CSSD Technician Multiple Choice Questions
1. which of the following is a system used to treat the final rinse water used for cleaning?
A. water conductivity
B. sanitization
C. deionization (Correct Answer)
D. sterilization
2. bluish or rainbow-type stains caused by _________ in water.
A. chlorides and solids
B. iron and silicates (Correct Answer)
C. calcium
D. fluoride
3. the ideal level of silicates in water used for cleaning is _______ ppm or less
A. 200
B. 150
C. 100 (Correct Answer)
D. 50
4. purified water should have a ph of ______
A. 4.5 – 5.5
B. 5.5 – 6.5
C. 6.5 – 7.5 (Correct Answer)
D. 7.5 – 8.5
5. tap water should ideally have a concentration of ______ ppm or less
A. 200
B. 150
C. 100 (Correct Answer)
D. 50
6) water purification usually involvesthe use of a:
A. pre-filter
B. post-filter
C. pre-filter and post-filter (Correct Answer)
7) the term ” hemi ” is a
A. prefix (Correct Answer)
B. root
C. suffix
D. noun
8) the term “excise” means
A. to repair
B. to open
C. to cut out (Correct Answer)
D. examine
9) the majority of medical terms are either _______ or _______ origin
A. greek or french
B. greek or latin (Correct Answer)
C. latin or french
D. latin and english
10) which of the following tells a primary meaning of the word?
A. prefix word element
B. root word element (Correct Answer)
C. suffix word element
D. combining vowel
11) “hyperglicemya” refers to?
A. malignant tumor
B. tissue death of an artery
C. high blood sugar (Correct Answer)
D. enlargement of the hearth
12) ” Dermopathy ” is a(n):
A. skin disease (Correct Answer)
B. inflammation of the liver
C. fluid-filled sack
D. inflammation of a joint
13) the term “BKA” refers to a surgical procedure involving:
A. treatment of a fractured bone without an incision
B. surgical removal of both the fallopian tubes and ovaries
C. surgical removal of the leg below the knee (Correct Answer)
D. a type of hip joint reconstruction
14) __________ is an example of a fungus.
A. pneumonia
B. tuberculosis
C. athlete’s foot (Correct Answer)
D. herpes simplex type 2
15) instrument marking tape should be wrapped approximately _______ around the instrument.
A. 1 to 1 1/2 (Correct Answer)
B. 1 1/2 to 2
C. 2 to 2/5
D. 2/5 to 3
16) the purpose of a suction stylet is to:
A. unclog the suction during surgery (Correct Answer)
B. clean the scution in the decontamination area
C. facilitate the sterilization process
D. provide a measuring guide for the surgeon
17) scissors with tungsten carbide cutting edges are usually identified by:
A. black handles
B. silver handles
C. gold handles (Correct Answer)
D. the letters “TC”
18) the first step to inspect the insulation of a laparoscopic instrument is to:
A. check the collar at the distal tip (Correct Answer)
B. try to slide the insulation back
C. check the handle for chipping or cracking
D. visually check the instrument shaft
19) the endoscope that would be dispensed for a procedure that required the visualization of the lower part of the large intestine would be a:
A. colonoscope
B. sigmoidoscope (Correct Answer)
C. gastroscope
D. ureteroscope
20) loaner instruments should:
A. be decontaminized if they appear soiled upon arrival
B. be sterilized using a low sterilization process
C. be decontaminated before use (Correct Answer)
D. not be used
21) information regarding cleaning processes for endoscopes should be provided by:
A. the SGNA
B. APIC
C. the instrument manufacturer (Correct Answer)
D. the OR staff
22) wich of the following statements about flexible endoscopes its true?
A. not all endoscopes can be processed in an AER (Correct Answer)
B. ultrasonic cleaning is the process of choice for endoscopes
C. flexible endoscopes are not easily damaged
D. all endoscopes should be steam sterilized
23) the process by wich unwrapped instruments are steam sterilized for inmediate use when an emergency situation arises is called:
A. emergency sterilization
B. flash sterilization (Correct Answer)
C. core sterilization
D. rapid reprocessing
24) endotracheal tubes and anesthesia breathing circuits are examples of :
A. critical devices
B. semi-critical devices (Correct Answer)
C. non-crtical devices
D. surgical instruments
25) which of the following statements about flash steriliztion is true?
A. its the method of choice for metal instruments
B. it is recommended to be used as a primary sterilization process by AAMI and AORN
C. it reduces turnaround time because cleaning its not required
D. it should be used only in emergencies (Correct Answer)
26) this system gives the body shape and support.
A. muscular system
B. nervous system
C. circulatory system
D. skeletal system (Correct Answer)
27) the surgical procedure that consist of removing an ear bone that has thickened and no longer transmits sound waves and replacing it with an artificial implant to improve hearing.
A. tympanoplasty
B. myringoplasty
C. stapedectomy (Correct Answer)
D. auditory implantation
28) an organ that filters blood to remove amino acids and neutralize some hamful toxins
A. kidney
B. pancreas
C. liver (Correct Answer)
D. gallbladder
29) this surgical procedure removes the uterus
A. hysteroscopy
B. hysterectomy (Correct Answer)
C. dilation and curettage
D. bilateral salpingoopherectomy
30) this gland stimulates body growth.
A. adrenal gland
B. thyroid gland
C. pancreas
D. pituitary gland (Correct Answer)
31) this surgical procedure removes tissue or displaced bone from the wrist area to release pressure on the median nerve.
A. carpal tunnel repair (Correct Answer)
B. ulner nerve transposition
C. arthrotomy
D. fasciotomy
32) the largest part of the human brain is the:
A. brain stem
B. cerebellum
C. cerebrum (Correct Answer)
D. spinal cord
33) this surgical procedure is the removal of the gall bladder.
A. cholecystectomy (Correct Answer)
B. colectomy
C. parotidectomy
D. gastrectomy
34) the hip joint is and example of a:
A. gliding joint
B. ball and socket joint (Correct Answer)
C. pivot joint
D. hinge joint
35) the “voice box”
A. pharynx
B. larynx (Correct Answer)
C. mouth
D. trachea
36) microorganism reproduce by a process called:
A. repopulation
B. binary fission (Correct Answer)
C. replication
D. bilateral reproduction
37) for safety purposes, central service technicians should consider all microorganisms in the decontamination area:
A. gram-positive
B. gram-negative
C. manageable
D. potentially infectious (Correct Answer)
38) the part of a cell that controls cell function is the:
A. cytoplasm
B. nucleus (Correct Answer)
C. cell membrane
D. capsule
39) a mode of bacterial transmission that would take place when an infectious agent was transmited through anitem such as food or water is called:
A. contact
B. common vehicle (Correct Answer)
C. airborne
D. vector-borne
40) some plastics including formulations of spun-bonded polyolefin are intended for use solely in theses sterilization processes
A. high temperature
B. low temperature (Correct Answer)
C. liquid
D. flash
41) when placing ring-handled instruments in an instrument tray, you should
A. lock the handles to prevent damage during sterilization
B. arrange the instruments in alphabetical order
C. arrange the instruments in the order of their use
D. unlock the handles and open the instruments (Correct Answer)
42) in the event of a load recall, information about specific load contents can be obtained from
A. the central service supervisor
B. the procedure manual
C. the sterilization log (Correct Answer)
D. the hospital safety director
43) if a sterilizerhas succesfully killed all bacterial spores in a biological test
A. it is called a positive test
B. it is called negative test (Correct Answer)
C. it is taken out of service until its repaired
D. an alarm will soundat the completion of the cycle
44) what would be the recommended exposure time for a dry heat sterilization load that was run at an exposure temperatue of 320 degrees fahrenheit (160 degrees celsius)
A. 1 hour
B. 1.5 hours
C. 2 hours (Correct Answer)
D. 2.5 hours
45) which of the following sterilization quality assurance measurements is designed to provide a written record of sterilizer cycle activity
A. biological tests
B. bowie dick tests
C. mechanical recording charts/printouts (Correct Answer)
D. chemical integrators
46) the spore used in the testing of steam sterilization is
A. bacillus atrophaeus
B. geobacillus stearothermophilus (Correct Answer)
C. bacillus subtillus
D. pseudomonas aeruginosa
47) the term “super heated steam” means
A. the type of steam necessary for high temperature sterilization
B. steam that had chemicals added to it to increase its temperature
C. dry steam (Correct Answer)
D. moist steam at sea level
48) impregnated gauze strips may be sterilized using
A. ethylene oxide sterilization
B. hydrogen peroxide sterilization
C. dry heat sterilization (Correct Answer)
D. steam sterilization
49) how frequently should a sterilizer’s strainer be removed and cleaned
A. daily (Correct Answer)
B. after each use
C. once weekly
D. only when the machine’s operating control gauge indicates cleaning is necessary
50) the higher the bioburden on an object
A. the more difficult it will be to sterilize (Correct Answer)
B. the less time it will take to sterilize
C. the more biological tests you will need in the load
D. the longer it wil take to cool after sterilization
51) the transport of flash sterilized items is difficult because:
A. they have no protecting wrapping (Correct Answer)
B. they are wet
C. they are hot
D. contained in heavy trays
52) when processing flexible endoscopes in a liquid chemical sterile processing system you should:
A. pressurize the scope before starting the machine
B. use tap water as pre-rinse
C. connect channels to special connectors that allow liquid to flow through them (Correct Answer)
D. run the cycle twice to ensure that proper microbial kill has take place
53) which of the following systems provides supplies and instruments for individual surgical procedures?
A. exchange carts
B. par-level
C. case cart (Correct Answer)
D. requisition
54) official inventory:
A. does not exist in today’s modern healthcare facilities
B. can be counted as an asset on the facility’s balance sheet (Correct Answer)
C. is owned by the vendor but stored at the healthcare facility
D. is owned by the healthcare facility but stored by the vendor
55) the inventory system that stocks supplies by stablished stock levels is called:
A. par-level (Correct Answer)
B. case cart
C. ADT system
D. exchange system
56) the movement of supplies throughout the healthcare facility is called:
A. distribution (Correct Answer)
B. inventory management
C. case cart system
D. procurement
57) In many facilities, certification requirements are part of the job specifications for selected Central Service positions.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
58) The goal of decontamination is usually focused on
A. destruction of soil and microbes
B. removal of soil and microbes (Correct Answer)
C. sterilization
D. inspection of devices
59) A Central Service technician usually reports to the Director of Central Service.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Technicians usually report directly to a shift supervisor or other charge person.
60) The primary requirement to become a Certified Registered Central Service Technician (CRCST) relates to completion of a course rather than a certification exam.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
For CRCST, emphasis is on the subject matter addresed in the exam.
5) The primary responsibility of Central Service relates to materiel management functions such as procurement, inventory control and distribution.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Essentially, Central Service is a manufacturer of sterile products.
6) Which of the following activities is typically the primary responsibility of the Central Service department?
A. procurement
B. manufacture sterile supplies (Correct Answer)
C. inventory control
D. distribution
7) In most facilities, the linen inspection and pack make-up areas are in the same place where preparation and sterilization is done.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
During inspection and folding, certain fabrics will release lint and fallout particulates in the air that could be deposited on instruments being prepared for sterilization. Therefore, a separate linen inspection area is required.
8) Which of the following certification designations is available to senior, experienced IAHCSMM members who submit extensive documentation and maintain their status through regular professional development activities?
A. Certified Registered Central Service Technician (CRCST)
B. Fellowship in Central Service (FCS) (Correct Answer)
C. Certification in Healthcare Leadership (CHL)
D. Certification in Healthcare Materiel Management Concepts (CHMMC)
9) Membership in a profession is governed by a universal code of ethics.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
Explanation
It is usually controlled by licensing, registration and/or certification and is governed by a universal code of ethics.
10) Handwashing sinks are required in each functional are of the Central Service facility.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
11) The task of sorting reusable materials based upon the method of decontamination is part of which of the following sterile processing activities?
A. decontamination (Correct Answer)
B. assembly
C. sterilization
D. storage
12) Receiving and storing activities are part of the sterile processing responsibilities of a Central Service Technician.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
These are the distribution responsibilites.
13) Locker room facilities with showers and toilets for Central Service personnel
A. can be shared with other facility personnel
B. should be available for the restricted use of Central Service personnel (Correct Answer)
C. are not required
D. are only needed for technicians with sterilization responsibilities
14) To be done correctly, decontamination must be done manually.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Decontamination is a thorough cleaning process that may be accomplished either through manual or mechanical means.
15) The preparation/sterilization area is the point where all soiled instruments and materials are received from the customer-using departments.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
1) Small sets used for small procedures such as suturing and wound irrigation are called procedure (procedural) trays.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
Explanation
Most instruments are prepared in groups called sets, trays or kits.
2) Instructions for pack contents come from the Central Service Director.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Instructions come from the users.
3) Pre-vacuum sterilization is generally the preferred method for powered equipment.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
Explanation
Generally, pre-vacuum sterilization is the preferred method for powered equipment because it removes air trapped within the devices, creating space for sterilant penetration
4) During Ethylene Oxide sterilization, the packaging material must allow adequate penetration of sterilant gas and prohibit the penetration of moisture.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Both the sterilant gas and moisture must penetrate. After sterilization, the packaging material must afford ready release of gas and moisture from the material itself and from the contents during the time of aeration.
5) Cellulose materials and rayon are excellent packaging choices when gas plasma sterilization will be used.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Paper, cotton, linen and rayon cannot be used in a gas plasma sterilizer because they absorb the sterilant, which significantly reduces efficacy, and which can cause the cycle to completely abort.
6) Traditionally, the sterility of a package has been thought of as “time-related”.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
Explanation
Microbial contamination of a sterile package is caused by an event – such as improper handling or transport – not by time alone.
7) The bacterial barrier efficiency afforded by woven textile wraps is considered the most effective of all wrapping materials available to healthcare.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
For many years, cotton muslin fabrics have been considered as the minimum quality of wrappers to be used. A double wrap, using two wraps, or a total of FOUR layers is recommended.
8) SMS wraps are tougher than Kraft, crepe and several other non-woven synthetic wraps.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
Explanation
Spunbond-Meltblown-Spunbond is made by a process in which the layers are exposed to high heat and are pressure-bonded together to form plastic sheets. These must be inspected before use for pinholes, and must never be reused.
9) Glass and metal containers with lids should not be used with dry heat sterilization.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Such containers are not appropriate for use in gas plasma, steam or ETO sterilzation because the sterilants cannot contact the items packaged inside them.
10) The square fold wrapping technique can be used with the sequential but not the simultaneous wrap method.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Both the square fold and the envelope fold are utilized for both wrap methods.
11) The Food and Drug Administration classifies sterilization packaging as a ____________ medical device.
A. Class I
B. Class II (Correct Answer)
C. Class III
D. The FDA does not classify sterilization packaging.
Explanation
Class II medical devices are defined as a device intended to be used to enclose another medical device that is to be sterilized by a healthcare provider.”
12) Moisture of package contents is a very critical issue for all of the following types of sterilization except:
A. ethlyene oxide
B. gas plasma
C. dry heat sterilization
D. steam sterilization (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Any moisture in/on the items will prevent the temperature from reaching its required sterilization level until all moisture is evaporated. Since the cycle is timed, sterilization may not have been achieved in that time.
13) Which of the following statements about package labels is correct?
A. Packages should be labeled before sterilization. (Correct Answer)
B. Labeling can be written directly on the packaging material.
C. Felt tip pens should not be used for marking.
D. The only user of labeling information is the end user.
Explanation
Labeling is necessary not only for the end user, but also for sterilization processing, quality assurance, stock rotation and inventory control purposes.
14) All packaging materials should be held at room temperature (64-72 degrees) and at a relative humidity of 35-70 % for a minimum of _____hours prior to sterilization.
A. One
B. Two (Correct Answer)
C. Three
D. Four
Explanation
This will permit adequate steam/sterilant penetration and prevent superheating of the fabric during sterilization.
15) It is now demonstrated that contamination of a sterile item is ________ related.
A. Time
B. Event (Correct Answer)
1) Packages should be wrapped as tightly as possible when steam sterilization is used.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Air and steam do not mix. Since air is heavier than steam, normally it is displaced to the bottom of the sterilizer. If packages are wrapped too tightly, air becomes trapped and cannot escape. This causes cool pockets at the center of the packages, preventing sufficient kill temperatures.
2) Contaminated instruments should not be cleaned in automatic washers without first having been effectively decontaminated.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
3) The flasking technique is used to produce deionized or demineralized water.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
The flasking technique is a means of producing sterile distilled water and isotonic solutions. This technique uses glass containers filled with freshly distilled water and sterilized at 250-254 degrees. Special flask closures, designed to allow air to escape are required.
4) The most effective method to decontaminate transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE) infected instruments is
A. use of autclave
B. use of chemical methods
C. use of incineration (Correct Answer)
D. all of the above are effective
5) Manufacturers’ recommendations for sterilizing items should be considered the absolute minimum.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
Explanation
In all cases, it is the Central Service technician’s responsibility to ensure that there is complete steam contact, and that the temperature aat the surface of each item or pack reaches the desired temperature.
6) When unloading a steam sterilizer, the door should be cracked open, and it is necessary to wait 25-30 minutes if it is a vacuum unit.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Crack the door and wait 10 minutes for a vacuum sterilizer to assure proper evaporation and drying. Do not unload packages before they are cool. Handle as little as possible.
7) Which of the following is most responsible for sterilization failures in the hospital?
A. Inadequate time for sterilization.
B. Insufficient moisture.
C. Lack of steam contact. (Correct Answer)
D. Improper use of chemical indicators.
Explanation
Frequent causes of steam contact failure include: failure to adequately clean the object being sterilized, packages wrapped too tightly, packs too crowded, wrong position of containers like pans, bottles or air-tight containers, clogged strainer, other mechanical malfunctions.
8) The screen strainer in the steam sterilizer should be removed and cleaned after every use.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
This strainer, at the front bottom of the chamber, should be removed DAILY and cleaned thoroughly. This procedure may be required more frequently depending on the types of loads processed. It should be cleaned under running water using a brush and a mild detergent.
9) The depth of oil in a container being sterilized should not exceed one inch.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
The amount of oil to be sterilized should not exceed one OUNCE. Preferably, the depth of the oil in the container should not exceed 1/4 inch.
10) When steam is not saturated, it is more difficult to kill microorganisms present because articles in the sterilizer will remain dry.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
Explanation
– and microorganisms cannot be killed as readilyThis . Also, items will remain cool much longer, especially if they are wrapped.
11) Which of the following statements is correct?
A. When water is boiled, its volume increases.
B. When boiling of water begins, the water volume increases. (Correct Answer)
C. As water is heated, its volume decreases.
D. When boilling of water begins, its temperature increases significantly.
Explanation
As water is heated, its temperature rises, and its volume increases slightly. When boiling begins, the volume increases greatly, and the temperature remains contant.
12) The recommended temperature for steam sterilization for tabletop and gravity air displacement sterilizers is approximately
A. 230-degrees F or 110-degrees C
B. 240-degrees F or 115-degrees C
C. 250-degrees F or 121-degrees C (Correct Answer)
D. 260-degrees F or 126-degrees C
Explanation
And the recommended temperature for Vacuum and “Flash” sterilizers is between 270-275-degrees F or 132.2-134-degrees C.
13) Steam sterilization is the method of choice; other methods are used only when the object being sterilized cannot withstand the heat and/or moisture of steam sterilization.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
Explanation
Sterilization by steam is relatively simple, inexpensive, safe and reliable in comparison with the other methods of sterilization available.
14) Adequate moisture contact for steam sterilization requires a relative humidity of at least ___%.
A. 96
B. 97 (Correct Answer)
C. 98
D. 99
15) Autoclave/Chemical Method of deconamination – for highly infectious contamination like CJD: Unfortunately, the most stringent autoclave method involving sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is controversial, because it could be harmful to health and could damage the autoclave.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
1) The development of standards for preventive maintenance for healthcare equipment is voluntary under JCAHO standards.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
2) Excessive down time for a specific type of device _________the need to rent devices.
A. increases (Correct Answer)
B. decreases
3) Hospitals are required to report information that reasonably suggests a medical device has caused or contributed to the death, injury or illness of a patient.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
Explanation
The Safe Medical Devices Act requires hospitals to report this information to both the manufacturer and the FDA.
4) Reasons why equipment might be leased/rented include
A. obsolescence of technology
B. tax advantages
C. to minimize capital expenditures
D. all of the above except c
E. a, b and c (Correct Answer)
5) An asset management program for preventive maintenance should have information about all of the following except
A. location of the equipment
B. initial cost of the equipment (Correct Answer)
C. responsibility for preventive maintenance
D. repair history of each equipment item
6) A complete physical equipment inventory should be conducted before implementing an asset management information system.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
Incorrect
7) Which of the following equipment management systems has the highest degree of control for the facility?
A. risk-sharing insurance agreement
B. outsourced service
C. in-house system (Correct Answer)
D. leased-share system (Your Answer)
8) The technology acquisition phase immediately follows the technology planning phase in an effective technology management program.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
After the technology plan has been established, assessments should evaluate technologies which the plan suggests.
9) Patient moveable equipment is not considered a “device” under the Safe Medical Devices Act.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Although the act broadly defines a “device”, patient moveable equipment meets the factors included in the legislation.
10) An automated asset management system should be capable of monitoring down time for each piece of equipment.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
11) Regulations relating to a hospital’s equipment management system are basically the same from state-to-state.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
12) It is typically a poor idea to lease/rent equipment when capital funds are unavailable.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
Explanation
Leasing and rental alternatives for equipment and technology acquisitions have become frequently used options today. Advantages include convenience, minimized obsolescence, full-service maintenance, tax advantages and minimized capital expenditures.
13) When equipment is outsourced, its control is transferred to an entity other than the healthcare facility.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
14) Most facilities utilizing an automated asset management system use a stand-alone personal computer-based system.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
15) The process used to charge for equipment issued from Central Service to other areas of the hospital should be based on
A. manufacturers’ recommendations
B. limits imposed by Medicare
C. a time-in-use computation (Correct Answer)
D. the amount negotiated between Central Service and the other department.
1) All medical terms consist of each of the following word elements: prefix, root, and suffix
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
2) In medical terminology, the purpose of a combining vowel is to:
A. tell the primary meaning of the word
B. make the word easier to promounce (Correct Answer)
C. make the word easier to spell
D. differentiate between past and present tense
3) Eliminating the infectious agent will interupt the transmission of an infectious disease.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
4) There are two parts to the ear: the outer ear and the inner ear.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
5) In central service, the term “customers” includes anyone who utilizes the department’s services
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
6) A virus can move by means of its flagella.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
7) Cells are the basic units of all living organisms and are the smallest element that can live, grow and reproduce.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
8) All soiled instruments and materials are received from the user units into the central service____________ area.
A. preparation
B. decontamination (Correct Answer)
C. sterilazation
D. process storage
9) This organ pumps blood throughout the body
A. Heart (Correct Answer)
B. liver
C. alimentary canel
D. kidney
10) Which of the following is the circular opening of the eye which controls the amount of light which enters the eye?
A. iris
B. pupil (Correct Answer)
C. cornea
D. lens
11) The part of a cell that controls cell function is the:
A. cytiokasm
B. nucleus (Correct Answer)
C. cell membrane
D. capsule
12) Given the word “hemigastrectony” which element of that word is the root?
A. hemi
B. gastro (Correct Answer)
C. ectomy
D. this word has no root
13) A function of the digestive system is to convert food into energy for the body.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
14) Involuntary muscles
A. work without consciousness (Correct Answer)
B. work only when commanded
C. are not necessary
D. shut down when we are resting
15) Air pressure in the decontamination area should be negative in relation to surrounding areas.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
16) Which of the following glands is located at the base of the brain and is considered the “master gland”?
A. pituitary (Correct Answer)
B. thyroid
C. adrenal
D. parathyroid
17) which of the following is NOT an example of surgical asepsis?
A. sterilization of instruments
B. asset management (Correct Answer)
C. operating room techniques to prevent contamination of sterile instruments
D. all of the above
18) What percentage of microorganisms are harmful to humans because they can grow at approximately human body temperature?
A. 1% (Correct Answer)
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%
19) The purpose of a prefix is to alter or modify the meaning of the root element.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
20) What type of hepatitis vaccine is strongly recommended for most healthcare workers?
A. hepatitis A
B. hepatitis B (Correct Answer)
C. Hepatitis E
21) Rod-shaped bacteria are classified as
A. Coccus
B. Bacillus (Correct Answer)
C. Anhydrous
D. Anerobic
22) Healthy people carry bacteria
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
23) The process by which cartilage is replaced by bone
A. Calcification
B. ossification (Correct Answer)
C. ureters
D. chromosomes
24) The gastrointestinal tract is one portal of entry used by an infectious agent to enter a susceptible host.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
25) Which of the following suffixes means “pertaining to?”
A. ac
B. al
C. ary
D. all of the above (Correct Answer)
26) What type of bacteria develops spores?
A. aerobic
B. anaerobic
C. pathogenic (Correct Answer)
D. thermophillic
1) Some plastics including formulations of spun-bonded polyolefin are intended for use in _____ temperature sterilization processes
A. High
B. Low (Correct Answer)
2) When arranging plastic–paper pouches in the sterilizer, the pouches should be arranged
A. paper-to-plastic (Correct Answer)
B. paper-to-paper
C. plastic-to-plastic
D. the way in which the most packages can be plased in the sterilizer
3) Which type of scope is used to visualize the lower part of the large intestine?
A. colonoscope
B. cystoscope
C. sigmoidoscope (Correct Answer)
D. gastroscope
4) Aeration is required for items sterilized in ozone sterilization processes
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
5) The higher the bioburden on an object
A. the more difficult it will be to sterilize (Correct Answer)
B. the less time it will take to sterilize it
C. the more biological tests you will need in the load
D. the longer it will take to cool after sterilization
6) Gauze squares should be used as wicking material when basins are sterilized one inside another
A. true
B. false (Correct Answer)
7) How frequently should a sterilizer’s drain strainer be removed and thoroughly cleaned?
A. daily (Correct Answer)
B. after each use
C. once weekly
D. when the sterilizer’s operating control gauge indicates that cleaning is necessary
8) Sterilization documentation is not required for items that are flash sterilized
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
9) The relative humidity of the sterile storage area should be
A. less than 25%
B. less than 50%
C. less than 75% (Correct Answer)
D. none of the above
10) Upon opening, paper-plastic pouch seals must destruct and be incapable of resealing
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
11) The term “superheated steam” means
A. the type of steam necessary for high temperature sterilization
B. steam that has had chemicals added to it to increase its temperature
C. dry steam (Correct Answer)
D. moist steam at sea level
12) the amount of time that it takes to kill 90% of the microorganisms present on an object is called
A. the time-weighted average
B. a d-value (Correct Answer)
C. a sterilization cycle
D. the exposure time
13) Which of the following sterilization quality assurance measurements is designed to provide a written record of sterilizer cycle activity?
A. Biological tests
B. bowie dick tests
C. mechanical recording charts/printouts (Correct Answer)
D. chemical integrators
14) Cellulosic materials (paper, cotton and linen) cannot be processed in a gas plasma sterilization system
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
Incorrect
15) Paper-plastic pouches should NOT be labeled on the ___________ side of the pouch
A. paper (Correct Answer)
B. plastic (Your Answer)
16) Tests which use live bacterial spores to challenge the efficacy of the sterilization process and provide a direct measure of lethality are called
A. chemical indicator tests
B. chemical integrator tests
C. ampulization tests
D. biological tests (Correct Answer)
17) When arranging instruments in an instrument tray, you should
A. position the instruments in a manner that will facilitate sterilization (Correct Answer)
B. arrange the instruments in alphabetical order
C. arrange the instruments in the order of their use
D. assemble all multi-part instruments to save time in the operating room
18) The process by which unwrapped instruments are steam sterilized for immediate use when an emergency situation arises, is called
A. emergency sterilization
B. flash sterilization (Correct Answer)
C. core sterilization
D. rapid reprocessing
19) Implantable devices
A. should be flash sterilized in extended cycles
B. should only be sterilized using ethylene oxide
C. should not be flash sterilized (Correct Answer)
D. should be discarded if not used
20) Ethylene oxide has better penetration capabilities than ozone and hydrogen gas plasma
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
21) In the event of a load recall, information about specific load contents can be obtained from
A. the central service supervisor
B. the procedure manual
C. the sterilization log (Correct Answer)
D. the hospital safety director
22) the most efficient type if dry heat sterilizer is
A. the gravity convection sterilizer
B. the mechanical convection sterilizer (Correct Answer)
C. the dynamic air removal sterilizer
D. the special purpose dry heat oven
23) Temperatures in a sterile storage area should be 64 to 75 degress F
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
24) Sterile packages should be stored no lower than 4 – 6 inches from the floor
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
25) Because shelf-life is event-related, stock rotation is no longer necessary.
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
1) Which type of fire extinguisher should be used on flammable liquids
A. type A
B. type B (Correct Answer)
C. type C
D. type D
2) Which of the following is the most important factor necessary for teamwork?
A. attitude (Correct Answer)
B. promptness
C. loyalty
D. cooperation
3) 100% ethylene oxide gas canisters should be stored
A. in a chemical storage cabinet (Correct Answer)
B. outside the building
C. in a refrigerator
D. in a chamber heated to 75 degrees
4) Which of the following surgical abbreviations might be used relating to a fractured bone?
A. CABG
B. BSO
C. ORIF (Correct Answer)
D. TAH
5) Single-use items and their packaging reduce the level of combustible loading in storage areas within a central service department
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
6) The average concentration of a chemical in the air to which a worker can be exposed over a particular period of time (usually eight hours) is referred to as a
A. PEL (Correct Answer)
B. TWA
C. STEL
D. OSHA
7) Since the types of surgeries performed are smaller, PPE is not required when cleaning instruments used in ambulatory surgery centers
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
8) Which of the following disinfectants is also known as a “wetting agent”?
A. quaternary ammonium compounds (quats) (Correct Answer)
B. phenolics
C. alcohol
D. halogens
9) A step in communication that occurs when a listener asks a question is called
A. stereotyping
B. feedback (Correct Answer)
C. communication looping
D. interpretation
10) Sterilization load recalls should only be made if patients develop infections
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
11) Low temperature sterilization processes are not used in ambulatory surgery centers
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
12) The relevant measurable characteristics of water are: hardness, purity, temperature and
A. contamination
B. condensable gasses
C. pH (Correct Answer)
D. porousity
13) Which of the following is the most important priority?
A. saving money
B. helping patients (Correct Answer)
C. completing assignments on time
D. doing all work according to the stated policy and procedure
14) Which of the following scissors is designed to have the sharpest cutting edge?
A. Black-handled (Correct Answer)
B. silver-handled
C. gold-handled
D. silver/gold-handled
15) The unit of measure used to describe the amount of EtO in the air is called
A. TWA
B. STEL
C. PEL
D. PPM (Correct Answer)
16) The safest way to transport a gas cylinder is to roll it across the floor
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
17) Legal behavior is defined as behavior relating to what is right or wrong
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
18) Which of the following information is NOT included on an MSDS sheet?
A. special precautions
B. physical data
C. required inventory levels (Correct Answer)
D. product identification
19) Positive reinforcement used to encourage employees to follow proper work practices and negative reinforcement to discourage inappropriate work practices is called
A. communications
B. human relations
C. diversity
D. coaching (Correct Answer)
20) Implantable devices
A. should be flash sterilized in extended cycles
B. should only be sterilized using Ethylene Oxide
C. should not be flash sterilized (Correct Answer)
D. should be discarded if not used
21) Customer complaints are best handled through which of the following approaches?
A. empowerment
B. service recovery (Correct Answer)
C. procedure compliance tactics
D. uniform implementation of policies
22) During instrument manufacture the process of milling helps build a protective chromium oxide layer on each instrument’s surface
A. true
B. false (Correct Answer)
23) Repetitive motions are
A. eronomic stressors (Correct Answer)
B. WMSD injuries
C. used to counteract muscle injuries
D. not a part of central service duties
24) Risk management involves assessing and identifying risks and developing a program to reduce losses from exposure to those risks.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
25) Human relations and communications skills are only necessary for employees who deal with customers
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
1) Official inventory is generally included on the balance sheet as a current asset
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
2) The _____________ requires that the healthcare facility report malfunctions of medical devices that have contributed to patient injury, illness, and/or death to the manufacturer and the FDA
A. OSHA patient safety act
B. safe medical devices act (Correct Answer)
C. EPA patient security act
D. FDA equipment notification act
3) The largest operating channel of an endoscope is the ________ channel
A. instrument (biopsy) (Correct Answer)
B. suction (aspiration)
C. air
D. water (irrigation)
4) The inventory control method in which the supplier owns the inventory and does not charge the healthcare facility for it until it is used or lost is referred to as the ____________ method
A. safety stock
B. stockless
C. consignment (Correct Answer)
D. economic order quantity (EOQ)
5) Which of the following tracking methods provides real time information?
A. RFID (Correct Answer)
B. laser-etched bar codes
C. standard bar code
D. dot matrix applications
6) Which of the following statements are correct?
A. patient care equipment tracking requires a computer
B. patient care equipment should only be tracked if it has a value in excess of an amount specified by the facility
C. tracking patient care equipment can prevent equipment shortages (Correct Answer)
D. patient care equipment must only be tracked if its usage will be charged to patients
7) The distribution system which involves replacing a freshly loaded supply cart for an identical cart that has been depleted on a patient unit is called the ______ system
A. exchange cart (Correct Answer)
B. par-level
C. requisition
D. case cart
8) Thermal disinfection is accomplished using
A. heated chemicals
B. heated glurataidehyde
C. prolonged high pressure steam
D. heated water (Correct Answer)
9) A failure mode and effects analysis looks backward at an event to help prevent its reoccurrence
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
10) When marking instruments, engraving is the method of choice
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
11) The joint commission uses routine and unannounced inspections to monitor standards in healthcare facilities
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
12) Which of the following requires preventive maintenance standards be established for medical equipment?
A. OSHA
B. Joint Commission (Correct Answer)
C. AAMI
D. AORN
13) Computerized tracking systems are fast, but manual tracking systems are more effective for tracking data
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
14) Which of the following would be the best choice for high level disinfection of instruments?
A. Phenolics
B. Chlorine
C. Iodophors
D. OPA (Correct Answer)
15) Having a low inventory service level would increase customer satisfaction
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
16) Which of the following systems provide supplies and instruments for individual surgical procedures?
A. exchange cart
B. par-level
C. case cart (Correct Answer)
D. requisition
17) Of the 3 major low temperature sterilants, ozone has the longest instrument turnaround time
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
18) The number of times per year that inventory is purchased, consumed, and replaced is called the inventory turnover rate
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
19) Wicking materials are used to
A. dry instruments before sterilization
B. allow air removal, steam penetration and facilitate drying (Correct Answer)
C. cushion instruments from the extreme force in steam sterilizer chambers
D. hold water away from the bottom of instrument trays
20) Which of the following means “beside or near”?
A. para (Correct Answer)
B. peri
C. parta
D. pana
21) this unit pumps heated or cooled water through a coiled pad to therapeutically raise or lower body temperature
A. hypothermia unit (Correct Answer)
B. infusion pump
C. suction pump
D. PCA pump
22) A current asset is an asset that is expected to be used within one year
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
23) In an ABC inventory control system “A” items represent
A. the largest number of items and largest dollar value
B. the smallest number of items and largest dollar value (Correct Answer)
C. the items that will be consumed (used up) first
D. the items that cost the most to handle and store
24) Product standardization is only important in healthcare facilities where storage space is limited
A. True
B. False (Correct Answer)
25) A system that keeps track of all incoming and outgoing supplies so that quantities of supplies in storage are known at all times, is
A. perpetual inventory system (Correct Answer)
B. min/max system
C. pick-n-pack system
D. requisition system
1) Which of the following systems provides supplies and instruments for individual surgical procedures?
A. EXCHANGE CART
B. PAR LEVEL
C. CASE CART (Correct Answer)
D. REQUISITION
2) OFFICIAL INVENTORY
A. does not exist in today’s modern healthcare facilities
B. can be counted as an asset on the facility’s balance sheet (Correct Answer)
C. is owned by the vendor but stored at the healthcare facility
D. is owned by the healthcare facility but stored by the vendor
3) The inventory system that stocks supplies by established stock levels is called:
A. par-level (Correct Answer)
B. case cart
C. ADT system
D. exchange system
4) The inventory system that uses two identical carts to facilitate supply replenishment is called the:
A. Case cart system
B. Exchange cart system (Correct Answer)
C. par-level system
D. Requisition system
5) Automated supply replenishment systems:
A. are no longer used
B. are used only in surgery
C. are difficult to manage
D. are computerized (Correct Answer)
6) The movement of supplies throughout the healthcare facility is called:
A. Distribution (Correct Answer)
B. Inventory Management
C. Case cart system
D. Procurement
7) In this system, the facility keeps minimal stock on hand andSupplies are delivered when needed, usually just prior to use:
A. Stockless
B. Just-in-time (Correct Answer)
C. Requisition
D. Perpetual
8) In this system, items are owned by the vendor, but stored at the healthcare facility:
A. Just-in-Time
B. Stockless
C. Min/Max
D. Consignment (Correct Answer)
9) The system where items are ordered in larger quantities (i.e. by the case instead of individually) to save money is called:
A. Just-in-time
B. Min/Max
C. Pick-n-pack
D. Economic order quantity (Correct Answer)
10) All costs incurred to purchase a specific supply item from its purchase through its disposal are referred to as total acquisition costs.
A. True (Correct Answer)
B. False
1) Soiled instruments and other items are received in the _________ area of the Central Service Department.
A. preparation
B. packaging
C. decontamination (Correct Answer)
D. sterilization
2) _________ is the first step in the sterilization process.
A. receiving
B. sorting
C. soaking
D. cleaning (Correct Answer)
3) Central Service Technicians must wear special attire referred to as ____ to minimize their exposure to blood-borne pathogens and other contaminants.
A. PPE (Correct Answer)
B. OSHA
C. SCRUBS
D. CDC
4) Instrument sets and other required instrumentation needed for all surgical procedures for an entire day are usually pulled (collected).
A. two days before they will be used
B. the day or evening before they will be used (Correct Answer)
C. the morning of the planned surgery
D. early morning ( for morning procedures )and early afternoon on the day of surgery.
5) What type of a pressure is required for decontamination areas?
A. negative (Correct Answer)
B. neutral
C. forced air
D. positive
6) The use of analytical skills to solve problems and make decisions is a component of which of the following knowledge and skills dimensions?
A. communication abilities (Correct Answer)
B. facility system responsabilities
C. employability skills
D. safety practices
7) Nosocomial infections are:
A. most likely to accur during international travel
B. caused by drug resistant organisms
C. those without known cures
D. those which occur in the course of being treated in the hospital (Correct Answer)
8) The human resources tool that identifies major tasks performed by persons in specific positions is called a:
A. job duty list
B. job specification
C. task summary review
D. job description (Correct Answer)
9) In the future which of the following will more frequently become a requirement for working in a central service department?
A. On the job training
B. experience
C. formal education (Correct Answer)
D. reference from facility administrator
10) Which of the following is the most popular title for the central service department head?
A. coordinator
B. director (Correct Answer)
C. manager
D. supervisor
11) The largest costumer of the central service department is ?
A. the emergency department
B. labor and delivery
C. material management
D. the operating room (Correct Answer)
12) which of the following is NOT a trend in the central service?
A. decentralizacion of central service respomsabilities (Correct Answer)
B. the use of more reusable and more complex devices
C. satellite-processing units with centralized management
D. consolidation into entire integrated delivery networks
13) in central service , the concept of ” one way flow of materials” refers to the movement of products :
A. from central service to surgical areas
B. from surgical areas to central service
C. from soiled areas to clean processing areas within central service. (Correct Answer)
D. from clean processing areas to soiled areas in the central service
14) surgical instruments should be inspected:
A. before they are cleaned
B. after they are cleaned (Correct Answer)
C. after they are cleaned
D. during storage
15) The sterile storage area in the central service department should be restricted to :
A. central service managers and supervisors
B. operating room personnel
C. central service employees only
D. properly attired personnel meeting facility requirements (Correct Answer)
16) the term ” hemi” is a
A. prefix (Correct Answer)
B. root
C. suffix
D. noun
17) the term ” exise” means
A. to repair
B. to open
C. to cut out (Correct Answer)
D. examine
18) which of the following means ” beside or near”?
A. para
B. peri (Correct Answer)
C. parta
D. pana
19) which of the following surgical abbreviations migth be used relating to a fractured bone?
A. CABG
B. BSO
C. ORIF
D. TAH (Correct Answer)
20) the term ” intercosto” means
A. within the colon
B. between the toes
C. within the bladder
D. between the ribs (Correct Answer)
21) the term ” hypo” means
A. quickly
B. above
C. below
D. measured (Correct Answer)
22) the majority of medical terms are to either ______ or _________ origin.
A. greek of french
B. greek or latin (Correct Answer)
C. latin or french
D. latin and english
23) wich of the following tells a primary meaning of a word?
A. prefix word element
B. root word element (Correct Answer)
C. suffix word element
D. combining bowel
24) the purpose of a combining vowel is to:
A. tell the primary meaning of a word
B. suggest the meaning of the root word element
C. ease pronuntiation (Correct Answer)
D. ease spelling
25) the last word element in a medical term is the:
A. prefix
B. suffix (Correct Answer)
C. root
D. analog
26) the root element ” gastro ” refers to the:
A. colon
B. heart
C. muscles
D. stomach (Correct Answer)
27) the suffix ” ectomy ” refest to:
A. surgical removal (Correct Answer)
B. inflamation
C. surgical revision
D. visual examination of organs
28) “hyperglicemia” refers to:
A. a malignant tumor
B. tissue death of an artery
C. high blood sugar (Correct Answer)
D. enlargement of the heart
29) the term “rhinoplasty”. refers to :
A. surgery of a muscle wound
B. surgical repair of the nose (Correct Answer)
C. removal of a cyst
D. incision of the stomach
30) “dermopathy” is a (an):
A. skin disease (Correct Answer)
B. inflammation of the liver
C. fluid-filled sack
D. inflammation of a joint
31) “litrotripsy” refers to:
A. aspiration of fatty tissue
B. surgical removal of the ovary
C. crushing a stone (Correct Answer)
D. visual examination of a joint
32) “subcutaneous” refers to:
A. low sugar content in the blood
B. displacement of the pelvic joint
C. benehealth the skin (Correct Answer)
D. without infection,sterile
Incorrect
33) the term “periosteal elevator” refers to:
A. surgical removal of tissue near the thyroid
B. surgical removal of one-half of the stomach
C. an instrument to cutting skin (Correct Answer)
D. an instrument used to remove tussue around the bone (Your Answer)
34) the term “BKA” refers to a surgical procedure involving:
A. treatment of a fractured bone without a surgical incision
B. surgical removal of both fallopian tubes and ovaries
C. surgical removal of the leg below the knee (Correct Answer)
D. a type of hip joint reconstruction
35) the term “CR” relates to a surgical procedure for:
A. treating a fractured bone without surgical incision (Correct Answer)
B. creating a new blood supply to an area of the heart
C. surgical removal of the uterus
D. surgical removal of the prostate gland
36) this system gives the body shape and support.
A. muscular system
B. nervous system
C. skeletal system (Correct Answer)
D. circulatory system
37) this tissue connects one bone to another.
A. tendon
B. ligament (Correct Answer)
C. muscle
D. cartilage
38) these muscles control involuntary movements like, breathing,digestion,etc.
A. smooth muscle (Correct Answer)
B. cardiac muscle
C. skeletal muscle
D. fascia muscle
39) this surgical procedure consist in removing an ear bone that was thickened and no longer transmits sound waves and replacing it with an artificial implant to improve hearing.
A. tympanoplasty
B. stapedectomy (Correct Answer)
C. auditory implantation
D. miryngotomy
40) more than 55% of blood is made up of this yellowish liquid.
A. platelets
B. red blood cells
C. white blood cells
D. plasma (Correct Answer)
41) this organ filters blood to remove amino acids and neutralize some harmful toxins.
A. kidney
B. pancreas
C. liver (Correct Answer)
D. gall bladder
42) the surgical procedure removes the uterus:
A. hysterocoscopy
B. hysterectomy (Correct Answer)
C. dilatation and curettage
D. bilateral- salpingoophorectomy
43) this gland stimulates body growth.
A. adrenal gland
B. thyroid gland
C. pancreas
D. pituitary gland (Correct Answer)
44) the lining of the uterus.
A. vagina
B. endometrium (Correct Answer)
C. fimbriae
D. skin
45) this surgical procedure removes tissue or displaced bone from the wrist area to release pressure of the median nerve.
A. carpal tunnel repair (Correct Answer)
B. ulner nerve transposcicion
C. arthrotomy
D. fasciotomy
46) the largest part of the human brain is the :
A. brain stem
B. cerebellum
C. cerebrum (Correct Answer)
D. spinal cord
47) the surgical procedure is the removal of a testicle:
A. transurethal resection
B. prostatectomy
C. orchiopexy
D. orchiectomy (Correct Answer)
48) the “throat.”
A. esophagus
B. larnyx
C. trachea
D. pharnyx (Correct Answer)
49) the surgical procedure is the removal of the gall bladder.
A. cholecystectomy (Correct Answer)
B. colectomy
C. paritodectomy
D. gastrectomy
50) the hip joint is an example of a:
A. gliding joint
B. ball and socket joint (Correct Answer)
C. pivot joint
D. hinge joint
51) this tissue covers the body’s external surface.
A. epithelial tissue (Correct Answer)
B. connective tissue
C. muscular tissue
D. nervous tissue
52) the brain center of a cell.
A. cell membrane
B. cytoplasm
C. nucleus (Correct Answer)
D. DNA
53) cartilage is replaced by bone through a process called:
A. ossificacion (Correct Answer)
B. calcification
C. osmosis
D. cancellous formation
54) the white portion of the eye is called the:
A. retina
B. iris
C. pupil
D. sclera (Correct Answer)
55) the “voice box”.
A. pharynx
B. larnyx (Correct Answer)
C. mouth
D. trachea
56) microorganisms reproduce by a process called:
A. repopulation
B. binary fission (Correct Answer)
C. replication
D. bilateral reproduction
57) for safety purposes, central service technicians should consider all microorganisms in the decontamination area:
A. gram-positive
B. gram-negative
C. manageable
D. potentially infectious (Correct Answer)
58) the part of the cell that controls cell function is the:
A. cytoplasm
B. nucleus (Correct Answer)
C. cell membrane
D. capsule
59) a mode of bacterial infection that would take place when an infectious agent was transmitted through an item such as food or water is called:
A. contact
B. common vehicle (Correct Answer)
C. airborne
D. vector-bone
60) __________ is an example of a fungus.
A. pneumonia
B. tuberculosis
C. athlete’s foot (Correct Answer)
D. herpes simplex type 2
61) all soiled instruments and materials are received from the user units into the central __________ area.
A. preparation
B. decontamination (Correct Answer)
C. sterilization
D. process storage
62) which of the following suffixes means ” pertaining to”
A. “ac” (Correct Answer)
B. “al”
C. “ary”
D. all of the above
63) which of the following is NOT an example of surgical asepsis?
A. sterilization of instruments
B. asset management (Correct Answer)
C. operating room techniques to prevent contamination of sterile instruments
D. all of the above are examples of surgical asepsis
64) given the word ” hemigastrectomy” which element of the word is the root
A. hemi
B. gastro (Correct Answer)
C. ectomy
D. this word has no root
65) which of the following glands is located at the base of the brain and is considered the “master gland”?
A. pituitary (Correct Answer)
B. thyroid
C. adrenal
D. parathyroid
66) which of the following is the circular opening of the eye which controls the amount of light which enters the eye?
A. iris (Correct Answer)
B. pupil
C. cornea
D. lens
67) what type the bacteria develops spores?
A. gram – positive (Correct Answer)
B. gram – negative
C. both of the above
D. neither of the above
68) bacteria that cause diseases are called
A. aerobic
B. anaerobic
C. pathogenic (Correct Answer)
D. thermophillic
69) what percentage of microorganisms are harmful to humans because they can grow at approximately human body temperature?
A. 1% (Correct Answer)
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%
70) what type of hepatitis vaccine is strongly recommended for most healthcare workers?
A. hepatitis A
B. hepatitis B (Correct Answer)
C. hepatitis D
D. hepatitis E
71) the part of the cell that controls cell function is the?
A. cytoplasm
B. nucleus (Correct Answer)
C. cell membrane
D. capsule
72) involuntary muscles.
A. work without consciousness (Correct Answer)
B. work only when commanded
C. are not necessary
D. shut down when are resting
73) rod shaped bacteria are classified.
A. coccus
B. bacillus (Correct Answer)
C. anhydrous
D. anerobic
74) in medical terminology,the purpose of a combining vowel is to:
A. tell the primary meaning of the word
B. make the word easier to pronounce (Correct Answer)
C. make the word easy to spell
D. differentiate between past and present tense
75) A molecular reaction that creates an uncontrolled release of energy is known as:
A. Molecular Fission
B. Molecular Fusion
C. Polymerization (Correct Answer)
D. None of the above
76) To unload a sterilizer, crack the door, and wait __________ minutes (if a vacuum unit) or _____________ minutes (if a gravity sterilizer) to assure proper evaporation and drying.
A. 15 and 8 to 15
B. 10 and 10 to 20
C. 10 and 25 to 30 (Correct Answer)
D. 8 and 15 to 20
77) Quality Assurance for EtO has process monitors that consists of the “4 R’s”: Run, Read, Record and ___________.
A. Resolve
B. Retain (Correct Answer)
C. Re-act
D. Revert
78) If the Flash sterilization load consists of a single instrument comprised of metal and without lumens, a ___________ cycle at 270deg F (132deg C) should be used.
A. 4 min
B. 3 min (Correct Answer)
C. 10 min
D. 5 min
79) Sterilization______________ indicators help to confirm that package have been properly exposed to the sterilization process, and can be the first sign of a process error.
A. chemical
B. process (Correct Answer)
C. Guaze strips
D. none of the above
80) Which of the following is not an ergonomic stressor?
A. Repetition
B. Vibration
C. Awkward positions
D. None of the above (Correct Answer)
81) Bacteria that grows best in the cold is known as:
A. psychrophiles (Correct Answer)
B. thermophiles
C. mesophiles
D. none of the above
82) Chemicals that remove or inactivate hard water minerals are known as:
A. wetting agents
B. Sequesting agents (Correct Answer)
C. Chelating agents
D. none of the above
83) The Express cycle is preset by the manufacturer for __________ minutes at 270deg F with _________ minutes of trying time and a total cycle of __________ minutes.
A. 8, 5 and 10
B. 3, 4 and 10
C. 4, 3 and 12 (Correct Answer)
D. none of the above
84) Chemicals that hold hard water minerals in solution, and prevent soaps or detergents from reacting with the minerals is known as:
A. Chelating agents (Correct Answer)
B. Sequesting agents
C. wetting agents
D. none of the above
85) _________ involves methods used to assess the risks of a specific activity, and to develop a program to reduce losses from exposure to them.
A. Ergonomics
B. All the above
C. Risk Management (Correct Answer)
D. Central Supply
86) There are two types of sterile solutions:____________ and external solutions.
A. parenteral (Correct Answer)
B. compound
C. internal
D. none of the above
87) Up to _______ percent of the micro-organisms on an instrument can be removed with thorough cleaning
A. 99 (Correct Answer)
B. 100
C. 97
D. 95
E. none of the above
88) If the load includes complex or lumened instruments, mixed materials, or multiple instruments, a ____________ cycle at 270deg F (132deg C) should be used.
A. 10 min (Correct Answer)
B. 4 min
C. 3 min
D. 5 min
89) They style of sterilizer use a repeated sequence of steam flush and pressure pulse to remove air form the sterilizer chamber to process materials.
A. Flash
B. Gravity Air
C. Dynamic Air
D. SFPP (Correct Answer)
90) Two basic types of dry heat sterilizers are used in dental offices, which are oven type and ____________.
A. Rapid Heat transfer (Correct Answer)
B. Thermal Nucleur
C. Superheated Heat
D. None of the above
91) A disease, one that occurs more or less continuously throughout a community is known as:
A. Epidemic
B. Endemic (Correct Answer)
C. transdemic
D. None of the Above
92) The definition of ____________ is when powered surgical instrumentation gets damaged by fluid (i.e. water, cleaning solution,..etc) due to fluids penetrating into the interior of the instrument.
A. Fluid invasion (Correct Answer)
B. Fluid resonance
C. Fluid reprocessity
D. None of the above
93) The most common problems associated with electric power equipment are:
A. Damage to electrical parts during sterilization
B. Condensation that enters the equipment when seals wear out
C. Electrical contacts become worn and affect equipment handling
D. All the above (Correct Answer)
94) Care of Air hoses; Proper coil size for sterilization should be _______________.
A. 5 – 6 inches
B. 8 – 10 inches
C. 9 – 12 inches (Correct Answer)
D. None of the above
95) Endoscope reprocessing recommendations published by the CDC and FDA are based upon the__________________ which categorizes instrument disinfection needs according to its intended use, and its risk of transmitting disease.
A. Spankhowzer System
B. Spralling System
C. Robertization System
D. None of the above (Correct Answer)
96) ___________ is the most important step in processing flexible endoscopes.
A. Sterilization
B. Manual Cleaning (Correct Answer)
C. Packaging
D. Leak Testing
97) ____________ mandates that medical equipment should be decontaminated to the maximum extent possible before transportation.
A. DoT
B. OSHA (Correct Answer)
C. CDC
D. FDA
98) Cleaning reusable brushes and accessories for endoscopes; brushes should be thoroughly cleaned by the use of ________________and then steam sterilization.
A. Ultrasonic Cleaning (Correct Answer)
B. Manual Cleaning
C. OPA
D. None of the above
99) In reprocessing endoscopes, after rinsing, the endoscope should be irrigated with _______________, followed by forced air-drying.
A. Deionized Water
B. Isopropyl alcohol (Correct Answer)
C. Sterile Water
D. None of the above
100) Endoscopic accessories are of two types: diagnostic and ______________.
A. opacification
B. coagulating
C. rigid
D. therapeutic (Correct Answer)
101) Lens inspection for a rigid or semi-rigid endoscope involves examining the none-video scope for optical clarity by looking through the lens while viewing a _________________ with writing on it.
A. Black Paper
B. Glossy White Paper
C. Non glare White Paper (Correct Answer)
D. None of the above
102) When examining through the lens of the rigid or semi-rigid endoscope with the paper, this paper should be held approximately__________ inches from the distal tip.
A. 232.
B. 3 (Correct Answer)
C. 4
D. 5
103) The______________ process is the most critical step in processing loaner instrumentation.
A. Receiving
B. Documentation
C. Decontamination (Correct Answer)
D. Quality Assurance
104) agency wich may intervene in a matter of worker protection even if there are no specific regulations covering the situation.
A. OSHA (Correct Answer)
B. EPA
C. FDA
D. AORN
105) Regulations under the Clean air act are administred by
A. OSHA
B. FDA
C. EPA (Correct Answer)
D. AORN
106) Agency wich imposes very strict labeling requirements on manufacturers of chemicals used by the central service.
A. OSHA
B. FDA
C. EPA (Correct Answer)
D. AAMI
Incorrect
107) Healthcare regulations and standards provide consistency of departmental activities by outlining.
A. minimal performance standards (Correct Answer)
B. equal pay practices
C. productivity time lines
D. all of the above
E. none of the above (Your Answer)
108) Established national emissions standards for EO used by hospitals are regulated.
A. all in states
B. in Washington DC
C. in the western states
D. tkere are no established national emission standards (Correct Answer)
109) Chemical indicators are FDA ___________ devices
A. class I
B. class II (Correct Answer)
C. class III
D. not regulated by FDA
110) Heart valves and pacemakers are examples of FDA _________ medical devices
A. class I
B. class II
C. class III (Correct Answer)
D. not regulated by FDA
111) Under current regulations who is required to report suspected medical device-related deaths to the FDA?
A. device manufacturer
B. hospitals
C. all of the above (Correct Answer)
D. none of the above
112) standards and regulations help set levels of ___________ in our departments.
A. quality
B. safety
C. efficiency
D. all of the above (Correct Answer)
E. none of the above
113) medical device reporting is regulated by the:
A. NFPA
B. EPA
C. WHO
D. FDA (Correct Answer)
114) Each year approximately _______,patients develop a healthcare-associated infection
A. 1 million
B. 2 million (Correct Answer)
C. 10 million
D. 20 million
115) Watches and other jewelry should not be worn in the central service department work areas because
A. they harbor bacteria (Correct Answer)
B. they are exoensive
C. they may be damaged
D. they may be displaced or stolen
116) During hand washing should be lathered and scrubbed for at least
A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds (Correct Answer)
C. 1 minute
D. 2 minutes
117) Thoroughly wash and rinse hands. Use friction washing in a circular motion, wash palms, back and wrist of each hand and and rinse the hands in ____ position.
A. Rinse hands holding hands lower than elbows
B. hands will be in up position (Correct Answer)
C. hands be on down position
D. not need be dried
118) to protect themselves from splashes and spills,Central service technicians assigned to the decontamination area should wear
A. double-cloth gowns
B. blue surgical scrubs
C. fluid resistant gloves (Correct Answer)
D. sterile operating room gowns
119) the main theory of standards precautions is that:
A. patients in high – risk categories may be infectious
B. patients diagnosed with a specific disease may be infectious
C. patient are generally healthy unless they show syptoms of an infectious disease
D. patient may pose risk of infection whether they have been diagnosed with an infectious disease or not. (Correct Answer)
120) which of the following is NOT a requirement of the OSHA blood borne pathogen standard?
A. provide hepatitis B vaccine to employees at no cost
B. observe standards precautions
C. keep bio-hazard areas locked (Correct Answer)
D. use engineering controls to prevent bio-hazard exposures
121) following standards precautions protocols is required by:
A. the FDA
B. the NFPA
C. the EPA
D. OSHA (Correct Answer)
122) Departmental dress code apply to:
A. everyone entering the central service department (Correct Answer)
B. only hospital employees
C. only persons who will be spending more than 10 minutes in the central service work area.
D. only visitors such as sales reps, maintenance personnel. etc..
123) inanimate objects that can transmit bacteria are called:
A. transmission devices
B. fomites (Correct Answer)
C. carriers
D. framiseals
124) Cholera is an infection of the small intestine transmitted by :
A. common vehicle (Correct Answer)
B. airborne
C. vector bone
D. contact
125) floors in the central service department should be:
A. wet – mopped daily or using a wet dry machine daily (Correct Answer)
B. wet mopped weekly
C. swept daily and wet mopped weekly
D. swept dialy
126) the absence of microorganisms that cause disease is called:
A. infection prevention
B. infection control
C. asepsis (Correct Answer)
D. HIA- control
127) know what is dirty,know what is clean,know what is sterile keep the three conditions separate, and remedy contamination immediately are:
A. the principles of asepsis (Correct Answer)
B. the basics of blood-borne pathogen standard
C. the principles of infection prevention and control
D. the basics of environmental control
128) what color should bio-hazard labels/signs be:
A. red/orange (Correct Answer)
B. orange/yellow
C. orange/blue
D. green/black
129) the decontamination area of the central service department should have:
A. 10 air exchanges per hour (Correct Answer)
B. 15 air exchanges per hour
C. 20 air exchanges per hour
D. no air exchanges because is a bio-hazard area
130) which of these traffic control/dress code requirements applies to the operating room?
A. biohazard
B. unrestricted
C. semi-restricted
D. restricted (Correct Answer)
131) which of the following is a system used to treat the final rinse water used for cleaning?
A. water conductivity
B. sanitization
C. deionization (Correct Answer)
D. sterilization
132) bluish or rainbow-type stains are caused by _______ in water.
A. cholides and solids
B. iron and silicates (Correct Answer)
C. calcium
D. fluoride
133) The ideal level of silicates in water used for cleaning is __________ ppm or less.
A. 200
B. 150
C. 100 (Correct Answer)
D. 50
134) Purified water should have a ph of ____?
A. 4.5 – 5-5
B. 5.5 – 6.5
C. 6.5 – 7.5 (Correct Answer)
D. 7.5 – 8.5
135) tap water should ideally have a chloride concentration of __________ ppm or less.
A. 200
B. 150
C. 100 (Correct Answer)
D. 50
136) water purification usually involves the use of a:
A. pre-filter
B. post-filter
C. pre-filter or post-filter
D. pre-and post – filter (Correct Answer)
137) water that turbid is :
A. hot
B. tepid
C. clear
D. cloudy (Correct Answer)
138) water softeners are used to remove _________ in the water.
A. iron and pyrogens
B. silicates and pyrogens
C. chloride and iron
D. calcium and magnesium (Correct Answer)
139) deionized water is used for:
A. sterile irrigation
B. heating/cooling therapy units (Correct Answer)
C. injection
D. steam sterilizers
140) which of the following can be removed from water when a reverse osmosis process is used?
A. bacteria
B. pyrogens
C. endotoxins
D. all of the above (Correct Answer)
141) multi-enzimatic cleaning products containing lipase are useful for cleaning:
A. protein soils
B. starches
C. fats (Correct Answer)
D. sugars
142) which of the following kills microorganisms?
A. soaps
B. detergents
C. germicidal detergents (Correct Answer)
D. enzyme presoaks
143) the process of pre-cleaning should begin:
A. as soon as devices reach the central service area
B. immediately after the completion of an invasive procedure (Correct Answer)
C. immediately after instruments are inspected
D. before items are sorted
144) the main purpose of manual cleaners is to:
A. kill microorganisms
B. remove soil (Correct Answer)
C. reduce cleaning costs
D. provide back-ups if automated equipment is not working
145) which of the following techniques for brushing instruments should be used?
A. brushing should be done under water (Correct Answer)
B. brushing should be done above water
C. brushing should be done against the grain of the device
D. brushes made of wire are the best because of their exceptional cleaning ability
146) what is the coolest part of the sterilizer?
A. drain line of the sterilizer (Correct Answer)
B. center of the sterilizer
C. bottom of the sterilizer
D. side of the sterilizer
147) autoclave sterilizer is a _____ class of device.
A. class I (Correct Answer)
B. no class
C. class III
D. class II
148) In a sterilization load containing 2 small basins, the chemicals indicators will be positioned.
A. on the middle of the basins
B. on the top of the basins (Correct Answer)
C. on the lowest par of the basin
D. on the handles to check proper identification
149) package condensation will occur when:
A. Placing hot or warm packages in cold surfaces (Correct Answer)
B. wet packs
C. because a water leak in the sterilizer
D. open to soon the sterilizer door
150) what is the preferred pH of detergents used for most cleaning processes?
A. low pH
B. high pH
C. neutral pH (Correct Answer)
D. it depends on the water temperature and exposure time
151) system that includes inflatable compression sleeves and a characteristic pressure modulation in order to reduce risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
A. gastric suction unit
B. Sequential compression device (Correct Answer)
C. IV pump
D. defribilator
152) which of the following is an example or regulated medical waste.
A. discarded sterilization wraps
B. blood soaked sponges (Correct Answer)
C. user copier toner cartridges
D. general trash from the surgery department
153) the moisture content of saturated steam should posses a relative humidity of:
A. 88% to 100%
B. 97% to 100% (Correct Answer)
C. 99% to 100%
D. 50% to 50%
154) which of the following statements about the use of mechanical washers is NOT true?
A. multi level trays should be separated
B. trays with lids should be opened
C. instruments should be disassembled and opened
D. all items should be washed on the same cycle (Correct Answer)
155) water must be degassed each time the ultrasonic cleaner’s tank is changed because:
A. excess bubbles from filling reduce the energy of the cavitation process. (Correct Answer)
B. excess bubbles reduce the efectiveness of the detergent
C. excess bubbles decrease the temperature of the tank
D. excess bubbles make it difficult to see items being cleaned.
156) specialized clothing or equipment worn by employee for protection against a hazard is called:
A. restricted apparel
B. safety apparel
C. hazard equipment
D. personal protective equipment. (Correct Answer)
157) written cleaning instructions for surgical instruments should be provided by:
A. the mechanical washer manufacturer
B. the instrument manufacturer
C. the detergent manufacturer (Correct Answer)
D. the healthcare facility
158) pyrogens:
A. are fever-producing substances
B. are microorganisms that have survived sterilization (Correct Answer)
C. cause CJD
D. are soil particles
159) softener water:
A. increases the likehood of mineral scale deposits
B. decreases the likehood of mineral scale deposits (Correct Answer)
C. is not compatible with detergents
D. can cause rusting of metal instruments
160) the desired solution for cleaning instruments is:
A. soap
B. steam
C. a disinfectant
D. a detergent (Correct Answer)
161) these are used to breakdown fatty tissue on instruments:
A. protease enzimes
B. lipaze enzimes (Correct Answer)
C. amylaze enzimes
D. neutral pH cleaners
162) instrument lubrication is performed:
A. immediate before use
B. after sterilization
C. after cleaning (Correct Answer)
D. before cleaning
163) to prevent coagulation of proteins water temperature should be:
A. below 43°C (110°f) (Correct Answer)
B. above 43°C (110°f)
C. below 100° (212°f)
D. below 24°C (75°F)
164) detergents used in a mechanical cleaners should be:
A. low alkanine
B. low acid
C. low temperature
D. low foaming (Correct Answer)
165) aluminum items should be cleaned:
A. using a circular motion
B. using a to and fro motion with the grain (Correct Answer)
C. using a stiff metal brush
D. using a water spray
166) powered surgical instruments:
A. can not be inmersed (Correct Answer)
B. can be inmersed
C. should be cleaned at the point of use
D. should be cleaned using a mechanical washer
167) the use of heat to kill all microorganisms except spores is called:
A. sterilization
B. thermal disinfection (Correct Answer)
C. high level disinfection
D. mechanical disinfection
168) these chemicals are used on animate “living tissue” to slow the growth of microorganisms
A. glutaraldehydes
B. disinfectants
C. halogens
D. antiseptics (Correct Answer)
169) items that are introduced directly into the bloodstream or other normally sterile areas of the body are classified as:
A. critical items (Correct Answer)
B. semi critical items
C. non critical items
D. equipment
170) the process by which all forms of microorganisms are completely destroyed is called:
A. high level disinfection
B. thermal disinfection
C. sterilization (Correct Answer)
D. chemical disinfection
171) iodophors are member of this disinfectant family:
A. halogens (Correct Answer)
B. quaternary ammonium compounds
C. alcohol
D. phenolics
172) phenolics are classified as:
A. intermediate to low level disinfectants (Correct Answer)
B. intermediate to high level disinfectants
C. high level disinfectants
D. sterilants
173) which of the following are classified as high level disinfectants?
A. glutaraldehyde and phenolics
B. glutaraldehyde and OPA (Correct Answer)
C. quaternary ammonium compounds and phenolics
D. halogens and OPA
174) THERMAL DISINFECTION IS ACCOMPLISHED USING:
A. heated chemicals
B. heated glurataldehyde
C. prolonged high pressure steam
D. heated water (Correct Answer)
175) how long must alcohol remain in wet contact with an item to achieve a reasonable level of disinfection
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes (Correct Answer)
C. 10 minutes
D. 20 minutes