Biotechnology Interview Questions :-
1. What do you understand by the term “Bio-Technology”?
Bio-Technology is a process where a team of scientist researched and worked together and uses this method to enhance the nutrition level of the food, good production
of the food, safety and to retain the taste of the food. In this methodology, they use fewer pesticides and improve crops.
2. What does GMO stands for and what importance does it has in bio-technology field?
This is more of a technical question, applicant should have studied well in this field to answer this question, GMO means genetically modified organism where in two
different genetics and molecule is used and combined to create one new genetic organism. This is usually done by using genetic engineering techniques.
3. What are the problems we could face by using this genetic engineering tools?
By using genetic engineering tools, all the plants and crops are exposed to too many pesticides and herbicides, they are over used to maintain it fresh and to retain
the taste of the food. Traditionally farmers avoid using so many pesticides for crops, they use them liberally.
4. What are the different types of bio technology? Explain.
The different types of bio technology are: Red bio-technology, White bio-technology and Green bio- technology.
Red Bio Technology is usually used in medical devices like antibiotics.
Green Bio Technology is used in agricultural process to grow crops more environmental friendly.
White Bio Technology is used mostly in industrial process like using a chemical reaction designing an organism.
5. What is (LMO) Living Modified Organism?
- Living Modified Organism means any living organism which contains genetical material in it by using modern bio technology. It could be sterile, injections or virus.
- Usually in Bio-Technology interviews, applicants will be asked to handle a seminar about their main scientific subject.
- In this scenario, applicant should check before with the HR as to who will be the audience and what the exact skill sets are they are looking for to fill this position. This will help the applicant do a research on it before hand and can get fully prepared for a seminar. The applicant should make sure that the presentation
is well prepared, executed and tailored to audience. Make sure, you give them good introduction about your subject but talk in brief and do not go in detail. Talk more about their company and business press. Find out if they have any competitors and do research on them. You could talk about adopting their style of working for any improvement in this company.
6. What would be your role in the organization for being a part of bio-technology team?
- As a member of bio-technology team, its my responsibility to go to the lab and do a surprise check on the samples produced, keep updating myself from the company
- presentations and websites…on the other streams or new products coming up in new pharmacy industries. Pro-actively communicate with the operations team on the ongoing experiments in the industry.
7. What are the challenges you face being in this industry and how do you overcome it?
The future of life science is changing; the companies need to come creatively each time and try new research on different products genetically and to retain its essence and source of it. Researching on different products in the market, and researching the scientific methods used for it would help us in updating ourselves and facing the new challenges of this bio-technology industry.
8. What do you mean by bio ethics?
Bio ethics is the combination of analysis of social, political, ethical and environmental consequences and implications of bio technology and bio – medicine products.
9. What are the possible dangers that bio technology and bio medicine faces on the advanced scientific methods of food products?
Applicant should be very confident in his answer as this is a very tricky question, he/she should answer that any technology or advancement has its own advantages and dis advantages, it is just the way the technology is adapted and used in the process. Yes, of course there is a certain degree of risk involved, but we have to deal with it being in this scientific bio technology industry. As any industry will face this quality or failure problem.
10. What do you think could be the points of conflict in terms of bio ethics?
Well, I think there will be problem with people’s interest with respect to abortion, genetic advances, right to privacy, rights of a child, capacity to make personal decision in their food habits asthere will be question raised for genetically injected or used products with these bio-technology methods. I think we should continue to convince people by explaining the scientific approach in the interest of retaining the good products in future and maintaining a better environment.
11. Is body itself a bio technology?
Yes, it has to be articulated as a technology. But not by nature, once its articulated or framed in such a way, then definitely it’s a technology. Anything which is re-framed from a naturally occurring bio logical process is called bio technology.
12. What do you mean by bio-media?
It’s a concept which means to describe the informatic reframing or biological components and its methods and processes. Its all about the process of identifying biologically and looking through the lens of informatic.
13. How is this bio technology useful in our day to day life?
Bio technology is used to help in solving the problem faced in our daily products. Yogurt, wine, cheese, and antibiotics these are all not new for human beings. This method of bio technologypromises a better way of retaining the essence and preventing disease.
15. Why is buprenorphine less addictive than other opioids (like fentanyl) – is it explainable by its strength of binding to the common receptor, or?
Buprenorphine is what is referred to as a partial agonist – i.e. it binds to the receptor but even at its maximum cannot give as much of an effect as a full agonist (such as morphine) – it is, thus, also a partial antagonist (partially inhibits the actions of full agonists). As addiction is likely to be linked to strength of the effect of the, buprenorphine has less effect and, therefore, less addiction.
16. Is Phenoxyethanol harmful?
Phenoxyethanol is harmful and can be absorbed through the skin – official sites for toxicity data, however, show little toxicity in man and some toxicity (irritation) with high doses in animals. Phenoxyethanol is in cosmetics as a bactericide (kills bacteria).
19. Which type of immunoglobulin level will increase when an individual is exposed to a parasite?
Serum IgE levels will increase and remain until the parasite is washed out from the body.
20. What are allergens?
Allergens are non-parasitic antigens. They are capable of stimulating hypersensitive reactions in allergy conditions in an individual.
21. Name some common allergens associated with type-I hypersensitivity.
Penicillin, sulfonamide, eggs, milk, dust mites, animal air, vaccines etc.
22. What is atopy?
The tendency to manifest localized anaphylactic reactions is called atopy.
23. Who are atopic individuals?
Atopic individuals are those who are having abnormal high levels of circulating IgE and more than normal number of oesinophils.
24. Where do most allergic reactions occur?
Most of them occur on mucous membrane. Allergens enter the body by the process of inhalation or ingestion.
25. What is P-K reaction?
The response produced when an allergen is injected into an individual, who is sensitive is called P-K reaction.
26. What are high affinity receptors?
Mast cells and basophils express high affinity receptor. The high affinity enables it to bind with IgE, despite low serum concentration of IgE.
27. What are low affinity receptors?
Low affinity receptors play role in regulating he intensity of IgE response.
28. What are primary mediators?
Primary mediators are those, which are produced before degranulation. These primary mediators are stored in granules. Some of the primary mediators are histamine,
heparin, proteases etc.
29. What are secondary mediators?
Secondary mediators are produced after target cell activation or released by the break down of phospholipids membrane during the process of degarnulation. Some of the secondary mediators are leukotrienes, various cytokines, prostaglandins etc.
30. Explain in brief about histamine
It is formed by the decarboxylation of amino acid histidine. It accounts for 10% of granule weight. This histamine binds to specific receptors on various target cells.
31. How many types of histamine receptors are there and what are they?
There are three types of histamine receptors. They are H1, H2 and H3.They has different tissue distributions.
32. What is the reaction-taking place when H2 receptor binds to mast cells and basophils?
When H2 binds to mast cells and basophils it suppresses degranulation.
33. Explain in brief about leukotrienes and prostaglandins
- Leukotrienes and prostaglandins are formed only when the mast cell undergo degranulation and enzymatic break down of phospholipids in the plasma membrane.
- The effects produced by them are more pronounced and long lasting than histamine. Leukotrienes mediate mucous production and bronchoconstriction. Prostaglandin D2 causes bronchoconstriction.
34. Explain in brief about cytokines
Cytokines activate inflammatory cells such as neutrophils and eosnophils.IL-5 is important in activation of eosnophils, IL-4 increases IgE production by B-cells. IL-4, Il-5, IL-6, TNF-a has been secreted by human mast cells.
35. What is atopic dermatitis?
Atopic dermatitis is an inflammatory skin disease. This disease is observed frequently in young children. There will be skin eruptions.
36. What is erythroblastosis fetalis?
It is a hemolytic disease, which develops in newborn. Maternal IgG antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the red bleed cells. This develops when an Rh+ expresses
an Rh antigen on blood cells that the mother does not express.
37. What is a rhogam?
Is an antibody that binds to any of the blood cells, enter the mother’s blood circulation, and facilitate their clearance by activation of B-cells and memory cell
production.
38. What is type I hypersensitivity?
It is IgE mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include asthma, food allergies, eczema, hay fever etc.
39. What is type II hypersensitivity?
It is IgG mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include erythroblastosis fetalis, hemolytic anemia, blood transfusion reactions etc.
40. What is type III hypersensitivity?
It is immune complex mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, necrotizing etc.
41. What is type IV hypersensitivity?
It is cell-mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include graft rejection, dermatitis etc.
42. What is serum sickness?
When an individual is exposed to foreign serum antigen then a combination of symptoms are produced which is called as serum sickness.
43. Give some symptoms of serum sickness.
Symptoms include fever, weakness, rashes, with erythema and edema. Serum sickness depends on the immune complexes formed and the size of the complexes.
44. Name some Infectious diseases.
Some of the Infectious diseases are Malaria, meningitis, trypanosomiasis, hepatitis etc…
45. Name some autoimmune diseases.
Rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, good pasture’s syndrome
46. How many types of hypersensitive reactions are there?
There are four types of hypersensitive reactions, they are:
- Type I hypersensitive reaction
- Type II hypersensitive reaction
- Type III hypersensitive reaction
- Type IV hypersensitive reaction
47. What are the steps in bacterial infection?
There are four steps in bacterial infection. They are:
- Attachment to host
- Proliferation
- Invasion of host tissue
- Toxin-induced damage to host cell
48. What is the disease caused by Rotavirus?
The disease caused by rotavirus is infantile diarrhea.
49. What is the disease caused by Sabia virus?
Brazilian haemorrhagic
50. What is the disease caused by Ebola virus?
Ebola haemorrhagic fever
51. What is the disease caused by Hepatitis C?
Non-A, Non-B hepatitis are commonly transmitted via transfusion.
52. What is the disease caused by toxin producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus?
Toxic shock syndrome
53. What is the disease caused by HIV?
The disease caused by HIV is AIDS
54. What is the disease caused by Influenza A subtype H5N1?
Avian influenza
55. What is the disease caused by Nipah virus and West Nile virus?
Encephalitis
56. What is the disease caused by Hepatitis E?
Enteric Non-A, Non-B hepatitis
57. What is the disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi?
Lyme disease
58. What is the disease caused by Cryptosporidium parvum?
Acute chronic diarrhea
59. What is the disease caused by Hantavirus?
Haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome
60. What is the disease caused by Helicobacter pylori?
Peptic ulcers
61. What is the disease caused by Guanarito virus?
Venezuelan haemorrhagic fever
62. What is the disease caused by Encephalitozzon hellem?
Conjunctivitis, disseminated disease
63. What is the disease caused by Human T-lymphotrophic virus-I?
T-cell lymphoma
64. What is the disease caused by Escherichia coli 0157:H7?
Haemorrhagic colitis
65. What is the disease caused by Vibrio cholerae 0139?
New strain of epidemic cholerae
66. What is the disease caused by Human T-lymphotrophic virus II?
Hairy cell leukemia
67. What is the disease caused by Campylobacter jejuni?
Enteric diseases
68. What is the disease caused by Legionella pneumophilia?
Legionnaire’s disease
69. What is the disease caused by Bartonella henselae?
Cat scratch disease
70. What is the disease caused by Human herpes virus – 8?
It is associated with Kaposi sarcoma in AIDS patients.
71. What is the disease caused by TSE causing agents?
New variant of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
72. What is the disease caused by influenza ‘A’ subtype H9N2?
New strain of human influenza
73. What happens when gastrointestinal exposure occurs?
Gastrointestinal exposure results in bloody diarrhea, ulcers in ileum or cecum and sepsis and it is very difficult to diagnosis.
74. What happens when cutaneous exposure occurs?
Cutaneous exposure results in skin lesions.
75. How passive immunity is acquired?
Passive immunity is acquired through natural maternal antibodies, antitoxin, and immunoglobulin.
76. How is active immunity acquired?
Active immunity is acquired through vaccines, attenuated organisms, toxoid, natural infection, cloned microbial antigens, etc.
77. Normally at what age vaccination of children begins.
Vaccination of children begins at the age of 2 months.
78. What is a toxoid?
Inactivating the toxin with formaldehyde is toxoid.
79. Why purified macromolecules are used as vaccines?
To avoid the risk associated with attenuated and killed whole organism vaccines.
80.Name some purified macromolecules derived from pathogens.
They are capsular polysaccharides, inactivated exotoxins and recombinant microbial antigens.
81. What is the full form of AIDS?
Full form of AIDS is acquired Immunodeficiency syndrome.
82. How AIDS is caused?
It is caused by the infection of HIV 1 i.e. human immunodeficiency virus.
83. What is a retrovirus?
It is a class of viruses having RNA genome and reverse transcriptase enzyme within virus cuspid.
84. What is a provirus?
It is the DNA representing, the genome of virus that has been integrated into the DNA of the host.
85. How HIV infection is mainly spread?
It is mainly spread by gender contact, blood transfers and from HIV infected mother to child.
87. What does HIV results?
HIV results in impairment of immune function by depletion oh CD4+ T cells.
88. What does immunodeficiency results?
Immunodeficiency results in failure of one or more components of immune system.
89. What does myeloid immunodeficiency cause?
Myeloid immunodeficiency causes phagocytic function, which is impaired. Those who are affected with this will suffer with increase in susceptibility to bacterial
infection.
90. What do most vaccines function as?
Most of the vaccines prevent disease but not infection.
91. What are major successful vaccines?
Major successful vaccines are live attenuated and heat killed vaccines.
92. What is the current treatment given to AIDS?
Current treatment given to AIDS is HAART (highly active anti retroviral therapy).It is a combination therapy.
93. What does HAART do?
HAART will lower the viral load and improves the health of the patients who are suffering with AIDS.
94. What is the first overt indication of AIDS?
The first overt indication of AIDS may be infection with the fungus Candida albicans, which causes sores in the mouth and in women vulvovaginal yeast infection is
formed that will not respond to the treatment given.
95. How viral load can be measured?
Viral load is measured by PCR based techniques.
96. What is an abzyme?
It is a monoclonal antibody, which has catalytic activity.
97. What is adoptive transfer?
The ability to participate in the immune response by the process of transplantation of cells is adoptive transfer.
98. What is an agglutinin?
A substance can mediate clumping of the cells or particles.
99. What is agglutination?
Clumping of particles or cells is called agglutination.
100. What is an agretope?
The region of an antigenic peptide, which binds to MCH molecule, is known as agretope.
BIOTECHNOLOGY Questions with Answers
101. What is antigenic drift?
Series of point mutations that cause minor antigenic variations in the pathogens
102. What is apoptosis?
Changes those are associated with programmed cell death, including release of apoptotic bodies, blebbing, and nuclear fragmentation.
103. What is autograft?
Grafting of tissues from one part of the body to another in the same individual is called as autograft.
104. What is antigenic competition?
Antigenic competition is the inhibition of immune response to an antigen by immunization with different antigens.
105. What is bradykinin?
A peptide producing inflammatory response.
106. What is a bispecific antibody?
It is made by cross-linking two different antibodies or by fusion of two hybridomas, which produce monoclonal antibodies.
107. What is a booster?
Boosters are given to stimulate immunological memory response.
108. What is BCG?
It is an attenuated form of Mycobacterium bovis. It is used as vaccine and as an adjuvant compound.
109. What is chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
In this type if leukemia cancerous cells are continuously produced.
110. What is an effector cell?
Any cell that can mediate immune response is called as effector cell.
111. What is an effector response?
It is the response produced after recognition and binding of an antigen by antibody.
112. What is erythropoiesis?
Generation of red blood cells is called as erythropoiesis.
113. What are interferons?
Interferons are small glycoproteins produced by virus-infected cells that inhibit viral infection. They are heterogeneous. Gamma interferons induce MHC class II
antigens in macrophages, B cells, and endothelial cells.
114. What is immuno adsorption?
It is removal of an antigen or antibody from a sample by the process of adsorption, to which the complimentary antigen or antibody is bound.
115. What is immunofluorescence?
Staining cells or tissues with fluorescent antibodies and visualize them under a fluorescent microscope.
116. What is an immunotoxin?
Immunotoxin is produced by conjugating or combining an antibody with highly toxic agent.
117. What is immune complex?
It is a complex of antibody bound to antigen, which includes complement components.
118. What are intracellular pathogens?
These microbial agents grow within a cell.
Example: Viruses and intracellular bacteria like Salmonella.
119. What is isotope switching?
It is conversion of antibody class to another resulting from genetic rearrangement of heavy chain constant region genes in B cells. Isotope switching is also called as
class switching.
120. What is lysogeny?
The condition in which viral genome that is provirus associated with host genome in a way that the viral genes remain in unexpressed state.
121. What is microglial cell?
Macrophage found in central nervous system is called microglial cell.
122. What are MHC molecules?
Proteins that are encoded by major histocompatibility complex
123. What is a myeloma cell?
It is a cancerous plasma cell.
124. What is myeloma protein?
It is a monoclonal immunoglobulin, which is produced by myeloma cell.
125. What is multiple sclerosis?
It is an autoimmune disease, which affects the central nervous system.
126. What is a pathogen?
Pathogen is a disease-causing organism.
127. What is a stem cell?
It is a cell, from which differentiated cells derive.
128. What is tapasin?
It is a protein that is associated with class I MHC molecules.
129. What is a vaccine?
It is a preparation of antigenic material used to induce immunity against pathogens.
130. What are tumor antigens?
Tumor antigens are cell surface proteins, which are present on the surface of tumor cells that induce cell-mediated immune response.
131. Name the parasite, which causes malaria?
Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium falcifarum
132. Name the parasite, which causes leishmaniasis.
Leishmania species
133. Name the parasite, which causes chagas disease.
Trypanosoma cruzi
134. Name the parasite, which causes sleeping sickness or trypanosomiasis.
Trypanosoma rhodense, Trypanosoma gambiense
135. What is the mechanism of host defense in malaria?
Blocks invasion and opsonises for phagocytosis
136. What is the mechanism of host defense in leishmaniasis?
Restrict the spread of disease.
137. What is the mechanism of host defense in chagas disease?
Lysis in presence of compliment
138. What is the mechanism of host defense in trypanosomiasis?
Opsonises for phagocytosis
139. What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule IgA?
It is Humoral response.
Activity: Blocks binding of virus to host cells, thus preventing infection
140. What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecules IgG, IgM and IgA?
It is Humoral response. Activity: Blocks fusion of viral envelope to the cell plasma membrane.
141. What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule IgG, IgM?
It is Humoral response. Activity: enhances phagocytosis by opsonization.
142. What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule IgM?
It is Humoral response. Activity: Agglutination
143. What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule compliment activated by IgG or IgM?
It is Humoral response. Activity: Mediated opsonization
144. What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule IFN ? secreted by TH or TC cell?
Cell mediated immune response.
Activity: Direct antiviral activity
145. What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule cytotoxic T cells?
Cell mediated immune response.
Activity: Kills virus infected self-cells.
146. What is the response type and activity shown by effector molecule natural killer cell macrophages?
Cell mediated immune response.
Activity: Kills virus infected cells by ADCC.
147. What is the host defense mechanism shown if an attachment is made to host cell?
Blockage of attachment by secretory IgA antibodies
148. What is the host defense mechanism shown if the infection is through proliferation?
Phagocytosis compliment mediated lysis localized inflammatory response.
149. What is the host defense mechanism shown if the infection is through invasion of host tissues?
Antibody mediated agglutination.
150. What is the host defense mechanism shown if the infection is through toxin-induced damage of host cells?
Neutralization of toxin by antibodies
151. What is an exon?
The region of a gene that contains coding sequences for a polypeptide is called Exon.
152. What is an intron?
The nucleotide sequence present between exons of a gene. They can be removed by the process of splicing.
153. What is immunolabeling?
Labeling molecules by the use of antibodies bound to another molecule that serves as labels for an antigen antibody complex.
154. What is immunoblotting?
This is a technique to determine the presence of an antigen by the reaction of labeled antibodies to the antigen. This is done after separating the antigens according
to the size or charge by gel electrophoresis.
155. What is i-gene?
A bacterial gene codes for lac-operon repressor protein.
156. What is an iso antigen?
It is produced only by some members of a species but not the others. These are capable of eliciting immune response in the individuals that lack the antigen.
157. What is the other name of isoantigen?
The other name is Alloantigen.
158. Give an example for alloantigen.
Blood group antigens are alloantigens.
159. Describe major events in the inflammatory response.
The following are the major events in the inflammatory response: The diameter of the capillaries increases in the affected region and their permeability, which
facilitates influx of white blood cells.
160. What does the following sentence means? “T cell is said to be class I restricted”.
It means that they can recognize the antigen, which is, associated with class I MHC molecules.
161. Name the assay method for IgG in serum.
The method is ELISA.
162. Name the assay method for compliment component C3 on glomerular basement membrane.
Immunofluorescence
163. Name the assay method for horsemeat combination of hamburger
Agglutination
164. Name the assay method for insulin in serum
ELISA or RIA
165. How B cell hybridomass are formed?
They are formed by the fusion of antigen primed B cells with cancerous plasma cells.
166. Expand cell line HL-60.
Human myeloid leukemia cell line
167. Give brief description of cell line L-929
It is mouse-fibroblast cell line used in DNA transfection. Moreover, it is used to assay tumor necrosis factor.
168. What is the significance of cell line COS-1?
It is used in DNA transfection.
169. Give brief description of jurkat cell line
It is human T-cell leukemia, which secretes IL-2.
170. Give the significance of P-815.
It is used as a target to access killing by cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
171. Give the significance of YAC-1.
It is used as target for natural killer cells.
172. Give the significance of CTLL-2.
It is used to assay IL-2 production.
173. Give the description of SP2/O cell line and its significance.
It is non-secreting mouse myeloma and used as a fusion partner for hybridoma secretion.
174. What is the target antigen for T cell leukemia?
The antigen for T cell is CD5.
175. What is the target antigen for B cell lymphoma?
Antigen for B cell is CD20.
176. What is the target antigen for anti idiotype tumor antigen?
Immunoglobulin
177. What are exogenous antigens?
Antigens, which are produced outside the host cell, are called exogenous antigens.
178. What is the target antigen for acute myeloblastic leukemia?
CD45 is for acute myloblastic leukemia
179. What is the target antigen for colon cancer?
Glycoprotein
180. What is the target antigen for breast and ovarian tumors?
Cell surface EGF binding protein
181. What is the target antigen for neuroectodermal tumors?
Glycolipids associated with neural tissues.
182. What is the target antigen for breast cancer?
Glycoprotein
183. What is autograft?
It is nothing but grafting self-tissue from one body site to another in the same individual.
Ex.: In burnt cases.
184. What is isograft?
It is nothing but grafting between genetically identical individuals.
185. What is allograft?
It is nothing but grafting between genetically different individuals of the same species.
186. What is xenograft?
It is nothing but grafting between different species.
187. What is the self-antigen for good pasture’s syndrome?
Renal and lung basement membranes
188. What is the self-antigen for Addison’s disease?
Adrenal cells
189. What is the self-antigen for perinicious anemia?
Gastric perietal cells
190. What is the self-antigen for grave’s disease?
Thyroid stimulating receptor
191. What is the self-antigen for rheumatoid arthritis?
Connective tissue, IgG
192. What is the self-antigen for scleroderma?
Heart, lungs, kidney, nuclei, gastro intestinal tract
193. What is the self-antigen for myocardial infarction?
The self-antigen is Heart.
194. What is the self-antigen for insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?
Pancreatic beta cells
195. What is the self-antigen for autoimmune haemolytic anemia?
RBC membrane proteins
196. What is a monoclonal antibody?
It is an antibody produced from a single antibody-producing cell.
197. How monoclonal antibodies are produced?
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridoma clones.
198. What are polyclonal antibodies?
Antibodies of different specificities, which react to the same antigen, are called polyclonal antibodies.
199. How are the polyclonal antibodies produced?
They are produced by different plasma cell clones.
200. What is the natural toxin found in the endosperm of castor?
The toxin found is Ricin.
201. What is immunopurification?
Purifying antigens present in small quantities as a mixture by interacting an antibody to an antigen.
202. How Interferon a is produced?
It is produced by leukocytes or WBCs.
203. How Interferon ? is produced?
It is produced by fibroblasts.
204. How Interferon ? is produced?
It is produced by stimulated T lymphocyte.
205. What is interferon induced antiviral state?
Interferon reacting with interferon receptors of a cell, after which the cell enters in a state called interferon, induced antiviral state.
206. What are endogenous antigens?
Antigens, which are produced within the host cell, are called endogenous antigens.
207. What is clonal selection?
Proliferation of B cells in response to interaction with an antigen is called clonal selection.
208. What is naïve B cell?
Mature B cell is called naïve B cell.
209. What are altered self-cells?
The cytotoxic T lymphocytes which kill foreign antigens complexes with MHC I molecules are called altered self-cells.
210. What are immunoglobulin folds?
Immunoglobulin domains are folded into compact structures, which are called as immunoglobulin folds.
211. What is exotoxin?
Toxin produced by a microorganism, which is released into surrounding fluid, is called exotoxin.
212. What is the function CD4 antigen?
It acts as a co receptor for MHC class II restricted T cell activation; receptor for HIV.
213. What is a thymocyte?
It is a developing T cell, which is present in the thymus.
214. What is secreted immunoglobulin?
It is a form of antibody, which is secreted by cells of B lineage.
215. What is an alveolar macrophage?
Macrophage, which is found in alveolus of the lung, is alveolar macrophage.
216. What is clonal energy?
It is a state, in which the antigen cannot activate the cells.