300+ TOP Medical Science Objective Questions and Answers

MEDICAL SCIENCE Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. Regarding serratus anterior muscle which is incorrect?

A. Multipinnate muscle
B. Lifts arm above the shoulder
C. Supplied by long thoracic nerve
D. Originates from lower eight ribs

Answer: D

2. The treatment of choice for atticoantral variety of chronic suppurative otitis media is:

A. Mastoidectomy
B. Medical management
C. Underlay myringoplasty
D. Insertion of ventilation tube

Answer: A

3. All of the following are the complications in the new born of a diabetic mother except?

A. Hyperbilirubinemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia

Answer: B

4. The correct line of management in child who has swallowed a coin is?

A. Fiber optic endoscopy
B. Rigid endoscopy
C. Laparotomy
D. Wait and Watch

Answer: D

5. Helper cells belong to?

A. T cells
B. Macrophages
C. B cells
D. Monocytes
Answer: A

6. Mac Ewen’s triangle can be felt through the?

A. Superior conchae
B. Cymba conchae
C. Middle conchae
D. Posterior part of auricle
Answer: B

7. Most common strain of E.coil giving rise to traveller’s diarrhoea is?

A. Entero-invasive E.coil
B. Entero-pathogenic E.coil
C. Entero-toxigenic E.coil
D. Entero-aggregative E.coil

Answer: C

8. With urine turning green on ferric chloride test, the diagnosis is:

A. Phenylketonuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
D. Glutaric aciduria

Answer: A

9. For assessing the ability of protein utilisation the best index is?

A. Urea
B. Uric acid
C. Blood ammonia
D. Urinary nitrogen content

Answer: D

10. Screening test is not useful when?

A. Incidence of the disease
B. Incidence is low in the community
C. Early detection leads to favorable outcome
D. The disease has a lead time

Answer: B

MEDICAL SCIENCE Objective Questions
MEDICAL SCIENCE MCQs

11. Nerve not related to humerus is?

A. Radial
B. Median
C. Axillary
D. Musculocutaneous

Answer: D

12. What is the percentage of chances of hydatidiform mole to develop choriocarcinoma?

A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 50%
D. 80%

Answer: B

13. Vasomotor reversal of Dale is because of?

A. Block of alpha receptors
B. Block of alpha & beta receptors
C. Agonistic action on alpha receptors
D. Adrenaline only

Answer: A

14. Primary visual field is situated around the ______ sulcus?
A. Central
B. Calcarine
C. Superior temporal
D. Inferior occipital

Answer: B

15. Medical treatment for BPH includes?

A. Finesteride
B. Methyl testosterone
C. Oestrogens
D. Osmic acid

Answer: A

16. Anterior dislocation of shoulder causes all except?

A. Circumflex artery injury
B. Avascular necrosis head of humerous
C. Brachial plexus injury
D. Chip fracture scapula

Answer: D

17. HIV is a?

A. Retrovirus
B. Flavivirus
C. Oncovirus
D. Arbovirus

Answer: A

18. In shigella dysentery associated hemolytic uremic syndrome, the false statement is?

A. Leucocytosis
B. Neurological abnormalities
C. Hepatic failure
D. Thrombotic angiopathy

Answer: C

19. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is caused by?

A. Type I secrotype
B. Re-infection with the same serotype of dengue virus
C. Re-infection with the different serotype of the dengue virus
D. Re-infection in immunocompromised host

Answer: C

20. When the sample size is less than 30, one of the following modifications is made in the formula of standard deviation?

A. Numerator is increased
B. Denominator is decreased
C. Both numerator and denominator are changed
D. Numerator is decreased

Answer: B

21. Oesophagus receives blood supply from all except?

A. Inferior thyroid artery
B. Inferior phrenic artery
C. Internal mammary artery
D. Bronchial artery

Answer: C

22. All are pencillinase resistant except?

A. Methicillin
B. Nafcillin
C. Penicillin
D. Dicioxacillin

Answer: C

23. Mild hemolyti anaemia is associated with vitamin.. . Deficiency?

A. B6
B. E
C. A
D. C

Answer: B

24. Trimethoprim acts by?

A. Inhibiting DHFR
B. Inhibiting cell metabolism
C. Inhibiting DNA
D. Inhibiting RNA

Answer: A

25. Paradoxically split second heart sound signifies severe?

A. Pulmonary stenosis
B. Mitral stenosis
C. aortic stenosis
D. tricuspid stenosis

Answer: C

26. Riboflavin nutritional status is assessed by?

A. Xanthine oxidase levels in RBC’s
B. Glutathione reductase activation in RBC’s
C. Urine excretion of Riboflavin
D. Cytochrome- C-reductase levels in kidneys

Answer: B

27. Provision of free medical care to the people at government expense is known as?

A. State medicine
B. Social therapy
C. Social medicine
D. Social insurance programme

Answer: A

28. Shortest sacrocotyloid diameter causing narrowing of pelvis is a feature of which type of maternal pelvis?

A. Android
B. Gynaecoid
C. Platypelloid
D. Anthropoid

Answer: C

29. What is Bennett’s fracture?

A. Fracture dislocation of base of first metacarpal
B. Fracture dislocation of base of first metatarsal
C. Fracture of first metatarsal
D. Fracture of first metacarpal

Answer: B

30. All the following techniques are helpful in the diagnosis of haemoglobinopathies, except?

A. Alkali denaturation test
B. Cellulose acetate electrophoric
C. Sickling test
D. Osmotic fragility test

Answer: D

31. Which of the following is not likely in patients taking amiodarone?

A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Gynaecomastia

Answer: D

32. Which of the following helps in preventing colon cancer?

A. High fiber diet
B. Selenium
C. Antioxidants
D. Fatty food

Answer: A

33. Size of ovary, above which considered to be malignant?

A. 2 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 10 cm

34. Cadaveric spasm

A. Instant in onset
B. Confined to small group of muscles
C. Occurs only in voluntary muscles
D. All of the above
Answer: D

35. The radionuclide used for ventriculography is

A. Thallium
B. Technetium
C. Gallium
D. Pottasium

Answer: B

36. “Signet ring cells” are seen in?

A. Carcinoma cervix
B. Carcinoma endometrium
C. Krukkenberg tumour
D. Carcinoma vulva

Answer: C

37. Cimetidine was synthesized by?

A. Black
B. Upjohn
C. Lindsay
D. Lilly

Answer: A

38. Nutritional status of children between 0-4 years in a community can be assesed by all except?

A. Mortality in 0-4 years
B. Birth weight of less than 2.5 gm
C. Maternal Hb D. Height and weight of all preschool children

Answer: C

39. Pulmonary fibrosis in Bronchogenic carcinoma of lung may follow exposure to?

A. Coal dust
B. Silica
C. Asbestos
D. Bagasse

Answer: C

40. Ejection fraction increases with?

A. Decrease end-systolic volume
B. Decrease end-diastolic volume
C. Decreased peripheral resistance
D. Venodilation

Answer: A

41. Which is NOT visualized on posterior rhinoscopy?

A. Eustachian tube
B. Inferior meatus
C. Middle turbinate
D. Posterior border of nasal septum

Answer: B

42. Which one of the following would cause a metabolic acidosis is with a normal anion gap?

A. Renal tubular acidosis
B. Acute renal failure
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Aspirin overdose

Answer: A

43. All of the following organs contain aneurysm in polyarteritis nodosa except?

A. Liver
B. Lung
C. Kidney
D. Pancreas

Answer: C

44. Diphtheria toxin acts by?

A. Inhibiting Acetyl Choline release
B. Inhibiting glucose transport
C. Increasing levels of Cyclic AMP
D. Inhibiting protein synthesis

Answer: D

45. Smokeless gun powder is composed of?

A. KMno4
B. HCN
C. Nitrocellulose
D. Sulphur

Answer: C

46. Cetuximab (an EGFR antagonist. can be used in?

A. Palliation in head and neck cancer
B. Anal canal carcinoma
C. Gastric cancer
D. Small cell lung carcinoma

Answer: A

47. The formula showing relations of pressure, thickness and radius?

A. Laplace formula
B. Ohm’s law
C. Pascal’s law
D. Poisseulle’s formula

Answer: A

48. Dapsone is useful for treating all except?

A. Leprosy
B. Dermatitis Herpetiformis
C. Madura Foot
D. Lymphoma

Answer: D

49. The most important factor to overcome protein energy malnuntrition in children less than 3yrs is;

A. Suply of subsidized food from ration shop
B. Early supplimentation of solids in infants
C. immunization to the child
D. Treatment of anaemia and pneumonia in infant and toddlers

Answer: B

50. The binding of 2,3 BPG to Hemoglobin is to?

A. Carboxyterminal
B. Amino terminal
C. Sulphydryl groups
D. None of the above

Answer: B

MEDICAL SCIENCE Objective type Questions with Answers

51. Dissociate anaesthesia is described with which of the following?

A. Propofol
B. ketamine
C. Thipental
D. Halothane

Answer: B

52. In colour Doppler the colour depends upon?

A. Strength of returning echo
B. Relation of transducer to blood flow
C. Frequency of Doppler used
D. Type of Doppler machine used

Answer: B

53. The commonest cause of breech presentation is:

A. Prematuarity
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Placenta praevia
D. Polyhydramnios

Answer: A

54. Which of the following pathologic processes in an example of dysplasia?

A. Actinic keratosis
B. Chronic cystitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Ulcerative colitis
Answer: A

55. True regarding tubercular meningitis:

A. Generally occurs as dissemination of a miliary tuberculosis
B. The cranial nerves frequently are involved
C. The most common affected leptomeninges are at the base of the brain
D. Communicating and obstructive hydrocephalus cortical abscesses, and empyemas are very uncommon complications

Answer: D

56. Haemostasis means?

A. Coagulation
B. Maintenance of electrolyte balance
C. Sufficient hydration
D. Arrest of bleeding

Answer: D

57. The average coronary blood flow in human being at rest is _ % of cardiac output ?

A. 4.5%
B. 5-10%
C. 10-15%
D. 15-20%

Answer: A

58. Rigor mortis first starts in?

A. Upper eyelids
B. Lower eyelids
C. Lower limbs
D. Fingers

Answer: A

59. Madura foot is caused by?

A. Blastomycosis
B. Nocardia
C. Candida albicans
D. Tinea versicolor

Answer: B

60. Population of 10000, birth rate 36 per 1000, 5 maternal deaths, the MMR is?

A. 14.5
B. 13.8
C. 20
D. 5

Answer: B

61. Which of the following is not in WHO surveillance?

A. Rabies
B. Influenza
C. Malaraia
D. Varicella
Answer: D

62. The cause of breech presentation are all except?

A. Previous caesarean section
B. Placenta previa
C. Contracted pelvis
D. Oligohydramnios

Answer: A

63. True about minoxidil is?

A. Increases hair growth
B. Antihypertensive
C. Both
D. None

Answer: C

64. Cold agglutinins are seen in?

A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Psittacosis
C. Legionella pneumonia
D. TB

Answer: A

65. No. of negative stools mandatory to release a case from isolation in typhoid?

A. 3 samples same day
B. 2 samples on first day and 1 sample on the second day
C. 1 sample of first day and 2 samples on the second day
D. 3 samples on 3 separate days

Answer: D

66. The most specific feature of death due to hanging is?

A. Tardieu spots
B. Ligature mark
C. Fracture of thyroid cartilage
D. Dribbling of saliva

Answer: D

67. Cauliflower ear is due to?

A. Haematoma
B. Carcinoma
C. Fungal infection
D. Herpes

Answer: A

68. Following agents have effects on the NMJ, EXCEPT

A. Curare
B. Decamethonium
C. Succinylcholine
D. Hexamethonium

Answer: D

69. Entamoeba, which is not found in gut?

A. E.coli
B. E.histolytica
C. E.gingivalis
D. E.nana

Answer: C

70. most deaths involving placenta previa result from?

A. Infection
B. Toxemia
C. Hemorrhage
D. Thrombophlebitis

Answer: C

71. Tympanic plexus is formed by?

A. Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. mandibular nerve

Answer: A

72. Prolactin?

A. Facilitates
B. Prevents ovulation in lactating women
C. In responsible for formation of corpus luteum
D. Is responsible for progesterone secretion

Answer: B

73. Herpes zoster involves?

A. Otic ganglion
B. Gasserian ganlion
C. Geniculate
D. Celiac ganglion

Answer: B

74. In wolf- parkinson white syndrome, there exist a connection between atria and?

A. Bundle of His
B. Ventricles
C. A-V node
D. Purknje fibres

Answer: B

75. Polyhydramnios is seen in all the following except:

A. Diabetes
B. Renal agenesis
C. Esophageal atresia
D. Hydronephrosis

Answer: B

76. Following is the adjuvant for the treatment of nephrotic syndrome?

A. levamisole as immunomodulant
B. B.complex
C. cyclosporin
D. steroid

Answer: D

77. Subarachnoid Haemorrhage is diagnosed by?

A. Lumbar puncture
B. CT scan
C. MRI
D. X-ray skull

Answer: A

78. Disturbances of affect include all except?

A. Panic
B. Apathy
C. Phobia
D. Obsession

Answer: D

79. Deep transverse arrest is seen in?

A. Occipito-posterior position
B. Occipito-anterior position
C. Breech delivery
D. Face presentation

Answer: A

80. Kallu, a 25 yr male pt.presented with a red eye and complains of pain, photophobia ,watering and blurred vision. He gives a history of trauma to his eye with a vegetable matter. Corneal examination shows a dendritic ulcer. A corneal scraping was taken and

A. Herpes simplex
B. Acanthambea
C. Candida
D. Aeno virus

Answer: B

81. Glass vessels and syringes are best sterilised by

A. Hot air oven
B. Autoclaving
C. Irradiation
D. Ethylene oxide

Answer: A

82. Management of extradural hemorrhage is:

A. Immediate evacuation
B. Evacuation after 24 hrs
C. Antibiotics
D. Observation

Answer: A

83. A Post- Thyroidectomy patient develops signs and symptoms of Tetany. The management is?

A. I.v.Calcium gluconate
B. Bicarbonate
C. Calcitonin
D. Vitamin D

Answer: A

84. The most effective treatment in the early stages of trachoma is?

A. Penicillin locally
B. Choromycetin systemically
C. Sulphonamides systemically
D. Soframycin locally

Answer: C

85. Ideal treatment of Tinosporidiosis is:

A. Rifamipicin
B. Excision with cautery at base
C. Dapsone
D. Laser

Answer: B

86. Epithelium of cornea is?

A. Pseudostratified
B. Transitional
C. Stratified squamous keratinized
D. Stratified squamous non-keratinised

Answer: D

87. Bagasosis can be prevented by spraying Bagasse with?

A. 10% acetic acid
B. 5% acetic acid
C. 1% propionic acid
D. 2% propionic acid

Answer: D

88. Mc Ardles disease is due to the deficiency of?

A. Glu 1 phosphatase
B. Gluc1, 6 diphosphatase
C. Gluc 6 phosphatase
D. Myophosphorylase

Answer: D

89. Satiety center in hypothalamus is regulated by?

A. Gastric dilatation
B. Blood glucose levels
C. Blood insulin levels
D. All of the above

Answer: B

90. Coagulative necrosis is seen in all except?

A. Myocardial infarction
B. Burns
C. Tuberculosis
D. Zenker’s degeneration
Answer: D

91. The relationship between incidence and prevalence can be expressed as the?

A. Product of incidence and mean duration of disease
B. Divident of incidence and mean duration of disease
C. Sum of incidence and mean duration of disease
D. Difference of incidence and mean duration of disease

Answer: A

92. In twin pregnancy, treatment of choice when first baby is in transverse lie is:

A. Home delivery
B. Cesarean section
C. High forceps
D. Low forceps after external rotation

Answer: B

93. Coose among the following the most important lab finding in nephrotic syndrome?

A. B-J protine
B. hyperkalemia
C. hypoalbuminemia
D. hypertension

Answer: C

94. Which statement is not true regarding Cryptic military Tuberculosis?

A. X-ray diagnsis is possible
B. It is seen in PEM Children
C. Mntoux test is negative
D. Leucocytosis is seen

Answer: B

95. Commonest histology of carcinoma of endometrium is?

A. Squamous cell
B. Clear cell
C. Adeno carcinoma
D. Anaplastic carcinoma

Answer: C

96. True regarding Felty’s syndrome is all EXCEPT

A. Splenomegaly
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Neutropenia
D. Nephropathy

Answer: D

97. The true statement about Zenker’s diverticulum is;

A. It is outpouching of ant.pharyngeal wall above the cricopharyngeus muscle
B. Barium swallow lateral view for diagnosis is the best investigation
C. it is a true diverticulum
D. it is congenital

Answer: A

98. Which of the following statements about aging is true?

A. Zoo animals have shorter lifespans than animals in their normal habitat
B. All animal species have approximately the same lifespan
C. Men are programmed to live longer than women.
D. Identical twins have a natural lifespan of approximately similar duration
Answer: D

99. Characteristic features of kwashiorkor include following EXEPT?

A. Anorexia
B. Flaky paint dematosis
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Splenomegaly

Answer: D

100. Most common site of obstruction in gallstone ileus is?

A. Colon
B. Illeum
C. Jejunum
D. Duodenum

Answer: B

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