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Disaster Management MCQs :- appsc | upsc
1) In which Phase of Disaster damage Assessment is done?
A. Warning phase
B. Impact Phase
C. Rescue phase
D. Re-Habilitation Phase
Answer: D
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2) In relation to Disaster Preparedness, which one of the following is more serious from response point of view?
A. 1st alert
B. 2nd alert
Answer: B
3) A physical situation which may cause human injury, damage to property or the environment, is called
A. Hazard
B. Risk
Answer: A
4) The likelihood of an undesired event occurring within a particular period or under specified circumstances is known as
A. Hazard
B. Risk
Answer: B
5) Which of the following is the main contributory cause for Pipeline Disasters in the world?
A. Third-party Activity
B. Corrosion
C. Mechanical failure
D. Operational failures
Answer: A
6) Root Cause Analysis of Disasters can be done through which of the following methods?
A. HAZOP
B. Checklist
C. Consequence Analysis
D. Why-Why
Answer: D
7) ‘Blow-Out’ is a Natural Disaster.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
8) The principle which takes into account the precautions to be taken being on safer side and avoidance of taking undue risks from hazards, the damage potential of which is not yet fully known, is known as:
A. Guiding Principle
B. Risk Assessment Principle
C. Hazard Analysis Principle
D. Precautionary Principle
Answer: D
9) The agreement or understanding that has been reached among various nearby industries to help each other during emergency is called:
A. Memorandum of Agreement
B. Agreement of Mock-exercise
C. Industrial Charter
D. Mutual-Aid Agreement
Answer: D
10) How many Safety Integrity Levels exists?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
11) Which of the following SIL levels represents Catastrophic impacts of a Disaster?
A. SIL-1
B. SIL-2
C. SIL-3
D. SIL-4
Answer: D
12) What could be the Primary and Secondary Protections for protection of a vessel against Over-pressure situation?
A. PSH and PSV
B. PSL and ESS
C. LSL and ESD
D. FSL and FSV
Answer: A
13) In a Oil and Gas Drilling rig, an area within 4.5 m of the shale shaker in open air is considered as:
A. Zone-1
B. Zone-2
C. Zone-0
Answer: A
14) The area within 3 meter from the discharge nozzle of the relief valve is considered as:
A. Zone-0
B. Zone-2
C. Zone-1
Answer: B
15) Which of the following will be found on a Material Safety Data Sheet?
A. Spill and leak procedures
B. Health Hazard Information
C. Special protection Information
D. All of the above
Answer: D
16) Section 2 of an MSDS will have information about
A. Hazardous ingredirents
B. Fire and Explosion data
C. Reactivity data
D. Manufacturers’ data
Answer: A
17) In case of an emergency involving a chemical or product, an emergency telephone number can be found in which section of the MSDS?
A. Section 1
B. Section 2
C. Section 5
D. Section 8
Answer: A
18) The yellow portion of a NFPA diamond represents:
A. Health Hazard
B. Flammability Hazard
C. Reactivity Hazard
D. Special Hazard Information
Answer: B
19) The ill-health effect caused by one-time, sudden, high exposures is often called:
A. Chronic effect
B. Acute effect
C. Systematic effect
Answer: B
20) Monitoring the levels of exposure to toxic substances is medically done through analysis of body fluids e.g. blood, urine, expired air etc. The process is known as:
A. Condition monitoring
B. Biological conditioning
C. Exposure monitoring
D. Biological monitoring
Answer: D
21) The ratio of Amount of toxic chemical to the IDLH value of the chemical is called:
A. Fire Load
B. Toxic Load
C. Pollution Load
D. Toxicological Load
Answer: B
22) Which of the following steps of Toxic Risk Assessment exercise considers the possible routes of entry of chemicals into body and its reaction thereby?
A. 1st step
B. 2nd step
C. 3rd step
D. 4th step
Answer: C
23) About 2 ppm of Chlorine concentration in Air causes?
A. Irritation of eyes and nose
B. Irritation of throat
C. Intense cough & fits
D. Immediate death
Answer: A
24) If ‘Cash’ is a hazard, theft is the consequence, then if ‘electricity’ is the hazard, what could be the consequence ?
A. Damage
B. Hearing loss
C. loss of water
D. shock
Answer: D
25) What is the purpose of hazard identification in Disaster preparedness?
A. to identify the probable causes of disasters
B. to identify the probable disaster scenarios
C. to quatify the consequences
D. to suggest mitigation measures
Answer: B
26) ‘Pareto Analysis’ is a:
A. Risk quantification technique
B. Risk analysis technique
C. Risk mitigation technique
D. Risk prioritization technique
Answer: D
27) ‘HAZID’ is done to carry out safety hazard identification, what is it known as which is used for identification of environmental issues?
A. ENVID
B. WBCSD
C. ENVDI
D. Sustainability
Answer: A
28) Atmospheric Stability Class D corresponds to which of the following weather conditions?
A. Slightly Stable
B. Stable
C. Highly unstable
D. Neutral
Answer: D
29) An estimated Risk of $2 \times 10^{-4}$ per year means:
A. One chance in 100 years
B. One chance in 10000 years
C. Two chances in 10000 years
D. Two chances in every 1000 years
Answer: C
30) When unacceptable risk is brought under the acceptability criteria through additional risk reduction measures, the identified risk is said to be within
A. As low as Regularly Possible (ALARP) zone
B. As low as Reasonably Practicable (ALARP) zone
C. As low as Reasonably Possible (ALARP) zone
D. As low as Rationally Probable (ALARP) zone
Answer: B
31) In Risk Analysis, Vulnerability Model represents:
A. How many persons will be effected due to exposure
B. How much area will be effected due to the event
C. How long the effect will last in the community
D. How probable that the community will be effected
Answer: A
32) Under damage criteria due to explosion pressure wave, 0.3 bar over pressure represents that:
A. 10% houses will get damaged
B. 90% houses will be seriously damaged
C. Windows of houses will be smashed
D. Glass of doors and windows will break
Answer: B
33) The catastrophic failure of a pressure vessel due to intense heating from a torch fire or a severe mechanical impact is commonly known as:
A. UCVCE
B. CE
C. BLEVE
D. Cascading effect
Answer: C
34) In Risk Assessment, 20/80 principle means:
A. 80% of total risk comes from 20% of cases
B. 20% of total risk originates from 80% of cases
Answer: A
35) Which one of the following has more damaging effect after a liquefied flammable gas release?
A. Early Ignition
B. Delayed Ignition
Answer: B
36) In Layer of Protection (LOP) Analysis, which of protection covers an ‘onsite Emergency Plan’?
A. 1st Layer
B. 3rd Layer
C. 5th Layer
D. 4th Layer
Answer: D
37) Which of the following is a hazard quantification method?
A. FMEA
B. Fault-tree
C. HAZOP
D. What-if Analysis
Answer: B
38) Cause-Consequence Analysis (CCA) is a combination of:
A. Fault-tree & Event tree Analyses
B. Fault-tree & HAZOP Analyses
C. MCA & Event tree Analyses
D. MCA & HAZOP Analyses
Answer: A
39) The roles and responsibilities identified for disaster responses under Disaster Management Plan is known as:
A. Incident Organogram
B. Disaster Response Structure
C. Incident Command System
Answer: C
40) The responsibility of press briefing during a disaster event normally rests on:
A. Incident Controller
B. Public relation Controller
C. Transport Controller
D. Security Controller
Answer: B
41) Whose responsibility normally it is to declare an Onsite Emergency in an industry?
A. Incident Controller
B. Site Main Controller
C. Key person (Fire and safety)
Answer: B
42) Under which section of the Factories Act, 1948 (amended to 1987), an occupier of a factory has to formulate an Onsite Emergency Plan?
A. 41-B(4)
B. Section 13 – B(2)
C. Section 46 – B(5)
Answer: A
43) Indian Coast Guard has capabilities for responding to which tier of Oil spill contingencies?
A. Tier-I
B. Tier-II
C. Tier-III
Answer: B
44) Which of the following techniques are not used for Oil spill response?
A. Use of booms and Skimming
B. Use of dispersants
C. Burning
D. Bio-recovery
Answer: B
45) A hazardous chemical can be identified by which of the following numbers?
A. ID Number
B. NFPA Number
C. UN Number
D. Hazard index Number
Answer: C
46) Under various zones created around an incident site for effective response, which one normally used for command, control and support mobilization purposes?
A. Cold zone
B. Hot zones
C. Warm zone
Answer: A
47) Within which zone “Emergency Control Center” can be situated?
A. Hot zone
B. Support zone
C. Warm zone
Answer: B
48) ‘THERP’ study is related to:
A. Risk Perception
B. Safety Analysis
C. Human error
D. Work study
Answer: C
49) Which of the following is not a technological factor used for Vulnerability assessment?
A. Process Safety
B. Individual difference
C. Communication failure
Answer: B
50) Which of the following is a human error in Disaster Management model?
A. Error of Omission
B. Typographical errors
C. Error of Commision
D. All of the above
Answer: D
51) Secondary fires are caused due to which of the following phenomenon?
A. Flash back
B. Burn-back
C. Fire spread
D. domino effect
Answer: B
52) What is the safe level of heat radiation (in Kw/m^2)for an average human being?
A. 1.75
B. 2.8
C. 6.4
D. 14.4
Answer: A
53) A Deep burn, characterized by destruction of all skin layers is termed as:
A. 1st degree burn
B. 2nd degree burn
C. 3rd degree burn
Answer: C
54) A Probit equation used for calculation of effects due to:
A. Flammability
B. Toxicity
C. both Flammability and toxicity
Answer: C
55) In Risk estimation, a F-N curve is referred to depict which of the following risks?
A. Individual Risk
B. Group Risk
C. Process Risk
Answer: B
56) The uncontrolled sudden violent escape of well fluids during oil and gas exploitation activities is known as:
A. Blow out
B. Burn out
C. explosion
D. Blast out
Answer: A
57) Which of the following classifications of blowout causes minor level of pollution?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class IV
D. Class V
Answer: D
58) A normally directional well drilled to establish a direct communication with the well under blow out, is known as:
A. New well
B. Rehabilitatory well
C. Relief well
D. killing well
Answer: C
59) Lethality (Pr) can be calculated from Probit equation by:
A. Pr = a + b ln(c/t)
B. Pr = a + b ln(c.t)
C. Pr = a + b ln(c+t)
D. Pr = a + b ln(t/c)
Answer: B
60) Under which regulation the local authority is responsible for preparation of an offsite Emergency plan?
A. MSIHC Rules
B. Hazardous Chemical handling Rules
C. PMP Acts & Rules
Answer: A
61) Which of the following crisis groups are responsible for preparation of offsite response plan at local level?
A. State Crisis Group
B. Local Crisis Group
C. District Crisis Group
Answer: B
62) The purpose of Hazard maps is to identify and display the location of:
A. Hazard zones
B. Risk zones
C. Vulnerability zones
D. Decontamination zones
Answer: A
63) Immediate danger area following a toxic gas leak is based upon the substance’s:
A. IDLH
B. STEL
C. TLV
D. Ceiling value
Answer: A
64) The maximum injury causing distance following a toxic gas release will be dependent on the material’s:
A. IDLH
B. STEL
C. TLV
D. Ceiling value
Answer: B
65) Evacuation maps are made based on concentration contours of a toxic release in:
A. Downwind direction
B. Cross-wind direction
C. both the directions
Answer: C
66) In Uncertainty analysis, if the uncertainties are related to the chances of an incident happening, it is called
A. Aleatory uncertainty
B. Epistemic uncertainty
Answer: A
67) An area surrounding an incident site where public may be exposed to dangerous and life threatening concentrations of toxic materials is known as:
A. Initial isolation zone
B. Protective zone
C. Decontamination zone
Answer: A
68) An emergency action code designed to help the fire fighters to know readily the actions to be taken in case of fire or spillage of a particular hazardous substance is called:
A. HAZCHEM code
B. UN Number
C. CAS Number
Answer: A
69) How many Hazard Class Labels exist for different hazardous substances?
A. 10
B. 9
C. 7
D. 5
Answer: B
70) The written emergency information carries by the driver of all vehicles carrying hazardous substances is known as:
A. HAZCHEM
B. TREMCARD
C. Emergency Information pane
Answer: B
71) Emergency Information Panel contains:
A. Class Lebel
B. UN Number
C. HAZCHEM code
D. All the above
Answer: D
72) The vehicle equipped with rescue and personal protective equipment to be used for rescue purposes is known as:
A. Rescue vehicle
B. Rescue trolley vehicle
C. Rescue Tender
Answer: A or C.
73) The Plan prepared for facilitating the prompt return to the normalcy and continuity of operation after a disaster is called:
A. Rescue Plan
B. Relief Plan
C. Recovery Plan
Answer: C
74) Which of the following is not the part of Disaster Mitigation Planning?
A. Emergency Communication
B. Disaster warning system
C. Risk and vulnerability analysis
D. Insurance requirements
Answer: A
75) The information required for the preparation of a Disaster Plan is called:
A. Strategic information
B. Tactical Information
C. Operational Information
D. Statutory information
Answer: A
76) One of the mostly used ways to communicate risk of any hazardous material is:
A. MSDS
B. Pareto chart
C. Emergency Information panel
Answer: A
77) Area where head count are usually taken after the evacuation of the affected area is known as:
A. Shelter area
B. Head-count area
C. Mustering area
D. Rescued area
Answer: C
78) Which of the following is an example of fixed hazard?
A. Toxic Gas release
B. Explosion
C. Pool fire
Answer: C
79) The technique utilized in analyzing disaster response preparedness in industry is called:
A. HAZOP
B. ER-HAZOP
C. What-if
D. Disaster Mapping
Answer: B
80) The type of personal protection required when the greatest potential for exposure to hazards exists is:
A. Level-A
B. Level-B
C. Level-C
D. Level-D
Answer: A
81) The first responders who usually experience strong emotional feelings while handling emergencies is said to be under:
A. Critical stress
B. Critical Incident Stress
C. Critical Incident Recall
Answer: B
82) The best way to audit the efficacy of the disaster preparedness is:
A. Walk-through survey
B. Table-top exercises
C. Mock drills at field
Answer: C
83) Which of the following situation arises to the human body while responding to emergencies?
A. Body rapidly produces Adrenaline
B. Heart beat increases
C. Temperature increases
D. All of the above
Answer: D