300+ TOP MEDICINE Objective Questions and Answers MCQs

MEDICINE Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. Which of the following investigation is useful for Myocardial metabolism and blood flow ?
A. CT scan
B. MRI scan
C. Positron Emission Tomography scan
D. Chest X-ray

Answer: C

2.Barr body is seen in
A. Buccal mucosa smear
B. RBC
C.WBC
D. Saliva

Answer: A

3. Which is not a acute phase reactant
A. C-Reactive protein
B. Haptoglobulin
C. Complement
D. alpha feto protein

Answer: D

4.Which of the following disorders have been shown to be genetically transmitted by singleautosomal dominant enes?
A. Catatonic schizophrenia”
B. Phenyl ketonuria
C. Creutzfeldt – Jacob diseased
D. Huntington’s disease
Answer: D

5.False statement about fragile – X syndrome is ‘
A. Breakage in long arm of X chromosome
B. Common genetic disorder
C. Micro – orchidism
D. Long face

Answer: C

6.C3 and C4 levels are raised in
A. Autoimmune disease
B. SLE
C.RA
D. All of the above

Answer: A

7.Which one of the following statements about Natural Killer (NK) cells is not correct?
A.NK cells can lyse tumour cells and virus infected cells in vitro, without previous sensitization
B.NK cells are found in peripheral blood and lymphoid tissue
C.NK cells are CD 3 positive
D.NK cells lyse the target cells by antibody degendent cellular cytotoxicity

Answer: C

8.The chromosomal anomaly in Klinefelter syndrome is
A.47XXY
D.45XO
C.47XXX
D.47XXXX

Answer: A

9.Down syndrome is due to
A. Trisomy 21
B. Translocation 13-15/21
C. Translocation 22/21
D. All of the above

Answer: D

10.Interferons secreted by all except
A. Monocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Fibroblast
D. Lymphocytes

Answer: A

11.The translocation in Burkitt’s lymphoma is between chromosome
A. 8 and 14
B. 9 and 22
C. 11 and 13
D. 8 and 12

Answer: A

12.Non immune hydrops is not a feature of which of the following
A. Chromosomal abnormalities
B. Alpha thalassemia
C. Renal malformations in foetus
D. Foetal cardiac abnormalities

Answer: C

13.Carcinoembryonic antigen is seen in
A. Colorectal carcinoma
B. alcoholic cirrhosis
C. Emphysema
D. Diabetes mellitus

Answer: A

14.DNA analysis can be done from all except
A. Monocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Fibroblast
D. Amnion cell

Answer: C

15.A stable heritable alteration of DNA is known as
A. Translocation
B. Mutation
C. Syngamy
D. Gene fixation

Answer: B

16.Commonest blood group
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D.0

Answer: D

17.One of the following is not a_ chromosomal breakage syndrome?
A. Bloom’s syndrome
B. Fredrichs Ataxia
C. Xeroderma pigmentosa
D. Fanconi’s Anemia

Answer: B

18.Commonest chromosomal syndrome is: *
A. Trisomy 13
B. Trisomy 17
C. Trisomy 21
D. Fragile X syndrome

Answer: C

19.Which is true of Type II hypersensitivity?
A. Antigen against tissue
B. IgE mediated
C. Antibody directed to tissue antigen
D. Immune complex mediated

Answer: C

20.Analysis of protein antigen is done by
A. PCR
B. Western Blot
C. Southern blot
D. Northern blot

Answer: D

21.Vitamin D resistant rickets is inherited as
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. x-linked recessive
D. x-linked dominant

Answer: D

22.In Philadelphia chromosome there is translocation between chromosomes
A. 11 and 22
B. 9 and 22
C. 5 and 13
D. 8 and 14

Answer: B

23.Hintingtons chorea is
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive

Answer: A

24.The part of RNA which does not code for protein is
A. Exon
B. Introns
C. Codon
D. Meson

Answer: B

25.All of the following are X-linked recessive disorder except
A. Myotonic Dystrophy ”
B. Christmas disease
C. Hemophilia
D. Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

Answer: A

26.The passive transfer of delayed hypersensitivity in man is mediated by
A. Interferon
B. Skin reactor factor
C. Lymphotoxin
D. Transfer factor

Answer: D

27.Which of the following is true concerning Ig M?
A.It is the reaginic antibody
B.It is important in the first few days of the primary immune response
C.It peaks after Ig G has reached its peak
D.It is the smallest of the immunoglobulin molecules

Answer: B

28.Which HLA antigens are recognized by cells
A.T-helper
B.T-effector
C.T-suppressor
D.Bcell

Answer: A

29. Pataus syndrome due to
A. Trisomy 21
B. Trisomy 18
C. 18 P
D. Trisomy 13

Answer: D

30. Treatment of serum sickness may include all except:
A. Epinephrine
B. Steroids
C. Gammaglobulin
D. Antihistamines

Answer: C

31.Opsonizing toxins are
A.C3a
B.C3b
C.C5a
D.C5-C9

Answer: B

32. HLA-B27 associated with all except
A. Psoriasis
B. Behcets syndrome
C. Reiters syndrome
D. Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer: B

33.Recombinant DNA technique was first done on genome of
A.E.coli
B.Bacteroids
C. Pseudomonas
D. Proteus

Answer: A

34.The following disease are transmitted by autosomal recessive genes
A. Idiopathic hemochromatosis
B.Von Reckling Hausen’s disease
C. Von Willebrand disease
D. Cystic fibrosi

Answer: D

35.Otospongiosis is
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive

Answer: A

36.Not a X-linked Recessive disease
A. Laurence Moon Beidel syndrome
B. Nephrogenic diabetes
C. Muscular dystrophy
D. Colour blindness

Answer: A

38.Bone marrow transplantation as a treatment modality can be advisedin all of the following cases which are newly diagnosed except
A. Combined immunodeficiency
B. CML
C. Aplastic anemia
D. All

Answer: D

39.Interferon is not used in which of the following:
A. Hairy cell leukemia
B. Chronic myeloid leukemia
C. Chronic hepatitis B infection
D. Myelomonocytic leukemia

Answer: D

40.Which among the following does not secrete interleukin I alpha
A. Lymphocyte
B. Fibroblast
C. Macrophage
D. Neutrophils

Answer: D

41.Which of the following immunocompetent cells is concerned with cell mediated immunity and humoral immunity
A. Monocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Lymphocytes

Answer: D

42. Barrbody is seen in
A. turners syndrome
B. Klinefelters syndrome
C. testicular feminization
D. light chain IgG

Answer: B

43. Bence Jones proteins are
A. heavy chain IgG
B. present in bone marrow
C. seen in lymphoma
D. 46 XY

Answer: D

44. DNA analysis is useful for all except
A. Thalassemia
B. Hemophilia
C. Ectodermal dysplasia
D. Duchenne’s dystrophy

Answer: C

45. Disease where gene therapy has been attempted or considered include:
A. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
B. Hemophilia A
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Hypercholesterolemia
e) All of the above

Ans:e

46.Passive transfer of delayed hypersensitivity in man is mediated by
A. Interferon
B. Skin reactor factor
C. Lymphotoxin
D. Transfer factor

Answer: D

47. True about transmission of an x-linked recessive disease are
A.All daughters will have disease
B.All sons will be carriers
C.50% of sons & 50% of daughters will have disease
D.50% of sons of an affected mother will contract disease

Answer: B

48. Single gene disorder is
A. glycogen storage disease
B. retinoblastoma
C.DM
D.HT

Answer: B

49.Edwards syndrome is
A. Trisomy 21
B. Trisomy 18
C. Trisomy 13
D.5P
e) 18Q

Answer: B

50.The commonest cause of primary immuno deficiency is
A. Ig A deficiency
B. Agamma globulinemia
C. Congenital immunodeficiency
D. Acquired immuno deficiency

Answer: A

MEDICINE MCQs with Answers

51.Cyclosporin mainly affects
A. CD4+cells
B. CD 8 cells
C. B-cells
D. CD 3 +cells

Answer: A

52. AH of the following statements regarding mast cells are true except
A. they contain heparin proteoglycan
B. their number is increased in patients with bronchial asthma
C. disodium cromoglycate brings about their degranulation
D. they have receptors for Fc portion of IE.

Answer: C

53. Wilms tumor is characterized by which chromosomal aberration
A. lip-
B. llq-^
C. 13p-
D. 13q-

Answer: A

54. Percentage of Rh positivity is
A. 80%
C.92%
D.93%
B. 85%

Answer: D

55. All are X linked diseases except
A. Myotonic dystrophy
B.G6PD
C. Fabrys disease
D. Hemophilia A

Answer: A

56. Father has Autosomal dominant disease. Mother is normal with no family history of the disease. What are the chances of son getting the disease
A. 100%
B.50%
C.25%
D.0%

Answer: B

57. Dominant trait expresses in
A. homozygous state
B. heterozygous state
C. both homo and heterozygous state
D. males

Answer: C

58.Most important HLA for organ transplantation and tissue typing
A. HLA-A
B.HLA-B
C.HLA-C
D.HLA-D

Answer: D

59.All of the following are autosomal dominant disorders except
A. tuberous sclerosis
B. polyposis coli
C. cystic fibrosis
D. myotonic dystonia

Answer: C

60.X linked recessive disease is characterized by
A. Vertical transmission
B. 50% female carriers if male is affected
C. 50% male affected if female is diseased
D. 50% male carriers if female is diseased

Answer: D

61.Achondroplasia is inherited as
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. x-linkeddonlinant
D. x-linked recessive

Answer: A

62.All are Autosomal recessive except
A.-Cystic fibrosis
B. Hypercholesterolemia
C. Wilsons disease
D. Sickle cell anemia

Answer: B

63. Short stature with widely spread nipples and webbing of neck is seen in
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Turner’s syndrome
C. klinefelter’s syndrome
D. Edward’s syndrome

Answer: B

64.Pick out product manufactured at present by genetic engineering
A. Interferons
B. Rabies vaccine
C. Gammaglobulin
D. Tuberous sclerosis

Answer: B

65.All of the following are autosomal recessive except
A. Albinism
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Tuberous sclerosis

Answer: D

66.Which one of the following immunoglobulins is^characteristically elevajtedm filariasis?
A.IgA
B.IgE
C.IgG
D.TgSr

Answer: B

67.Which is not X-recessive?
A. beta thalassemia
B. G6PD deficiency
C. hemophilia A
D. colour blindness

Answer: A

68.Commonest chromosomal anomaly
A. fragile
B. trisomy 21
C. trisomy 13
D. trisomy 18

Answer: B

69.Interferon is not used in
A. CML
B. Polymyositis
C. Hairy cell leukaemia
D. Chronic hepatitis C infection

Answer: B

70. Mode of action of actinomycin – D is to prevent:
A. RNA elongation
B. DNA synthesis
C. DNA elongation
D. None of the above

Answer: A

71. A 15-year old girl presents with history of 7 days high fever, toxic appearance, anaemia, petechiae over skin, ulcers in the mouth and mild hepatosplenomegaly with total count of 30,000/cu mm.The most important investigation for diagnosis would be:
A. Blood culture
B. Splenic puncture
C. Liver biopsy
D. Bone marrow aspiration

Answer: A

72. Chemoprophylaxis is used in all except
A. Malaria
B. Typhoid
C. Meningococcal meningitis
B. gram negative enterobacteriae

Answer: B

73. Endotoxic shock is due to
A. gram positive bacteria
B. gram negitive entrobacteriae
C. viruses
D. gas gangrene
Answer: B

74. The endotoxin which leads to endotoxic shocks is actually
A. Lipoprotein
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Polysaccharide
D. Polyamide

Answer: B

75.Probenecid excretion is increased by
A. penicillin
B. cephalosporin
C.NaHC03-
D. tetracycline

Answer: A

77. Immunoglobulin administration is life saving in one of the following conditions:
A. Rabies
B. Clostridium
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Typhoid

Answer: B

78. Pick out the vaccine that gives lifelong protection after the initial course of vaccination
A. TAB vaccine
B.HDCV
C. Measles vaccine
D.BCG vaccine

Answer: C

79. Tetracyclines are useful in infections of
A. Rickettsia
B.Chlamydiae
C.LGV
D.All

Answer: D

80.True statement regarding Ciprofloxacin is
A. Excreted mainly through bile
B. Antacid when given with, facilitates absorption
C. It can be given only orally
D. Belongs to Fluroquinolones group

Answer: D

81.The antibiotic which is acid labile is
A.Ampicillin
B. Cloxacillin
C.Gentamicin
D. Methicillin

Answer: D

82.Cinchonism is due to
A. Quinine
B.Chloramine
C.Digoxin
D.Digitoxin

Answer: A

84. The half life of chloroquine is :
A. 6 hours
B. 7 days
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours

Answer: B

85.Which of the following combination is not synergistic
A.Penicillin and streptomycin in endocarditis
B.Amphotericin B and flucytosine in cryptococcal meningitis
C.Penicillin and chlortetracycline in pneumococcal meningitis
D.Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim in UT1

Answer: C

86.Nosocomial pneumonia is caused most commonly by
A. streptococcal
B. mycoplasma
C. gram negative bacteria
D. viruses

Answer: C

87. The persistence of one of the following clinical feature indicates very poor prognosis in a case of endotoxin shock:
A. Generalized weakness
B. Low volume pulse
C. Tachycardia
D. Oliguria
e) Restlessness

Answer: D

88.Treatment of travellers diarrhoea is
A. sulfaguanidine
B. Diphenoxylate and atropine
C. metronidazole
D. Chloromycetin and Streptomycin

Answer: B

89. The following are characteristic of central fever except
A. No diurnal variation
B. No sweating
C. decreased response to External cooling
D. Resistant to antipyretics

Answer: C

90. Ampicillin is used in all except
A. Pseudomonas
B. Proteus
C. Streptococci
D. Staphylococci

Answer: D

91.First generation cephalosporins are not effective in… infection
A. Pseudomonas
B. Proteus
C. Streptococci
D. Staphylococci

Answer: A

92.Which of the following is a useful bedside test in septicemia assessment?
A. Peripheral smear
B. Micro ESR assay
C.CRP levels
D. Urine microscopy

Answer: A

93.PTJO in a farmer dealing with goats milk is usually due to
A. Anthrax
B. Brucella
C. Mycobacterium
D. Histoplasma

Answer: B

95.Prognosis is related to incubation period in
A. Cholera
B. Rabies
C. Tetanus
D. Diphtheria

Answer: C

96.The following statement about arboviruses is FALSE
A.Complications include encephalitis and Hemorrhage
B.Transmission is typically by the ingestion of infected water
C.They occur predominantly in temperate climates
D.Incubation period is usually more than one month

Answer: B

97.The most common cause of seizures in a patient
A. Toxoplasmosis
B.Cryptococcal meningitis
C. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyof AIDS is
Answer: A

98. HIV is a
A. Retrovirus
B. Flavivirus
C. Oncovirus
D. Arbovirus
Answer: A

99. Bronchopneumonia due to measles occurs because of
A. Running nose
B. Sinusitis
C. Immuno modulation
D. Bronchial obstruction

Answer: C

100. The most common ophthalmic lesion in AIDS is
A. Hard exudates
B. Cotton wool spots
C. Angioid Streaks
D. Microaneurysms

Answer: B

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