortic stenosis.
D. Single ventricular outflow valve.
Answer: ABD

38. Optimal treatment for the neonate who presents with transposition of the great arteries {S,D,D}* and intact ventricular septum includes:
A. PGE 1 infusion to maintain duct patency.
B. Administration of intravenous fluid to increase intravascular volume.
C. Hyperventilation to decrease pulmonary resistance.
D. Oxygen administration to increase arterial oxygen tension.
E. Atrial balloon septostomy to improve atrial mixing.
Answer: ABE

39. Factors that preclude the use of a single-stage arterial switch reconstruction of dextrotransposition of the great vessels include:
A. Age older than 6 weeks with a left ventricular pressure of less than 50% of systemic pressure.
B. Dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction.
C. Intramural coronary artery anatomy.
D. Valvar pulmonic stenosis.
E. Subpulmonary VSD.
Answer: AD

40. Complications commonly associated with the atrial (Senning and Mustard) repairs of transposition of the great arteries include:
A. Atrial arrhythmias.
B. Systemic or pulmonary venous obstruction.
C. Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction.
D. Systemic ventricular failure.
E. Progressive elevation of pulmonary vascular resistance.
Answer: ABD

41. Critical aortic stenosis in the neonate is characterized by which of the following?
A. It is most often due to commissural fusion of a trileaflet valve.
B. It may be associated with coarctation of the aorta, PDA, and mitral stenosis.
C. It can be managed medically until the child is large enough to undergo aortic valve replacement.
D. Success of valvotomy is determined by the adequacy of the left ventricle.
Answer: BD

42. Surgical management of aortic valve disease in an older child may include:
A. Enlargement of the aortic annulus.
B. Incision of fused commissures.
C. Insertion of a porcine valve prosthesis.
D. Transfer of the pulmonary valve to the aortic position.
Answer: ABD

43. Which of the following statements about subvalvular aortic stenosis are true?
A. Most patients present in early infancy with severe congestive heart failure.
B. An ejection click is a specific physical sign of subaortic stenosis.
C. The subaortic membrane is approached surgically via the aorta and aortic valve.
D. A concomitant septal myectomy decreases the incidence of recurrent subaortic stenosis.
Answer: CD

44. Management of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy may include:
A. Propranolol and verapamil.
B. Aortic valve replacement.
C. Dual-chamber sequential pacing.
D. Combined septal myectomy and mitral valve plication.
Answer: ACD

45. Which of the following statements about supravalvular aortic stenosis are true?
A. Surgical repair is indicated only when the systolic gradient exceeds 75 mm. Hg.
B. Simple excision of the supravalvular membrane results in satisfactory relief of the stenosis in most patients.
C. The diffuse form of supravalvular aortic stenosis may cause obstruction to branches of the aortic arch.
D. Reoperation after repair of discrete supravalvular aortic stenosis is rare unless abnormalities of the valve itself also exist.
Answer: CD

46. Each year the approximate number of Americans who die from complications of coronary artery disease is:
A. 100,000.
B. 250,000.
C. 500,000.
D. 1,000,000.
E. Over 2,000,000.
Answer: C

47. Which of the following arteries is most likely to be involved with serious atherosclerosis?
A. The right coronary artery.
B. The left coronary artery.
C. The anterior descending coronary artery.
D. The circumflex coronary artery.
Answer: C

48. Which of the following statements about collaterals in the normal coronary circulation is true?
A. There is a rich and quite effective collateral circulation in the coronary arterial bed.
B. The coronary arterial bed has minimal effective collaterals.
C. The coronary arterial bed is an absolute example of anatomic end-arteries.
Answer: B

49. If blood entering the normal arterial circulation of the heart is 100% saturated with oxygen, oxygen saturation of blood in the coronary sinus can be expected to be approximately:
A. 75%.
B. 60%.
C. 50%.
D. 35%.
E. Less than 20%.
Answer: D

50. Coronary bypass procedures have been demonstrated to:
A. Reduce the incidence of myocardial infarction.
B. Significantly relieves angina symptoms.
C. Statistically improve the life span.
D. Improve the ejection fraction of the left ventricle in many patients in whom it is significantly depressed preoperatively.
Answer: ABCD

SURGERY Objective type Questions with Answers

51. The following patients are best treated with coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG):
A. A 60-year-old man with class II angina, 75% proximal right coronary artery lesion, and normal ventricular function.
B. A 60-year-old man with unstable angina, three-vessel disease, and an ejection fraction of 35%.
C. A 60-year-old nondiabetic man with class III angina symptoms and focal discrete lesions in the mid-right coronary artery and mid-left circumflex artery.
D. A 60-year-old man with diabetes, class IV angina, 75% proximal left anterior descending and 75% proximal right coronary artery obstruction, and left ventricular ejection fraction of 60%.
Answer: BD

52. Sternal wound infections that spread to the mediastinum are associated with a mortality rate of:
A. 60%.
B. 30%.
C. 25%.
D. Less than 15%.
Answer: D

53. Perioperative myocardial infarction occurs following coronary bypass procedures in approximately:
A. 15%.
B. 10%.
C. 7%.
D. Less than 5%.
Answer: D

54. Following acute myocardial infarction, ventricular septal defects occur in:
A. 20%.
B. 10%.
C. 15%
D. 2% or less.
Answer: D

55. Which of the following clinical characteristics is/are associated with a higher mortality after emergency CABG for failed PTCA?
A. Multivessel disease.
B. Rescue atherectomy.
C. Cardiogenic shock prior to CABG.
D. Previous bypass surgery.
E. All of the above.
Answer: ACD

56. Which statement(s) about operative mortality and perioperative incidence of myocardial infarction for elective CABG (X) versus emergency CABG following failed PTCA (Y) is/are accurate?
A. The operative mortality is higher for Y but the incidence of perioperative myocardial infarction is unchanged between X and Y.
B. The operative mortality is unchanged between X and Y but the perioperative incidence of myocardial infarction is higher in Y.
C. The operative mortality and perioperative incidence is higher in X than in Y.
D. The operative mortality and perioperative incidence of myocardial infarction are no different for X and for Y.
Answer: C

57. Which of the following statements about patients treated by placement of an internal mammary artery (IMA) bypass graft at primary CABG is/are correct?
A. The risk for morbidity and mortality from reoperative coronary bypass grafting is increased.
B. Left ventricular function is better preserved at the time of reoperation.
C. The risk of sternal wound complications is greatly increased if the contralateral IMA is harvested at the time of reoperation.
D. A light clamp should be applied to the IMA pedicle to limit cardiac warming during cardioplegic arrest at the time of reoperation.
E. A functional study demonstrating a large portion of myocardium at risk should be obtained before reoperation.
Answer: BDE

58. Considering the results of coronary reoperation in comparison to primary CABG, choose the incorrect statement:
A. Operative morbidity and mortality are increased over those for primary CABG.
B. Mortality most often stems from cardiac causes after reoperation.
C. Survival of patients after hospital discharge following coronary reoperation is nearly equivalent to survival after primary CABG.
D. Compared to primary CABG, return of anginal symptoms is delayed after reoperative CABG.
E. Myocardial protection and the risk of myocardial infarction in reoperation are complicated by increased noncoronary collaterals, patent atherosclerotic saphenous vein grafts, and more diffuse coronary atherosclerosis.
Answer: D

59. Which statements are correct comparisons of gated equilibrium and initial-transit radionuclide measurements of left ventricular function?
A. Gated equilibrium techniques provide more accurate measurements of ejection fraction than initial-transit methods.
B. Left ventricular imaging time for a gated equilibrium study is at least 10 times that of an initial-transit study.
C. Both techniques require the same radiopharmaceuticals.
D. Both techniques require a bolus injection.
Answer: B

60. The radionuclide variable that contains the greatest amount of prognostic information in patients with coronary artery disease is:
A. Exercise ejection fraction.
B. Change in regional wall motion from rest to exercise.
C. Maximal cardiac output during exercise.
D. Change in heart rate during exercise.
Answer: A

61. Which of the following statements about left ventricular aneurysm is/are correct?
A. Ventricular aneurysms are commonly associated with systemic arterial embolization.
B. Absent collateral circulation in an area of myocardium supplied by an acutely occluded artery favors aneurysm formation.
C. Posterobasal aneurysms are more common than those located in the anteroapical region.
D. Aneurysm repair can improve associated cardiac valve dysfunction.
E. Persistent ST segment elevation after acute myocardial infarction suggests aneurysm formation.
Answer: BDE

62. Which of the following factors does/do not increase early mortality associated with repair of left ventricular aneurysm?
A. Class IV cardiac status.
B. Size of aneurysm.
C. Presence of left main coronary disease.
D. Emergent operation.
E. Location of aneurysm.
Answer: BE

63. The most effective medical therapy in ameliorating the symptoms of Kawasaki’s disease and preventing the development of giant coronary artery aneurysms is administration of:
A. Antibiotics.
B. Antiviral agents.
C. Aspirin.
D. Gamma globulin.
E. Glucocorticoids.
Answer: D

64. Indications for surgical intervention in Kawasaki’s disease include which of the following?
A. The presence of multiple coronary artery aneurysms.
B. Myocardial infarction and severe left ventricular dysfunction.
C. The presence of a 5 mm. aneurysm in the right coronary artery.
D. Progressive stenosis in the left anterior descending coronary artery.
E. None of the above.
Answer: D

65. Which of the following statements about the pathophysiology of Ebstein’s anomaly is/are true?
A. The tricuspid valve is usually insufficient.
B. Typically there is a left-to-right shunt across the ASD.
C. The redundant anterior leaflet of the tricuspid valve may cause obstruction of the right ventricular outflow tract.
D. Pulmonary hypertension is a common late complication.
E. High pulmonary vascular resistance in neonates exacerbates tricuspid regurgitation and cyanosis.
Answer: ACE

66. In the surgical treatment of Ebstein’s anomaly, which of the following is/are true?
A. In neonates, the tricuspid valve orifice may be oversewn and a systemic-pulmonary shunt created to provide pulmonary blood flow.
B. Techniques in repair of the tricuspid valve do not utilize plication of the atrialized right ventricle.
C. Closure of the ASD alone is adequate repair of the malformation.
D. If tricuspid valve replacement is performed, the valve should be sutured above the coronary sinus to avoid injury to the conduction system.
E. Currently, mechanical prostheses are recommended for tricuspid valve replacement because the durability of bioprosthetic valves in the tricuspid position is so poor.
Answer: AD

67. Which of the following congenital lesions of the coronary circulation causes a cardiac murmur that is similar to the murmur produced by a PDA?
A. Origin of the left coronary artery from the pulmonary artery.
B. Origin of the right coronary artery from the pulmonary artery.
C. Coronary artery fistula.
D. Membranous obstruction of the ostium of the left main coronary artery.
Answer: C

68. The congenital coronary lesion most likely to cause death in infancy is:
A. Coronary artery fistula.
B. Origin of the left coronary artery from the pulmonary artery.
C. Origin of the right coronary artery from the pulmonary artery.
D. Congenital coronary aneurysm.
Answer: B

69. The congenital coronary lesion associated with minimal or absent clinical manifestations and nearly normal life expectancy is:
A. Congenital origin of both coronary arteries from the pulmonary artery.
B. Congenital coronary artery fistula.
C. Membranous obstruction of the ostium of the left main coronary artery.
D. Congenital origin of the right coronary artery from the pulmonary artery.
Answer: D

70. Which of the following is/are indications for aortic valve replacement for aortic stenosis?
A. Syncope.
B. Congestive heart failure.
C. Angina.
D. Transvalvar gradient of 35 mm. Hg without symptoms.
Answer: ABC

71. Under which of the following circumstances is medical management logical?
A. Moderate aortic insufficiency seen on echocardiography with normal left ventricular end-systolic dimensions.
B. Moderate to severe aortic insufficiency seen on echocardiography with cardiomegaly on chest roentgenography.
C. Moderate aortic insufficiency seen on echocardiography with symptoms of congestive heart failure.
D. Moderate aortic insufficiency with an end-systolic left ventricular dimension of 70 mm. as seen on echocardiography.
Answer: A

72. Which of the following may be indications for operation for mitral stenosis?
A. Systemic embolization.
B. Infective endocarditis.
C. Onset of atrial fibrillation.
D. Worsening pulmonary hypertension.
Answer: ABCD

73. Which of the following is/are not true?
A. Operation improves survival in patients with severe, symptomatic mitral valve disease.
B. Left ventricular dilatation with class I or class II heart failure is an indication for operation with mitral regurgitation.
C. Tricuspid regurgitation is most commonly caused by abnormalities of the leaflets themselves.
D. Mitral valve replacement requires resection of the mitral valve leaflets and chordae.
Answer: CD

74. Which of the following generally are not symptoms of tricuspid valve disease?
A. Pulmonary edema.
B. Hepatic failure.
C. Anasarca.
D. Hoarseness.
Answer: AD

75. Which of the following are relative indications for mitral valve replacement, as opposed to mitral valve repair?
A. Extensive leaflet calcification.
B. Mitral regurgitation.
C. Chordal rupture of the anterior mitral leaflet.
D. Significant annular dilatation.
Answer: A

76. Which of the following are not true?
A. Tricuspid regurgitation due to annular dilatation alone generally does not require valve replacement.
B. Mitral valve replacement with either a bioprosthesis or a mechanical valve requires warfarin anticoagulation.
C. Tricuspid valve replacement is generally an indication for using a tissue valve.
D. Chronic renal failure is a relative indication for tissue valves.
Answer: B

77. Which of the following are relative indications for mechanical, as opposed to tissue, valve replacement?
A. Patient younger than 30 years.
B. Young female patient who desires children.
C. An elderly patient.
D. Tricuspid valve replacement.
Answer: A

78. Which of the following statements are not true?
A. Bioprosthetic valves have a relatively high incidence of hemolysis.
B. Bioprosthetic valves have a lower incidence of postoperative prosthetic valve endocarditis.
C. Mechanical valves develop structural failure after an average of 7 to 10 years.
D. Mortality attributable to warfarin therapy approaches 5% per patient-year.
Answer: ABCD

79. Which of the following are not generally associated with mitral stenosis without regurgitation?
A. Pulmonary hypertension.
B. Pulmonary edema.
C. Left ventricular dilatation.
D. An opening snap after the second heart sound.
Answer: ABD

80. The most common location of accessory pathways in patients with the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is the:
A. Left free wall.
B. Right free wall.
C. Posterior septum.
D. Anterior septum.
Answer: A

81. The anatomic electrophysiologic basis of AV node re-entry tachycardia is dual AV node conduction pathways. AV node re-entry tachycardia is most likely to occur with which of the following electrophysiologic aberrations?
A. Proximal antegrade block in the slow conduction pathway.
B. Proximal retrograde block in the slow conduction pathway.
C. Proximal antegrade block in the fast conduction pathway.
D. Proximal retrograde block in the fast conduction pathway.
Answer: C

82. Match the four surgical procedures that have been developed for the treatment of atrial fibrillation with the major detrimental sequela(e) of atrial fibrillation that each corrects.
A. His bundle ablation.
B. Left atrial isolation procedure.
C. Corridor procedure.
D. Maze procedure.
1. Patient’s sensation of irregular heart rhythm.
2. Hemodynamic compromise because of loss of AV synchrony.
3. Increased vulnerability to thromboembolism.
Answer: A-1. B-1,2. C-1. D1,2,3

83. All of the following statements about nonischemic ventricular tachyarrhythmias are true except:
A. They usually occur in the right ventricle.
B. They are usually associated with a left bundle branch block pattern during the tachycardia.
C. They are usually more refractory to medical therapy than ischemic ventricular tachyarrhythmias.
D. They usually occur as a result of automaticity rather than re-entry.
Answer: D

84. Which of the following statements about left atrial myxoma are true?
A. This lesion, by site and histology, is the most common primary cardiac tumor.
B. It is best diagnosed by cardiac catheterization and angiography.
C. The symptom complex can mimic collagen vascular disease.
D. It has an intracavitary growth pattern.
E. It has a multicentric origin in the chamber wall.
Answer: ACD

85. Which of the following statements about malignant cardiac tumors are true?
A. Sarcomas are the most frequent primary malignancy.
B. Metastatic tumors are usually asymptomatic.
C. Adjuvant chemotherapy and irradiation are efficacious in prolonging survival.
D. Intra-atrial extension of renal neoplasms is a contraindication for surgical resection.
E. Constrictive physiology is an indication for operation.
Answer: AB

86. Disadvantages of temporary pacing through skin electrodes applied to the anterior chest wall include all of the following except:
A. Skin burns.
B. Painful chest wall muscle contractions.
C. Ventricular fibrillation.
D. Inability to pace.
Answer: C

87. In adults the most common cause of acquired complete heart block is:
A. Ischemic heart disease.
B. Sclerodegenerative disease.
C. Traumatic injury.
D. Cardiomegaly.
Answer: B

88. The most common indication for permanent pacing is:
A. Complete heart block.
B. Second-degree AV block.
C. Chronic bifascicular block.
D. Sick sinus syndrome.
Answer: D

89. Decreasing pacemaker electrode tip size results in:
A. Lower pacing thresholds.
B. Improved electrogram sensing.
C. Decreased battery life.
D. Less patient discomfort.
Answer: A

90. At the time of ventricular pacemaker implantation, lead resistance is determined at a voltage near that of the pacemaker’s output. The calculated resistance at 5 volts should range from:
A. 10 to 100 ohms.
B. 125 to 250 ohms.
C. 300 to 800 ohms.
D. 1000 to 1500 ohms.
Answer: C

91. A ventricular inhibited-demand pacemaker using the Intersociety Commission for Heart Disease Resources (ICHD) code is designated as:
A. DVI.
B. VVI.
C. VOO.
D. VDD.
Answer: B

92. In rate-modulated pacing, the pacing rate is determined by a physiologic parameter other than atrial rate and is measured by a special sensor in the pacemaker or pacing lead. The most commonly used physiologic parameter in rate-modulated pacemakers is:
A. QT interval.
B. Venous blood temperature.
C. Mixed venous oxygen saturation.
D. Body motion.
Answer: D

93. The most common pacing mode used in patients with symptomatic bradycardia and an underlying sinus rhythm is:
A. AAI.
B. DVI.
C. DDD.
D. VVI.
Answer: C

94. A transvenous pacemaker generator pocket should be placed on the patient’s nondominant side over the:
A. Anteromedial chest wall.
B. Anterolateral chest wall.
C. Inferomedial chest wall.
D. Inferolateral chest wall.
Answer: A

95. Pacemaker-mediated tachycardia is caused by:
A. Pacemaker induction of atrial fibrillation.
B. Sensing of retrograde atrial activation.
C. Inappropriate ventricular sensing.
D. Lead fracture.
Answer: B

96. Which cardiovascular pharmacologic agents are safe to use during routine abdominal surgery in a 75-year-old woman with documented hypertension and mild coronary artery disease?
A. Nifedipine.
B. Atenolol.
C. Hydralazine.
D. Captopril.
E. Reserpine.
Answer: ABD

98. Which anticoagulation treatment plan(s) is/are appropriate for a 72-year-old man with a mechanical heart valve in place who takes Coumadin (warfarin) and now requires elective left colon resection?
A. Discontinuation of Coumadin therapy on the day of the operation.
B. Discontinuation of Coumadin therapy on the day of the operation with replacement of clotting factors with fresh frozen plasma (FFP) before the start of the surgical procedure.
C. Discontinuation of Coumadin therapy 5 days before operation with no further anticoagulation therapy before surgery.
D. Discontinuation of Coumadin therapy 5 days before operation with the institution of intravenous heparin as the prothrombin time normalizes.
E. Discontinuation of Coumadin therapy 2 days before operation followed by large doses of aspirin.
Answer: D

99. Which of the following treatment plans is appropriate for a 68-year-old patient with moderate to severe congestive heart failure following a major abdominal surgical procedure?
A. Aggressive use of inotropic support with epinephrine.
B. Aggressive diuresis with furosemide and inotropic support with dopamine.
C. Afterload reduction with nitroprusside and inotropic support with dopamine.
D. Close perioperative monitoring and inotropic support with melrinone.
E. Intravenous digitalis with diuresis using furosemide as needed.
Answer: CD

100. Which of the following steps is/are appropriate for a 65-year-old woman who develops atrial fibrillation with associated mild hypotension and rapid ventricular response following partial gastric resection?
A. Correction of electrolytes and blood chemistries.
B. Evaluation for possible myocardial infarction.
C. Treatment with intravenous lidocaine.
D. Attempt to limit the ventricular response with digitalis.
E. Immediate cardioversion.
Answer: ABD

101. The damaging effects of cardiopulmonary bypass are, to a large degree, due to activation of the humoral amplification system. The humoral amplification system includes which of the following?
A. The coagulation cascade.
B. The fibrinolytic cascade.
C. Complement activation.
D. A and C.
E. A, B, and C.
Answer: E

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