600+ TOP Ophthalmology Objective Questions and Answers

OPHTHALMOLOGY Multiple Choice Questions MCQs:-

1. Which of the following condition is associated with the development of posterior  staphyloma?
A. Pathological myopia
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Acid injury
D. Sympathetic ophthalmia

Answer:  A

2.A 30 year old man presents to the clinic with pain in the eye, watering, redness and photophobia. Examination of his eyes shows circumcorneal congestion and keratic precipitates.

Assertion: KPs are proteinaceous deposits occurring in a triangular fashion in the inferior part of cornea.
Reason: Mutton fat KPs are seen in granulomatous iridocyclitis and is composed of epithelioid cells and macrophages.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
C. Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D. Assertion is false but reason is true

Answer:  B

3. Transport of Ascorbic acid to lens is done by which of the following?
A. Myoinositol
B. Choline
C. Taurine
D. Na-K ATPase

Answer:  D

4. Fundus fluorescein angiography done in a patient following cataract surgery shows a flower petal pattern. What is he MOST likely suffering from?
A. Macular hole
B. Cystoid macular edema
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. None of the above

Answer:  B

5. Transducin is a protein found in:
A. Glomerulus
B. Retina
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Adrenal medulla

Answer:  B

6. Treatment of mooren’s ulcer is?
A. Corneal graft
B. Immunosuppressives
C. Topical steroids
D. All of the above

Answer:  D

7. The percentage of atropine present in atropine drops as cycloplegic is:
A. 0.5%
B. 1%
C. 4%
D. 2%

Answer:  B

8. All of the following are true about Keratoconus, except:
A. Increased curvature of corneaAstigmatism
B. Astigmatism
C. K.F ring cornea
D. Thick cornea

Answer:  D

9. Painful eye movement is a feature of :
A. Iridocyclitis
B. Papilledema
C. Corneal ulcer
D. Vernal catarrh

Answer:  A

10. Kayser Fleischer ring is found in which layer of cornea?
A. Bowman’s Capsule
B. Substantia propria
C. Descemet’s membrane
D. Endothelium

Answer:  C

OPHTHALMOLOGY Objective Questions
OPHTHALMOLOGY MCQs

11. Placido disc is used for diagnosing which of the following condition?
A. Uveitis
B. Keratoconus
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Retinal detachment

Answer:  B

12. Macular sparing is associated with lesions in:
A. Optic nerve
B. Lateral geniculate body
C. Occipital cortex
D. Optic chiasma

Answer:  C

13. All statements are true about trachoma except
A. Trachoma is caused by bedsonian organism of psittacosis lymphogranuloma – trachoma (PLT) group.
B. Strains mainly responsible are A, B, Ba and C
C. Marked papillary hyperplasia with limbal follicles are seen in stage III
D. Corneal ulcerstion is a complication

Answer:  C

14. Satellite nodules are seen in
A. Fungal corneal ulcer
B. Tuberculosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Viral ulcer

Answer:  A

15. Herpetic keratitis is treated by
A. Analgesics
B. Atropine
C. Steroids
D. Idoxuridine

Answer:  D

16. Interstitial keratitis is seen in all except:
A. Syphilis
B. Acanthamoeba
C. HSV ChlamydiaTrachomatis
D. HZV

Answer:  B

17. An elderly male with heart disease presents with sudden loss of vision in one eye; examination reveals cherry red spot; diagnosis is:
A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Amaurosis fugax
D. Acute ischemic optic neuritis

Answer:  B

18. Primary aim of retinal detachment surgery
A. Removal of vitreous
B. Drainage of subretinal fluid
C. Vitrectomy
D. Encirclage
D i.e. Encirclage

Answer:  D

19. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?
A. Latanoprost
B. Timolol
C. Brimonidine
D. Dorzolamide

Answer:  C

20. All are true regarding optic neuritis except:
A. Decreased visual acuity
B. Decreased pupillary reflex
C. Abnormal electroretinogram
D. Abnormal visual evoked response retinogram

Answer:  C

21. Vossius ring occurs in
A. Lens dislocation
B. Concussion injury
C. Penetrating injury
D. Extra capsular extraction

Answer:  B

22. In which of the following conditions Berlin’s edema is
A. Open angle glaucoma
B. After cataract surgery
C. After concussional trauma
D. Diabetic retinopathy

Answer:  C

23. Mucin layer tear flilm deficiency occurs in:
A. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
B. Lacrimal gland removal
C. Canalicular block
D. Herpetic keratitis

Answer:  A

24. The nerve which has the longest intracranial course is:
A. Fourth cranial nerve
B. Third cranial nerve
C. Sixth cranial nerve
D. Fifth cranial nerve

Answer:  A

25. Corneal sensations are decreased in all of the following conditions except:
A. Recurrent corneal erosion syndrome
B. Herpetic keratitis
C. Neuroparalytic keratitis
D. Leprosy

Answer:  A

26. Snellen’s chart is used to test:
A. Vision
B. Refraction
C. Presbyopia
D. Colour blindness

Answer:  A

27. A wave in ERG is due to activity of:
A. Pigmented epithelium
B. Rods and cones
C. Ganglion cell
D. Bipolar cell

Answer:  B

28. Sturm’s conoid refers to configuration of the rays refracted through:
A. Concave spherical surface
B. Convex spherical surface
C. Toric surface
D. Irregular surface

Answer:  C

29. Soft contact lenses are made of:
A. Polymethyl methacrylate
B. Hydroxymethyl methacrylate
C. Glass
D. Silicone

Answer:  B

30. Astigmatism is considered to be:
A. Spherical abberation
B. Curvatural ametropia
C. Axial ametropia
D. Index ametropia

Answer:  A

31. Visual axis is
A. Center of cornea to retina
B. Object to fovea
C. Center of lens to cornea
D. None

Answer:  B

32. Foster’s fusch’s spots are seen in
A. Hypermetropiea
B. Myopia
C. Astigmatism
D. None

Answer:  B

33. Swimming pool conjunctivitis is caused by
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Adenovirus type 8
C. Adenovirus type 8
D. Gonococcus

Answer:  A

34. Goldenhar syndrome is associated with which prominent ocular manifestation:
A. Microcornea
B. Megalocornea
C. Sclerocornea
D. Epibulbar dermoids

Answer:  D

35. Complication of vernal kerato conjunctivitis:
A. Cataract
B. Keratoconus
C. Retinal detachment
D. Vitreous hemorrhage

Answer:  B

36. Treatment of vernal keratoconjunctivitis includes all except:
A. Steroids
B. Chromoglycate
C. Olopatadine
D. Antibiotics

Answer:  D

37. Features of vernal conjunctivitis are:
A. Shield ulcer
B. Horner-Tranta’s spots
C. Papillary hypertrophy
D. All

Answer:  D

38. Pterygium all are true except:
A. Arise from any part of conjunctiva
B. Can cause astigmatism
C. Surgery is treatment of choice
D. UV exposure is risk factor

Answer:  A

39. Neonatal conjunctivitis is caused by all except:
A. Gonococcus
B. Chlamydia
C. Aspergillus
D. Pseudomonas

Answer:  C

40. In photophthalmia site of lesions is:
A. Cornea
B. Retina
C. Optic nerve
D. All of the above

Answer:  A

41. Elschnig’s pearls are a sign of:
A. Chronic uveitis
B. Secondary cataract
C. Cystoid macular oedema
D. All of the above

Answer:  B

42. Rosette cataract is seen due to:
A. Trauma
B. Copper foreign body
C. Diabetes
D. Hyperparathyroidism

Answer:  A

43. A child has got a congenital cataract involving the visual axis which was detected by the parents right at birth. This child should be operated:
A. Immediately
B. At 2 months of age
C. At 1 year of age when the globe becomes normal sized

D. After 4 years when entire ocular and orbital growth becomes
normal

Answer:  A

44. Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of the endophthalmitis in cataract surgery?
A. Preoperative preparation with povidone iodine
B. One week antibiotic therapy prior to surgery
C. Trimming of eyelashes
D. Use of intravitreal antibiotics

Answer:  A

45. Schwalbe’s ring corresponds to:
A. Corneal endothelium
B. Descemet’s membrane
C. Schlemm’s canal
D. Ciliary body

Answer:  B

46. Vitrectomy should be considered if the vitreous haemorrhage is not absorbed within:
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 2 months

Answer:  B

47. Eales disease is:
A. Recurrent optic neuritis
B. Recurrent pappilloedema
C. Recurrent periphelbitis retinae
D. None

Answer:  C

48. All of the following are true for retinopathy of prematurity except:
A. Occurs in premature infants due to late crying
B. Due to hypoxia there occurs neovascularization followed by fibroproliferation
C. End result is bilateral blindness

D. Blindness can be prevented by early diagnosis and ablation of vascular premature retina with cryotherapy or photocoagulation

Answer:  A

49. All of the following are the causes of exudative retinal detachment except:
A. Retinopathy of toxaemia of pregnancy
B. Retinopathy of prematurity
C. Exudative retinopathy of Coats
D. Sympathetic ophthalmia

Answer:  B

50. The earliest change noticed in hypertensive retinopathy is:
A. Soft exudate
B. Arteriolar spasm
C. Venospasm
D. Hard exudate

Answer:  B

51. Strabismic amblyopia is more common in patients with:
A. Intermittent squint
B. Alternate squint
C. Constant squint
D. Latent squint

Answer:  C
Ans. Constant squint

52. Onset of stereopsis occurs at the age of:
A. 3 to 5 months
B. 1 to 2 years
C. 5 years
D. 7 years

Answer:  A

53. Elevators of eye:
A. SR and 10
B. I0 and SO
C. IR and S
D. SO SR

Answer:  A

54. Dalrymple’s sign of ocular Graves’ disease refers to:
A. Retraction of the upper lid
B. Lid lag
C. Proptosis
D. All of the above combinedly

Answer:  A

55. Best method of detection of retained glass intraocular foreign body is:
A. CT scan
B. Radiography
C. Ultrasonography
D. Tonography

Answer:  A

56. In primary open-angle glaucoma pilocarpine eye drops lowers the intraocular pressure by its direct action on the:
A. Trabecular meshwork
B. Ciliary epithelium
C. Longitudinal fibres of the ciliary muscle

D. All of the above

Answer:  D

57. Isolated painful third nerve palsy is a feature of aneurysms of:
A. Posterior communicating artery
B. Anterior communicating artery
C. Vertebrobasillary artery
D. Ophthalmic artery

Answer:  A

58. All of the following are given global prominence in the VISION 2020 goal, expect:
A. Refractive errors
B. Cataract
C. Trachoma
D. Glaucoma

Answer:  D

59. Axial length of eye ball is:[March 2005]

A. 16 mm
B. 20 mm
C. 24 mm
D. 28 mm

Answer:  C

60. Eye structure with maximum refractive power:[March 2007]
A. Anterior surface of lens
B. Posterior surface of lens
C. Anterior surface of cornea
D. Posterior surface of cornea

Answer:  C

61. Pilocarpine is used in all of the following except:[September 2006]
A. Primary, Open Angle Glaucoma
B. Malignant Glaucoma
C. Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma
D. Chronic Synechial Angle Closure Glaucoma

Answer:  B

62. Most common etiolopathogenetic cause of glaucoma is:[March 2012]
A. Raised pressure in episcleritic veins
B. Decreased outflow
C. Increased formation of aqueous humour
D. Increased scleral outflow

Answer:  B

63. Posterior staphyloma is seen in:[September 2005]
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Astigmatism
D. Presbyopia

Answer:  A

64. All of the following are true for sympathetic ophthalmitis except:[September 2005]
A. Affects the injured eye
B. Mostly results from a penetrating wound
C. Autoimmune etiology
D. Dalen Fuch’s nodules may be seen

Answer:  A

65. Snowflake cataract is associated with:[September 2008]
A. Hypertension
B. Adult diabetes
C. Trauma
D. Juvenile diabetes

Answer:  D

66. Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of:[March 2009]
A. Fructose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Sorbitol

Answer:  D

67. Scleritis is most commonly associated with:[March 2005]
A. Diabetes
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Hypertension

Answer:  C

68. Laser used to manage after cataract:[March 2005, September 2009]
A. Excimer laser
B. Argon green laser
C. Diode laser
D. Nd:YAG laser

Answer:  D

69. Which of the following is not a cause of hypermetropia:[September 2009]
A. Short axial length of the eyeball
B. Flat cornea
C. Increased refractive index of the cortex of lens
D. Anterior dislocation of the lens

Answer:  D

70. Type of collagen present in cornea ?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Answer:  A

71. Which of the following is present in cornea ?
A. Hyaluronic acid
B. Chondroitin sulfate
C. Dermatan sulfate
D. Heparan sulfate

Answer:  B

72. A person with defective blue color appreciation is called ?
A. Deuteranomalous
B. Deuteranopia
C. Tritanopia
D. Tritanomalous

Answer:  D

73. What is the immediate management of vitreous hemorrhage in eye ?
A. No treatment
B. Steroids
C. Antibiotics
D. Vitrectomy

Answer:  A

74. Keratitis is caused by ?
A. Bacteria
B. Atopy
C. Protozoa
D. All

Answer:  D

75. Subconjunctival cyst is seen in?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Cysticercosis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Chaga’s disease

Answer:  B

76. Pars planitis is ?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Intermediate uveitis
C. Posterior uveitis
D. Pan uveitis

Answer:  B

77. Brushfield spot in iris is seen in A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Down syndrome
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Toxoplasmosis

Answer:  B

78. Most common orbital cyst in children

A. Neuroenteric cyst
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Lymphoma
D. Clobomatous cyst

Answer:  B

79. Disscociated vertical deviation seen in ?
A. AV dissociation
B. Infantile esotropia
C. Congenital esotropia
D. Superior oblique palsy

Answer:  C

80. Koeppe’s nodules are type of ?
A. Granulomatous uveitis
B. Non granulomatous uveitis
C. Coroiditis
D. Pars planitis

Answer:  A

81. Cause of blindness in pterygium ?
A. Astigmatism
B. Loss of visual axis
C. Cataract
D. Limitation of ocular movements

Answer:  A

82. Cause of blindness in trachoma ?
A. Scarring
B. Pannus
C. Chronic dacrocystitis
D. Entropion

Answer:  A

83. Fundus in retinitis Pigmentosa is ?
A. White spots with red disc
B. Jet- black spots with pale-waxy disc
C. No pigmentation
D. Dilatation of arterioles

Answer:  B

84. Retinoblastoma can occur bilaterally in how many percentage of the cases?
A. 10 – 15%
B. 15 – 20%
C. 20 – 25%
D. 25 – 30%

Answer:  D

85. Kayser flescher ring is seen in ?
A. Siderosis
B. Chalcosis
C. Open angle glaucoma
D. Chemical injuries

Answer:  B

86. Gaze fixation takes place at which age ?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years

Answer:  B

87. Phacoemulsification incision is at ?
A. Sclero-corneal junction
B. Cornea
C. Sclera
D. None of the above

Answer:  A

88. Gland of Moll opens in/on the ?
A. Skin
B. Hair follicle
C. Tarsal plate
D. Ducts of Meibomian glands

Answer:  B

89. Cherry red spot is seen in ?
A. Niemann – Pick’s disease
B. Tay Sach’s disease
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. All of the above

Answer:  D

90. Most common malignant intraorbital tumor in adult is ?
A. Lymphoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Sarcoma

Answer:  A

91. Which antiglaucoma drug decreases aqueous formation ?
A. Prostaglandins
B. Beta – blockers
C. Mannitol
D. Pilocarpine

Answer:  B

92. Selective alpha 2 agoinst used in glaucoma ?
A. Tirriolol
B. Epinephrine
C. Dipivefrine
D. Brimonidine

Answer:  D

93. Bilateral inferior dislocation of lens is seen in ?
A. Marfans syndrome
B. Homocystinuria
C. Weil Marchesani syndrome
D. Trauma

Answer:  B

94. All are true about Bullous keratopathy except ?
A. Seen in Macular dystrophy
B. Treatment is lamellar kertoplasty
C. Lenses can be prescribed for such patients
D. Seen in Fuch’s dystrophy

Answer:  A

95. Most common primary intraocular neoplasm in a child is ?
A. Metastasis
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer:  B

96. Following are the side effects of apraclonidine except ?
A. Lid dermatitis
B. Follicular conjunctivitis
C. Eye lid retraction
D. Watering of mouth

Answer:  D

97. Treatment of presbyopia is by use of which lens?
A. Convex
B. Concave
C. Biconcave
D. Concavoconvex

Answer:  A

98. Steroid is contraindicated in ?
A. Herpetic keratitis
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Fungal corneal ulcer
D. Exposure keratitis

Answer:  C

99. Vitreous hemorrhage produces ?
A. Sudden painless loss of vision
B. Sudden painful loss of vision
C. Gradual painless loss of vision
D. Gradual painful loss of vision

Answer:  A

100. Tubular vision seen in

A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Presbyopia
D. Optic neuritis

Answer:  A

101. Treatment of dacryocystitis in three months old child ?
A. Daily probing
B. Weekly probing
C. Massaging
D. Syringing

Answer:  C

102. Methanol attacks ?
A. Cones
B. Rods
C. Ganglion cells of retina
D. Germinal cell layer

Answer:  C

103. Retinal tears seen most commonly seen in ?
A. Primary retinal detachment
B. Secondary retinal detachment
C. Tractional retinal detachment
D. Exudative retinal detachment

Answer:  A

104. Following are the clinical features of Leber optic neuropathy except
A. Seen in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life
B. It is a example of gradual painless visual loss
C. Males can transmit the disease
D. No leak of dye is observed in fluorescein angiography

 

Answer:  C

105. Following is feature of Fusch’s hetero chromic iridocyclitis ?
A. Heterochromia of iris
B. Keratic precipitates
C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
D. All the above

Answer:  D

106. BSGT stands for ?
A. Bagolini striated glasses test
B. Bagolini smooth glasses test
C. Bagolini shiny glasses test
D. Bagolini second glue test

Answer:  A

107. Melanocytes in conjunctiva are derived from ?
A. Neural ectoderm
B. Surface ectoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Neural crest

Answer:  D

108. Bitemporal hemianopia is characteristic of ?
A. Glaucoma
B. Optic neuritis
C. Pituitary tumor
D. Retinal detachment

Answer:  C

109. For congenital obstruction of nasolacrimal duct, probing is done at what age ?
A. 2 months
B. 6 months
C. 10 months
D. 14 months

Answer:  B

110. Right esotropia is evident with ?
A. Left lateral rectus paralysis
B. Right lateral rectus paralysis
C. Left medial rectus paralysis
D. Right medial rectus paralysis

Answer:  A

111. Diabetic ischemic maculopathy is characterized by all except ?
A. It occurs due to microvascular blockage
B. Mild visual loss
C. Areas of non perfusion are evident on fluorescein angiography
D. Microaneurysms and hemorrhages are seen

Answer:  B

112. Treatment for mild ptosis is ?
A. Fasanella servat operation
B. Levator resection
C. Frontalis sling operation
D. Everbusch’s operation

Answer:  A

113. Cataract is cases of diabetes mellitus is due to accumulation of ?
A. Glycated crytallins
B. Calcified crystallins
C. Glycated fibrillins
D. Calcified fibrillins

Answer:  A

114. Density of cells in adult corneal endothelium ?
A. 2000 cells/mm2
B. 3000 cells/mm2
C. 4000 cells/mm2
D. 5000 cells/mm2

Answer:  B

115. Axial proptosis is produced by tumors lying in ?
A. Retrobulbar space
B. Subperiosteal space
C. Tenon space
D. Peripheral space

Answer:  A

116. In xerophthalmia classification X 2 stage is ?
A. Bitots spots
B. Corneal xerosis
C. Corneal ulceration
D. Corneal scar

Answer:  B

117. All of the following has HLAB27 associated with uveitis except ?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Reiters syndrome
C. Behcets syndrome
D. None of the above

Answer:  C

118. Marcus gunn jaw winking phenomenon due to relation between which cranial nerves
A. VII + VIII
B. III + V
C. V + VII
D. III + VI

Answer:  B

119. Increased intraocular tension can be diagnosed by ?
A. Tonometer
B. Pachymeter
C. Placido’s disc
D. Keratometer

Answer:  A

120. Wernicke’s hemianopic pupillary reponse is seen in lesions at ?
A. Optic tract
B. Optic chiasma
C. Optic radiation
D. Lateral geniculate body

Answer:  A

121. `Ischemic necrosis’ in alkali burn is ?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV

Answer:  A

122. Ganglionic cells are, neurons ?
A. First order
B. Second order
C. Third order
D. None

Answer:  B

123. No movement of Red reflex in retinoscopy

A. No refractive error
B. Myopia of 3D
C. Myopia of ID
D. Hypermetropia

Answer:  C

124. Maximum refractive index ?
A. Cornea
B. Air
C. Lens
D. Vitreous

Answer:  C

125. Primary action of inferior oblique ?
A. Abduction
B. Adduction
C. Extorsion
D. Elevation

Answer:  C

126. What is the most common problem following surgical treatment of pterygium?
A. Recurrence
B. Corneal ulceration
C. Astigmatism
D. Scleral scarring

Answer:  A

127. Refsum’s syndrome is associated with ?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Xerophthalmia
C. Chalcosis
D. Diabetes retinopathy

Answer:  A

128. Following is a feature of concomitant squint ?
A. Constant amount of deviation in all directions of gaze
B. Associated limitation of ocular movements
C. Different amount of deviation in different directions of gaze
D. Develops in the patients at 15 – 20 years of age.

Answer:  A

129. Diplopia is usually seen in ?
A. Paralytic squint
B. Non-paralytic squint
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

Answer:  A

130. Following is true about behcet’s disease except ?
A. It shows presence of aphthous ulceration, genital ulceration and uveitis
B. Uveitis is bilateral, acute recurrent iridocyclitis with hypopyon
C. It has good visual prognosis
D. Chlorambucil can be used to control the disease

Answer:  C

131. Imbert-Fick law is associate with ?
A. Schiotz tonometry
B. Applanation tonometry
C. Pachymetry
D. Keratometry

Answer:  B

132. Recurrent non-granulomatous uveitis is seen in?
A. Vogt koyanagi-Harada syndrome
B. Posner-Schlossman syndrome
C. Tuberculosis
D. Sarcoidosis

Answer:  B

133. Bett’s classification deals with ?
A. Ocular trauma
B. Ocular foreign body
C. Squint
D. Maculopathy

Answer:  A

134. How many incisions are used in the divided system approach of pars planavitrectomy?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer:  C

135. Munson’s sign is a feature of ?
A. Keratoconus
B. Corneal ulcer
C. Pterygium
D. Posterior staphyloma

Answer:  A

136. Newborn eye is ?
A. Myopic
B. Hypermetropic
C. Presbyopic
D. None of the above

Answer:  B

137. Homonymous hemianopia type of visual field defect is seen in all except ?
A. Lateral geniculate body
B. Total optic radiation
C. Optic tract
D. Optic chaisma

Answer:  D

138. Following is true about oculocardiac reflex except ?
A. It is also called aschner phenomenon
B. It is mediated by occulomotor and vagus nerve
C. It is characterized by bradycardia following traction on extraocular muscles
D. Reflex is more sensitive in neonates

Answer:  B

139. Corneal endothelial cell count is measured by ?
A. Specular microscope
B. Ophthalmoscope
C. Synoptophore
D. Amsler’s grid

Answer:  A

140. Drug kept as a last resort in the management of primary open angle glaucoma is ?
A. Latanoprost
B. Topical beta blocker
C. Brimonidine
D. Oral acetazolamide

Answer:  D

141. Amsler’s grid is used to evaluate ?
A. Central 10 degress of vision
B. Central 20 degrees of vision
C. Peripheral vision
D. Lens opacity

Answer:  A

142. Stye is suppurative inflammation of glands of ?
A. Zeis
B. Meibonian
C. Wolfring
D. All the above

Answer:  A

143. Objective methods for checking the refractive error are all except
A. Ophthalmoscopy
B. Retinoscopy
C. Refractometry
D. Keratometry

Answer:  A

144. Lens dislocation in marfans syndrome is
A. Superotemporal
B. Inferonasal
C. Forward
D. Backward

Answer:  A

145. Safe size of corneal graft with less chances of failure is ?
A. 7.5 mm
B. 6.5 mm
C. 5.5 mm
D. 4.5 mm

Answer:  A

146. Angular conjunctivitis is caused mainly by
A. Moraxella axenfeld
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumonae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer:  A

147. Anterior uveitis earliest lesion ?
A. Aqueous flare
B. Keratic precipitates
C. Circumcorneal congestion
D. Blurring of vision

Answer:  A

148. Main MOA brimonidine in glaucoma ?
A. Decreased aqueous secretion
B. Increased trabecular outflow
C. Increased uveoscleral outflow
D. Reduce vitreous volume

Answer:  A

149. Meibomian glands secrete which component of sweat?
A. Water (aqueous)
B. Mucin
C. Protein
D. Lipid

Answer:  D

150. Quantification of corneal sensation is done by ?
A. Pachymeter
B. Keratometer
C. Aesthesiometer
D. Tonometer

Answer:  C

151. Subconjunctival hemorrhages are evident in the following cases except ?
A. Whooping cough
B. Scurvy
C. Purpura
D. Pellagra

Answer:  D

152. Pleomorphic adenoma of the lacrimal gland moves the eyeball ?
A. Downwards and outwards
B. Downwards and inwards
C. Upwards and outwards
D. Upwards and inwards

Answer:  A

153.Optic canal is a part of ?
A. Lesser wing of sphenoid
B. Greater wing of sphenoid
C. Ethmoid
D. Pterygoid

Answer:  A

154. Floaters are seen in following except ?
A. Vitreous hemorrhage
B. Retinal detachment
C. Uveitis
D. Acute congestive glaucoma

Answer:  D

155. Illuminated frenzel glasses are used in detecting?
A. Nystagmus
B. Heterophoria
C. Esotropia
D. Astigmatism

Answer:  A

156. Following is a cause of secondary angle closure glaucoma ?
A. Pseudophakia
B. Corticosteroid induced
C. Angle recession glaucoma
D. Congenital glaucoma

Answer:  A

157. Which gas is most commonly used with pneumatic retinopathy ?
A. SF6
B. C3F8
C. CO2
D. N3

Answer:  A

158. Latanoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily acts by?
A. Decreasing aqueous humor formation
B. Increasing uveoscleral outflow
C. Releasing pupillary block
D. Increasing trabecular outflow

Answer:  B

159. 2nd Purkinje image is ?
A. Erect and moves in same direction
B. Inverted and moves in same direction
C. Erect and moves in opposite direction
D. Inverted and moves in opposite direction

Answer:  A

160. Axial length of eye ball is measured by ?
A. A mode Ultrasonography
B. B mode Ultrasonography
C. M mode Ultrasonography
D. Both a and b

Answer:  A

161. Enophthalmos is seen in ?
A. Blow out fracture of orbit wall
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Radiation Injuries
D. Diabetes mellitus

Answer:  A

162. Acute angle closure glaucoma first line treatment?
A. Iv mannitol
B. Acetazolamide
C. Pilocarpine
D. Beta blocker eyedrops

Answer:  A

163. Occulomotor nerve supplies all extraocular muscles except ?
A. Superior rectus
B. Inferior rectus
C. Lateral rectus
D. Medial rectus

Answer:  C

164. Which bacteria penetrates intact cornea ?
A. Corynebacterium
B. Pneumococcus
C. Morexella
D. E. coli

Answer:  A

165. Which of the following is not a feature of fungal corneal ulcer?
A. Fixed hypopyon
B. Ulcer with sloughing margins
C. Symptoms are more pronounced than signs
D. Fungal hyphae are seen on KOH mount

Answer:  C

166. Congenital dacrocystitis, the block is at?
A. Lacrimal calnaliculi
B. Nasolacrimal duct
C. Punctum
D. None

Answer:  B

167. Dacryocystorhinostomy involves?
A. Opening up the terminal blocked end of nasolacrimal duct
B. Connecting the lacrimal sac to nose by breaking the medial wall
C. Complete excision of lacrimal
D. Insertion of drainage tube in the lacrimal sac

Answer:  B

168. Copper deposition in cornea leads to?
A. Keratoconus
B. Keratoglobus
C. KF ring
D. Siderosis

Answer:  C

 

169. Habbs striae are seen in ?
A. Buphthalmos
B. Keratoglobus
C. Trachoma
D. Keratoconus

Answer:  A

170. Krukenberg spindles A. Involves anterior surface of cornea
B. Involves anterior lens surface
C. Involves posterior surface of cornea
D. Involves posterior surface of lens

Answer:  C

171. Eye of a newborn is ?
A. Emmetropic
B. Hypermetropic
C. Myopic
D. Astigmatism

Answer:  B

172. Causes of exudative retinal detachment are all except

A. Toxemia of pregnancy
B. Scleritis
C. High myopia
D. Central serous retinopathy

Answer:  C

173.Commotio retinae affects which part of retina
A. Posterior pole
B. Peripheral retina
C. Inferior-nasal part
D. Superior-nasal part

Answer:  A

174. Standard in perimetry ?
A. Goldman type I
B. Goldman type II
C. Goldman type III
D. Goldman type IV

Answer:  C

175. Treatment of congenital ptosis with poor elevation is
A. Levator resection
B. Frontalis sling
C. FS operation
D. None of the

Answer:  B

176. Dacryocystorhinostomy, where the duct is opened?
A. Superior meatus
B. Inferior meatus
C. Middle meatus
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess

Answer:  C

177. Blow out fracture of orbit leads to fracture in
A. Floor
B. Posterior Medial wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Roof of the orbit

Answer:  B

178. Most common symptom in buphthalmos ?
A. Lacrimation
B. Pain
C. Photophobia
D. Itching

Answer:  A

179. Normal vision with absence of direct & consensual light reflex, which nerve is involved ?
A. Optic
B. Oculomotor
C. Trigeminal
D. Abducens

Answer:  B

180. The most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is
A. Retinal hole
B. Trauma
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes

Answer:  D

181. Slit lamp examination helps in examination of?
A. Anterior 2/3rd of choroid
B. Anterior 1/3rd of choroid
C. Posterior 1/3rd of choroid
D. Posterior capsule

Answer:  D

182. Retinal detachment occurs between
A. Layers of neurosensory retina
B. Neurosensory retina and pigment epithelium
C. Pigment epithelium and choroid
D. None of the above

Answer:  B

183. Ocular bobbing?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Cortex

Answer:  B

184. Bilateral inferior lens subluxation is seen in?
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Homocysteinuria
C. Ocular trauma
D. None of the above

Answer:  B

185. Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by ?
A. Central scotoma
B. Centrocaecal scotoma
C. Tubular vision
D. Isopteric contraction

Answer:  C

186. Scissor reflex is seen in ?
A. Open angle glaucoma
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
C. Keratoconus
D. Interstitial keratitis

Answer:  C

187. Which are first order neuron in optic pathway?
A. Bipolar cells
B. Ganglionic cells
C. Cells of lateral geniculate body
D. Astrocytes

Answer:  A

188. True about electroretinogram ?
A. a’ wave is positive wave
B. ‘a’ wave arises from pigmented epithelium
C. b’ wave arises from rods and cones
D. ‘c’ wave is positive wave

Answer:  D

189. Specific for albinism
A. Red reflex
B. Decreased visual activity
C. Photophobia
D. Nystagmus

Answer:  A

190. All are parts of anterior segment of eye except?
A. Lens
B. Cornea
C. Vitreous
D. None

Answer:  C

191. Attachement of Vitreous is Srongest at
A. Foveal region
B. Back of lens
C. Across ora serrata
D. Margin of optic disc

Answer:  C

192. Umbrella configration on fluorescein angiogrphyis seen in ?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Rheugmatous retinal detachment
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. Eale’s disease

Answer:  C

193. Epithelial xerosis of conjunetiva is caused by ?
A. Trachoma
B. Diphtheria
C. Xerophthalmia
D. Pemphigus

Answer:  C

194. Cicatrising trachoma is seen in ?
A. Stage-1
B. Stage-2
C. Stage-3
D. Stage-4

Answer:  C

195. Non-sterile hypopyon is seen in ?
A. Pneumococcus infection
B. Pseudomonas infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Gonococcal infection

Answer:  C

196. Normal level of visual acuity is attained at which age
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 6 years

Answer:  C

197. Duanne syndrome involves?
A. Superior oblique
B. Inferior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Superior rectus

Answer:  C

198. Birdshot retinopathy is characterized by all except?
A. Common in females
B. Unilateral
C. HLA-A29 positive
D. Creamy yellow spots

Answer:  B

199. Treatment of choice for anisoeikonia ?
A. Orthoptic exercise
B. Spectacles
C. Surgery
D. Contact lens

Answer:  D

200. Maximum correction of myopia can be done by ?
A. Radial keratotomy
B. LASIK
C. Photorefractive keratotomy
D. Orthokeratology

Answer:  B

OPHTHALMOLOGY Quiz Questions with Answers

201. Marcus Gunn pupil is due to ?
A. Total afferent pupillary defect
B. Relative afferent pupillary defect
C. Efferent pathway defect
D. Cerebral lesion

Answer:  B

202. Distance of medial rectus from limbus A. 4.5 mm
B. 5.5 mm
C. 7.0 mm
D. 10 mm

Answer:  B

203. All nerve are involved in superior orbital fissure syndrome except ?
A. 1t
B. 3rd
C. 4’h
D. 6th

Answer:  A

204. Posterior lenticonus is seen in ?
A. Alport’s syndrome
B. Lowe’s syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Homocystinuria

Answer:  B

205. Thickest portion of sclera is ?
A. Anterior to rectus muscle insertion
B. Posterior to rectus muscle insertion
C. Posterior pole
D. Limbus

Answer:  C

206. Reis-Buckler dystrophy affects which layer of cornea
A. Epithelium
B. Stroma
C. Bowman’s membrane
D. Endothelium

Answer:  C

207. Down-beat nystagmus is seen in lesion of ?
A. Brainstem
B. Cerebellum
C. Basal ganglia
D. Hippocampus

Answer:  B

208. Von Herick angle grade ‘3’ of anterior chamber denotes
A. Wide open angle
B. Moderately open angle
C. Moderately narrow angle
D. Closed angle

Answer:  B

209. Foldable lens is made up of?
A. PMMA
B. Silicon
C. Hydrogel
D. None

Answer:  B

210. Arcuate field defect akin to glaucoma is seen in?
A. Pituitary tumor
B. Occipital lobe infarct
C. Optic nerve lesion
D. None of the above

Answer:  C

211. Thinnest portion of sclera ?
A. Anterior to rectus muscle insertion
B. Posterior to rectus muscle insertion
C. Posterior pole
D. Limbus

Answer:  B

212. During retinoscopy of a 30 years old male, which cycloplegic is used routinely
A. Atropine 1% ointment
B. Cyclopentolate 1% drop
C. Homatropine 2% drop
D. None of the above

Answer:  D

213. In senile nuclear cataract what type of myopia is seen?
A. Curvature myopia
B. Index myopia
C. Axial myopia
D. Positional myopia

Answer:  B

214. Panophthalmitis involves ?
A. Inner coat of eyeball
B. Inner and outer coat but sparing tenon’s capsule
C. All structure of eyeball including tenon’s capsule
D. None of the above

Answer:  C

215. Cataract is caused by ?
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Cigrate smoking
C. Non-ionizing radiation
D. All of the above

Answer:  D

216. Ameboid ulcer is a feature of
A. Parasitic corneal ulcer
B. Mycotic corneal ulcer
C. Herpetic corneal ulcer
D. Bacterial corneal ulcer

Answer:  C

217. Most common site of distant metastasis inintraorbital malignant melanoma is?
A. Brain
B. Lung
C. Liver
D. Lymph nodes

Answer:  C

218. Shortening of 2 mm of axial length of eye ball causes ?
A. 3D myopia
B. 6D myopia
C. 3D hypermetropia
D. 6D hypermetropia

Answer:  D

219. Drug of choice for intermediate uveitis ?
A. Atropine
B. Antibiotics
C. Topical steroids
D. Systemic steroid

Answer:  D

220. Inverted image in Purkinje test is formed from ?
A. Anterior surface of cornea
B. Posterior surface of c
C. Anterior surface of lens
D. Posterior surface of lens

Answer:  D

221. Forced duction test is to find out?
A. Ocular muscle palsy
B. Ocular muscle spasm
C. Angle of deviation
D. Refractive error

Answer:  A

222. Red keratic precipitates are seen in ?
A. Granulomatous uveits
B. Hemorrhagic uveitis
C. Old healed uveitis
D. Acute anterior uveitis

Answer:  B

223. Hardoleum internum is ?
A. Acute infection of Zeis gland
B. Acute infection of Moll gland
C. Acute infection Meibomian gland
D. Chronic infection of Zeis gland

Answer:  C

224. Snow banking is seen in?
A. White coats disease
B. Eales disease
C. Diabetic nephropathy
D. Intermediate uveitis

Answer:  D

225. Retrobulbar injection is given in
A. Inside muscle cone
B. Outside muscle cone
C. Subtenon space
D. Subperiosteum

Answer:  A

226. Basal cell carcinoma is seen in most commonlyin which eyelid?
A. Upper medial
B. Upper lateral
C. Lower medial
D. Lower lateral

Answer:  C

227. All are ophthalmological emergencies except ?
A. CRAO
B. CRVO
C. Acute congestive glaucoma
D. Endophthalmitis

Answer:  B

228. Diagnosis of all is made by fluorescein angiographyexcept?
A. Diabetes retinopathy
B. Hypertensive retinopathy
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. Choroidal neovascularization

Answer:  B

229. Lacrimal punctum of upper and lower eyelids are?
A. They are opposed
B. No relation
C. Upper punctum is medial
D. Upper punctum is lateral

Answer:  A

230. Down beat nystagmus is seen in?
A. Arnold chiari malformation
B. Brain stem damage
C. Pontine hemorrhage
D. Labyrinthine damage

Answer:  A

231. Not true about Fuch’s corneal dystrophy ?
A. Posterior dystrophy
B. Endothelial dystrophy
C. Unilateral condition
D. Occurs in old age

Answer:  C

232. Positive forced duction test is seen in ?
A. Extraocular muscle palsy
B. Mechanical restriction of ocular movement
C. Concomitant squint
D. None

Answer:  B

233. Immune ring is a feature of ?
A. Interstitial keratitis
B. Fungal corneal ulcer
C. Bacterial corneal ulcer
D. Herpes simplex keratitis

Answer:  B

234. In specular microscopy endothelial density is measured by?
A. Optical doubling
B. Fixed frame analysis
C. Optical focusing
D. None

Answer:  B

235. Most common type of scleritis ?
A. Non-necrotizing
B. Necrotizing
C. Posterior
D. None

Answer:  A

236. Which of the following indicates activity of anterior uveitis?
A. Cells in anterior chamber
B. Circumcorneal congestion
C. Keratic precipitate
D. Corneal edema

Answer:  A

237. Normal aqueous production rate

A. 2 ml/min
B. 5 ml/min
C. 2 1/min
D. 5 1/min

Answer:  C

238. Drug of choice for open angle glaucoma
A. Acetazolamide
B. Latanoprost
C. Timolol
D. Brimonidine

Answer:  C

239. Superficial corneal vascularization is caused by?
A. Contact lens
B. Graft rejection
C. Chemical burn
D. Interstitial keratitis

Answer:  A

240. Choroidal vascularization is seen in ?
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Presbyopia
D. Astigmatism

Answer:  A

241. Contraindication of LASIK ?
A. >20 years
B. Keratoconus
C. Normal cornea
D. Myopia of – 8D

Answer:  B

242. Binocular single vision is tested by ?
A. Amsler grid
B. Synoptophore
C. Maddox rod
D. Cardboard test

Answer:  B

243. In aphakia purkinje images absent are ?
A. 1 & 3′
B. 2nd & 4m
C. 2nd & 3rd
D. 3rd & 4th

Answer:  C

244. Keratitis in contact lens wearer is caused by all except ?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Pneumococcus
C. Aspergillu
D. Chlamydia

Answer:  B

245. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is caused by

A. Chlaymydia
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Aspergillus

Answer:  B

246. All are seen in non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy except ?
A. Microaneurysm
B. Neovascularization
C. Hard exudates
D. Macular edema

Answer:  B

247. Surgery of choice for chronic acquired dacryocystitis
A. Dacryocystorhinostomy
B. Dacryocystectomy
C. Conjunctivo-cystorhinostomy
D. None

Answer:  A

248. Posner-schlossman syndrome is ?
A. Ipsilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilloedema
B. Unilateral glaucomatous changes with mild anterior uveitis
C. Granulomatous uveitis with iris heterochromia
D. None of the above

Answer:  B

249. Antigaucomatous drug causing spasm of accommodation

A. Timolol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Dorazolamide
D. Latanoprost

Answer:  B

250. Besides its properties of decreasing intraocular pressure, timolol is preferred in the treatment of glaucoma because it
A. Produces no miosis
B. Possess membrane stabilizing activity
C. Increases outflow of aqueous humor
D. Is a selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker

Answer:  A

251. Rigid gas permeable lens are made of

A. Plymethymethacrylate
B. Hydroxymethylmethacrylate
C. Co polymer of PMMA, Silicon containing monomer & cellulose
acetyl butyrate
D. Cellulose acetae Butyrate

Answer:  C

252. What is regular astigmatism?
A. Astigmatism in which the principal meridians are parallel
B. Astigmatism in which the principal meridians are perpendicular
C. Asymptomatic astigmatism
D. Astigmatism as a result of cataract surgery

Answer:  B

253. Chemotherapy agents for retinoblastoma:
A. vincristine ,carboplatin and etoposide
B. vinblastine, etoposide and bleomycin
C. vinblastine , vincristine and etoposide
D. vinblastine , vincristine and cisplatin

Answer:  A

254. Drug used in acute congestive glaucoma are:
A. Atropine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Acetazolamide
D. Both B & C

Answer:  D

255. Which is the Most common ocular finding in myasthenia gravis?
A. Ptosis
B. Lagophthalmos
C. Proptosis
D. Enophthalmos

Answer:  A

256. In Retinitis pigmentosa decreased level of?
A. Arachidonic
B. Trielonic
C. Thromboxane
D. Docosa hexanoic acid

Answer:  D

257. What is against the rule correction in astigmatism:
A. -1.25 cyl 90
B. -2 spherical 180
C. -3 cyl 180
D. +2 cyl 180

Answer:  A😀

258. Morbid fear of darkness known as:
A. Claustrophobia
B. Xenophobia
C. Mysophobia
D. Nyctophobia

Answer:  D

259. Which drug causes ocular hypotension with apnea in an infant?
A. Latanoprost
B. Timolol
C. Brimonidine
D. Dorzolamide

Answer:  C

260. A child has ptosis and poor levator function. What surgery will you do?
A. Levator muscle resection
B. Mullerectomy
C. Fasanella Servat surgery
D. Frontalis suspension surgery

Answer:  D

261. Esotropiais usually associated with:
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Astigmatism
D. Presbyopia

Answer:  B

262. Corneal ulcer resembling fungal ulcer is seen in infec​tion with which of the agents?
A. Nocardia asteroides
B. Mycobacterium
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer:  A

263. Anisocoria in Horner’s syndrome is due to
A. Oculo sympathetic palsy
B. Oculo parasympathetic palsy
C. Oculomotor nerve palsy
D. Abducens nerve palsy

Answer:  A

264. Diopteric power is related

A. Directly to square of focal length
B. Inversely to focal length
C. Directly to focal length
D. Inversely to square of focal length

Answer:  B

265. All are seen in CMV retinitis except
A. Immunosuppresion
B. Brush-fire appearance Pattern
C. Crack mud appearance
D. Perivasculitis

Answer:  C

266. Optic vesicle is derived from

A. Endoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Neuroectoderm
D. Surface Ectoderm

Answer:  C

267. Goblet cells are seen in A. Cornea
B. Conjunctiva
C. Retina
D. Vitreous

Answer:  B

268. Neovascularization in uveal tissue [Rubeosis Iridis] is most commonly caused by
A. Diabetic Retinopathy
B. CRVO
C. CRAO
D. Choroidal melanoma

Answer:  A

269. All of the following are causes of posterior subcapsular cataract except

A. Myotonic dystrophy
B. Wilson’s Disease
C. Ionizing radiation
D. Congenital cataract

Answer:  D

270. Ectopia lentis is/are associated with:
A. Homocystinuria
B. Alport syndrome
C. Lowe syndrome
D. Marfan syndrome
E. Sulphite oxidase deficiency

Answer:  A:D:E

271. All are true regarding cornea except:
A. Endothelium help in maintaining dehydrated state
B. Oxygen is mostly derived by epithelium directly from the air through tear film
C. Glucose supply for corneal metabolism is mainly derived from the aqueous
D. Corneal thickness is more at center than periphery

E. Richly vascular

Answer:  D:E

272. Feature (s) of Infantile glaucoma is/are except:
A. Aniridia may be associated
B. Treatment includes trabeculotomy
C. Buphthalmos can occur
D. Cornea is thin & clear

E. May be associated with Sturge-weber syndrome

Answer:  D

273. In Snellen’s chart, eye subtends an angle of how many minutes with letters on Snellen’s chart?
A. 1 min of arc
B. 5 min of arc
C. 10 min of arc
D. 15 min of arc

Answer:  B

274. Listers perimeter is used for
A. Kinetic Visual field testing
B. Static Visual field testing
C. Both kinetic and static visual testing
D. None of these

Answer:  A

275. What is the type of Goldman tonometry?
A. Applanation Tonometry
B. Dynamic countour tonometry
C. Rebound tonometry
D. Impression tonometry

Answer:  A

276. Spasm of accommodation mimics
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Amblyopia
D. Presbiopia

Answer:  A

277. Subretinal haemorrhage at the macula in myopia is known as?
A. Lacquer cracks
B. Foster Fuchs spot
C. Staphyloma
D. Macular retinoschisis

Answer:  B

278. Dispersive prism functions for
A. Splitting light into different wavelengths
B. Reflecting light
C. Polarizing light
D. None

Answer:  A

279. Corneal epithelial repair includes all of the following phases except
A. Cell proliferation
B. Cell migration
C. Cell adhesion
D. Cell fusion

Answer:  D

280. Conjunctival staining is done by all except
A. Fluoroscein
B. India ink
C. Rose Bengal
D. Lissamine

Answer:  B

281. Pseudogerontoxon is seen in
A. Vernal keratopathy
B. Choroidal melanoma
C. Trachoma
D. Retinoblastoma

Answer:  A

282. A 50 year old male presents with cicatricial entopion of upper and lower eyelid. On eversion of upper eyelid, linear conjunctival scars – Arlt line are seen. What is the diagnosis?
A. Trachoma
B. Spring catarrah
C. Ligneous conjunctivitis

D. Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome

Answer:  A

283. Pain is out of proportion to signs in which corneal ulcer?
A. Herpes simplex keratits
B. Acanthamoeba keratitis
C. Fungal keratitis
D. Pneumococcal keratitis

Answer:  B

284. Oblate ellipsoid appearance of cornea is seen in which of the following conditions?
A. Post myopic LASIK surgery
B. With the rule astigmatism
C. Bi-oblique astigmatism
D. Oblique astigmatism

Answer:  A

285. Which of the following Glycosaminoglycans are not present in cornea
A. Keratin sulfate
B. Chondroitin sulfate
C. Chondroitin
D. Heparin sulfate

Answer:  D

286. Iron deposition line at edge of pterygium on corneal epithelium is known as?
A. Stocker’s line
B. KF Ring
C. Fleischer ring
D. Ferrys line

Answer:  A

287. Which order neuron is optic nerve in the visual pathway?
A. First order
B. Second order
C. Third order
D. None of these

Answer:  B

288. Purkinje image test is used in
A. Keratomoter
B. Retinoscopy
C. Optical coherence tomography
D. Pachymeter

Answer:  D

289.Which of the following is not a part of uveal
A. Iris
B. Ciliary body
C. Choroid
D. Retina

Answer:  D

290. All except one are true for Scleromalacia perforans
A. It is non inflammatory scleritis
B. It affects only males
C. Perforation of the globe is extremely rare
D. Vision is unaffected

Answer:  B

291. Blue dot cataract is caused by
A. Diabetes
B. Wilson’s disease
C. Atopic dermatitis
D. Chalcosis

Answer:  C

292. Which of the following is complication of prolonged use of corticosteroid eye drops?
A. Posterior Subcapsular cataract
B. Nuclear cataract
C. Capsular cataract
D. Cortical cataract

Answer:  A

293. False about treatment of cataract in children is
A. ECCE is the treatment of choice
B. In case of bilateral cataract imparing vision surgery must be
done by 4-6 weeks of age
C. Lensectomy is not one of the methods of extracapsular
extraction

D. Intraocular lens implantation must be done only after 2 years of
age

Answer:  C

294. What is the new advance in cataract surgery?
A. Femtosecond Laser
B. Neodymium Laser
C. Nanosecond Laser
D. Picosecond Laser

Answer:  A

295. Which of the following step is not done during phacoemulsification surgery for cataract?
A. Irrigation and drainage of cortex
B. Continuous curvilinear capsulorrhexis
C. Foldable IOL implantation
D. Sclerocorneal tunnel

Answer:  D

296. Phacoemulsification uses
A. High frequency sound waves
B. Infrared waves
C. Ultraviolet rays
D. None of these

Answer:  A

297. Post operative complications of cataract are all except?
A. After cataract
B. Endophthalmitis
C. Glaucoma
D. Scleritis

Answer:  D

298. Hemeralopia is seen in
A. Retinal detachment
B. Retinitis pigmentosa
C. Optic neuritis
D. Subcapsular cataract

Answer:  D

299. Which of the following is a good dye is used for lens in cataract surgery?
A. Trypan Blue
B. Fluoroscein
C. India ink
D. None

Answer:  A

300. Which of the following is a layer between choroid and retina?
A. Bruch’s membrane
B. Descemet’s membrane
C. Photoreceptors
D. Ganglion cell layer

Answer:  A

301. 100 day glaucoma is caused by
A. CRVO
B. CRAO
C. Buphthalmos
D. Age related macular degeneration

Answer:  A

302. Keeth Wagner classification is for
A. Hypertensive retinopathy
B. Diabetic maculpathy
C. CRVO
D. CRAO

Answer:  A

303. In which of the following, intraocular pressure is very high and inflammation is minimum?
A. Glaucomatocyclic crisis
B. Acute iridocyclitis
C. Hypetensive uveitis
D. Angle closure glaucoma

Answer:  A

304. Cell bodies of Muller’s Cells are present in which layer of retina?
A. Inner limiting membrane
B. Outer nuclear layer
C. Retinal pigment epithelium
D. Ganglion cell layer

Answer:  A

305. Which of the following is true about signs of angle in closure glaucoma except
A. Vertical semi dialted puil
B. Edematous cornea
C. Multiple iris nodules
D. Edematous and hyperemic optic disc

Answer:  C

306. Which of the following is false statement about vitreous?
A. Anatomically, vitreous is present in anterior segment
B. Vitreous largely contain water and hyaluronic acid
C. Strongest attachment of vitreous base is at ora serrata
D. Vitreous is attached anteriorly to the lens

Answer:  A

307. Phacodonesis is seen in all except
A. Traumatic injury to the eye
B. Hypermature cataract
C. Pseudoexfoliation
D. Diabetes mellitus

Answer:  D

308. Which of the following is true about divergent squint
A. It is also called exotropia
B. It is more common than convergent squint
C. It is a feature of 6th nerve palsy
D. All of the following

Answer:  A

309. Crossed eye fixation is positive in

A. Esotropia
B. Exotropia
C. Hypertropia
D. Hypotropia

Answer:  A

310. Partial ptosis is oculomotor nerve injury is due to intact

A. Supply from opposite oculomotor nerve
B. Sympathetic innervation
C. Parasympathetic innervation
D. Action of orbicularis oculi

Answer:  B

311. Retinoblastomas show all of the following except
A. Small round cells
B. Necrosis
C. Pseudorosettes and Fleurettes
D. None

Answer:  D

312. Which of the following is most common visual defect in papilloedema
A. Amourosis fugax
B. Homonymous hemianopia
C. Homonymous quadrantopia
D. Glare

Answer:  A

313. What is the treatment of meibomianitis ?
A. Cleansing the lid edges
B. Application of moist heat
C. Local antibiotics
D. All of the above

Answer:  D

314. Most common site of basal cell carcinoma of the eye is
A. Eyelid
B. Conjunctiva
C. Cornea
D. Lacrimal apparatus

Answer:  A

315. Ankyloblepheron is defined as
A. Adhesion of the lid to the eyeballs
B. Adhesion of the lid margins to each other
C. Inturned eyelash
D. Inflammation of the lid margin

Answer:  B

316. The globe is displaced to which side in lacrimal gland tumour?
A. Inferotemporal
B. Inferonasal
C. Superotemoral
D. Nasal

Answer:  B

317. ‘D’ shaped pupil is seen in
A. Glaucoma
B. Dislocation of lens
C. Iridodialysis
D. Iridocyclitis

Answer:  C

318. Investigation of choice for optic neuritis is ?
A. MRI Brain and orbit
B. Ct scan Brain and orbit
C. Vitreous biopsy
D. Electooculogram

Answer:  A

319. Ocular findings in diabetes are all except
A. Retinopathy
B. Early senile cataract
C. Neovascular glaucoma
D. Blepharophimosis

Answer:  D

320. Which of the following is a long term side effect of phakic 10Ls
A. Chronic glaucoma
B. Retinal detachment
C. Optic neuritis
D. None

Answer:  A

321. Most common protozoan causing keratitis is
A. Plasmodium
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Toxoplasma
D. W. bancrofti

Answer:  B

322. Most common protozoan causing keratitis is
A. Plasmodium
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Toxoplasma
D. W. bancrofti

Answer:  B

323. Treatment of acute dacrocystitis in stage of cellulitis is ?
A. Antibiotics
B. Abscess drainage
C. DCT
D. DCR

Answer:  A

324. What is the correct sequence of xerophthalmia
A. Nightblindness 4 Conjunctival xerosis → corneal xerosis corneal ulcer
B. Conjunctival xerosis → corneal xerosis → corneal
ulcer → Nightblindness
C. Corneal xerosis → corneal ulcer 4 Nightblindness → Conjunctival xerosis

D. Corneal ulcer → Nightblindness → Conjunctival xerosis -3 corneal xerosis

Answer:  A

325. Which eye muscle has radial, longitudinal and circular fibres?
A. Sphinctor Pupillae
B. Dilator Pupillae
C. Levator palpebrae Superioris
D. Ciliary muscle

Answer:  D

326. Required for IOL power calculation ?
A. Corneal topography
B. Gonioscopy
C. Indirect Ophthalmoscopy
D. Keratometry

Answer:  D

327.Immediate treatment of acute dacryocystitis is?

A. Antibiotics and drainage of abscesss if present
B. Dacryocystorhinostomy
C. Dacryocystectomy
D. Nasal decongestants

Answer:  A

328. True about imaging spectrometry is ?
A. Allows simultaneous measurements of reflectance spectra along a line
B. Is useful in diagnosing against the rule astigmatism
C. Spectrometry is an essential investigation before trabeculectomy
D. It is based on the principle of Sturm’s Conoid

Answer:  A

329. The principle of total internal reflection is used by?
A. Gonioscope
B. Pachymeter
C. Ophthalmoscope
D. Lensometer

Answer:  A

330. Refractory error measured by all except ?
A. Keratometry
B. Retinoscopy
C. Refractometry
D. Spectrometry

Answer:  D

331. Ansiokonia is ?
A. Projection of different coloured images into visual cortex
B. Projection of different shaped images into visual cortex of two retinae
C. Change in the velocity of perceived objects
D. Partial intermittent visual loss

Answer:  B

332. Parasitosis of extraocular eye muscles is seen in?
A. Trichinosis
B. Cysticercosis
C. Amoebiasis
D. Ascariasis

Answer:  A

333. Most powerful refractory surface of eye is

A. Conjunctiva
B. Cornea
C. Vitreous
D. Lens

Answer:  B

334. Astigmatism is defined as ?
A. Refractory error wherein refraction varies along different meridians
B. Refractory error due to long AP length of eye ball
C. Varying refractory error in both eyes
D. Varying Shape perception by both eyes

Answer:  A

335. CHARGE syndrome includes all except ?
A. Eye Coloboma
B. Congenital heart disease
C. Urinary tract defects
D. Esophageal Atresia

Answer:  D

336. Anteroposterior change in length of eye is called ?
A. Anisokonia
B. Curvatural anisotropia
C. Axial Ametropia
D. Emmetropia

Answer:  C

337. Features of Usher’s Syndrome include all except ?
A. Night Blindness
B. Visual Impairment
C. Multiple Neurofibromas
D. Hearing deficit

Answer:  C

338. In a case of myopia, LASIK will provide correction upto ?
A. 20D
B. 12D
C. 6D
D. 4D

Answer:  B

339. What is the most common eye lesion in HIV?
A. Kaposi Sarcoma of Lid
B. CMV Retinitis
C. Cotton wool spots
D. Choroiditis

Answer:  C

340. What is reverse hypopyon?
A. Collection of pus in the vireous
B. Collection of emulsified silicon oil in anterior chamber
C. Abscess in the orbit
D. Seen in corneal ulcer close to being ruptured

Answer:  B

341. Silk retina is seen in ?
A. Hypermetropia
B. Myopia
C. Astigmatism
D. Presbyopia

Answer:  A

342. All of the following drugs increase the risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting after squint surgery in children except ?
A. Halothane
B. Opiods
C. Propofol

D. Nitrous Oxide

Answer:  C

343. All of the following are complications of traumatic hyphema except?
A. Rebleeding
B. Pupillary Block
C. Corneal Ulcer
D. Posterior synechiae

Answer:  C

344. Pseudopapilitis with silk shot appearance is seen in?
A. Hypermetropia
B. Myopia
C. Astigmatism
D. Presbyopia

Answer:  A

345. 1mm change axial length of the eyeball would change the refracting power of the eye by ?
A. 1D
B. 2D
C. 3D
D. 4D

Answer:  C

346. D Shaped pupil is seen in ?
A. Iridodialysis
B. Iridodonesis
C. Anterior Uveitis
D. Anterior synechiae

Answer:  A

347. Lensometer detects ?
A. Correct power of a pair of glasses
B. Corneal topography
C. Biochemical constitution of lens
D. Power of IOL

Answer:  A

348. Sixth cranial nerve palsy causes of left eye causes?
A. Accomodation paresis in left gaze
B. Ptosis of left eye
C. Adduction weakness of left eye
D. Diplopia in left gaze

Answer:  D

349. All of the following are treatments of myopia except?
A. LASIK
B. Phakic intraocular lens
C. Radial Keratotomy
D. Holmium laser thermoplasty

Answer:  D

350.Pupillary reflex pathway- All of the following are a part except ?
A. Edinger Westphal nucleus
B. Pretectal nudes
C. Medial geniculate body
D. Retinal ganglion cell

Answer:  C

351. Index myopia is seen in ?
A. Nuclear cataracts
B. Chorioretinitis
C. Choroidal melanoma
D. Posterior uveitis

Answer:  A

352. Sudden painless loss of vision- All are causes except?
A. CRAO
B. CSR
C. Acute congestive glaucoma
D. Vitereous Hemorrhage

Answer:  C

353.The most common type of strabismus seen in myopes is?

A. Intermittent Exotropia
B. Intermittent Esotropia
C. Esotropia hypotropia complex
D. Exoptropia Hypotropia complex

Answer:  A

354. Muscae volitantes is seen in ?
A. Vitreous detachment
B. Vitreous Hemorrhage
C. Remains of primitive hyaloid vasculatur
D. Eale’s disease

Answer:  C

355. All of the following are causes Crystal keratopathy except?
A. Cystinosis
B. Schnyder’s Dystrophy
C. Bietti’s Dystrophy
D. Diabetes

Answer:  D

356. Most common age related change in vitreous ?
A. Anterior vitreous detachment
B. Posterior vitreous detachment
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. Vitritis

Answer:  B

357. What is true about retinal hemorrhage in new born?
A. More common in instrumented deliveries
B. Resolve in 6 – 8 months
C. Commonly unilateral
D. Associated with intrauterine infection

Answer:  A

358. Subhyaloid hemorrhage is ?
A. Boat shaped
B. Crescent shaped
C. Round
D. Flame shaped

Answer:  A

359. Prutchners retinopathy in associated with

A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Wilson’s disease
C. Head trauma
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer:  C

360. Snowball appearance is seen in ?
A. Posterior uveitis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Anterior uveitis
D. Vitreous Hemorrhage

Answer:  B

361. Unilateral frontal blisters with upper lid edema with conjunctivitis is seen in ?
A. Acanthamoeba Keratits
B. Herpes Simplex
C. Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus
D. Neuroparalytic Keratitis

Answer:  C

362. What is false about Eale’s disease amongst the followwing?
A. Retinal detachment may occur
B. AKT is given
C. Optic neuritis
D. Vitreous Hemorrhage

Answer:  C

363. A 44 year old woman presents Sudden painless loss of vision with history of previous similar episode fundoscopy shows no glow. What could be the possible diagnosis?
A. Vitreous Hemorrhage
B. Rhegmatogenous Retinal Detachment
C. Acute congestive glaucoma

D. Fungal Keratitis

Answer:  A

364. Glaucoma drainage devices ?
A. Drain aqueous humour to the posterior segment
B. Drain aqueous humour to an external device
C. Open the trabeculae mechanically
D. Reduce the aqueous secretion by compressing the ciliary
epithelium

Answer:  B

365. What is the cause of glaucoma in retinoblastoma?

A. Blockge of trabecular network
B. Neovascularisation
C. Mass effect of the tumour
D. Lysis of the lens

Answer:  B

366. Mioitcs are treatment of choice for ?
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Open angle glaucoma
C. Buphthalmos
D. Sympathetic Ophthalmia

Answer:  A

367. Which organism can peneterate corneal endothelium?
A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Staphylococcus Aureus
C. Neisseriae Gonorrhae
D. Hemophilus influenza

Answer:  A

368. Earliest sign of primary congenital glaucoma ?
A. Corneal edema with watering
B. Haab’s Striae
C. Blue sclera
D. Myopia

Answer:  A

369. The zonules suspending the lens are attached to the?
A. Root of iris
B. Ciliary body
C. Anterior vitreous
D. Limbus

Answer:  B

370. Descemet membrane breach is seen in ?
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Buphthalmos
C. Acute Iridocyclitis
D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage

Answer:  B

371. Lens attached to ciliary body via ?
A. Limbus
B. Zonules
C. Vitreous Humour
D. Root of iris

Answer:  B

372. What is not true about congenital glaucoma of eye?
A. Photophobia is most common symptom
B. Haab’s Striae maybe seen
C. Thin and blue sclera seen
D. Anterior chamber is shallow

Answer:  A

373. The intraocular lens in cataract surgery is placed in ?
A. Surface of iris
B. Capsular bag
C. Over the face of viterous
D. Around the limbus

Answer:  B

374. Non foldable lens is made of

A. Silicon
B. Acrylic
C. PMMA
D. Hydrogel

Answer:  C

375. What is the type of Galactosemia cataract?
A. Snowflake
B. Oil drop
C. Blue dot
D. Polychromatic lustre

Answer:  B

376. In head injury unilateral dilatation of pupil is seen due to ?
A. Occulomotor nerve compression
B. Ophthalmic N. compression
C. Trizeminal N. compression
D. None

Answer:  A

377. The junction between Retina & Ciliary body is ??
A. Equator
B. Pars plicata
C. Pars plana
D. Ora serrata

Answer:  D

378. “Bread-crumb” appearance is seen in ?
A. Diabetic cataract
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. CMV retinitis
D. Complicated cataract

Answer:  D

379. Yoke muscle for left superior rectus is ?
A. Right superior rectus
B. Left inferior rectus
C. Right inferior oblique
D. Right superior oblique

Answer:  C

380. Downward and outward moment of eye is effected in injury of?
A. 3rd nerve
B. 4th nerve
C. 5th nerve
D. 6th nerve

Answer:  B

381. Irregular pupil is seen in ?
A. Glaucoma
B. Trauma
C. Occulomotor pulsy
D. Retinal detachment

Answer:  B

382. Low astigmatism in dim light is due ?
A. Pupil constriction
B. Pupil dilatation
C. Increased curvature of lens
D. Decreased curvature of lens

Answer:  B

383. Disciform keratitis is seen ?
A. HSV
B. HIV
C. HBV
D. Rubella

Answer:  A

384. Corneal dystrophy, true is

A. Inflammatory
B. Neovascularization
C. Bilateral
D. All

Answer:  C

385. Following corneal transplantation, most common infection occur ?
A. Staph epidermidis
B. Streptococcus
C. Klebsiella
D. Pseudomonas

Answer:  A

386. 1st sign of anterior uveitis ?
A. Keratic precipitate
B. Aqueous flare
C. Hypopyon
D. Miosis

Answer:  B

387. 1st sign of iridocyclitis ?
A. Retrolental flare
B. KP
C. Congestion
D. Trichiasis

Answer:  A

388. Most common cause of anterior uveitis ?
A. CMV
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. Toxoplasma
D. None

Answer:  A

389. Iritis in young patient with joint pain

A. Gout
B. RA
C. AS
D. Toxoplasma

Answer:  C

390. Commonest complication of pars planitis ?
A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Retinal detachment
D. Vitreous hemorrhage

Answer:  B

391. Metamorphopsia is seen in ?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Posterior uveitis
C. Cataract
D. Glaucoma

Answer:  B

392. Recurrent anterior uveitis with increased intraocular tension is seen in ?
A. Posner schlossman syndrome
B. Foster kennedy syndrome
C. Vogt-koyanagi-harada syndrome
D. None

Answer:  A

393.Congenital cataract commonly associated with visual defect?

A. Punctate Cataract
B. Blue dot cataract
C. Zonular cataract
D. Fusiform cataract

Answer:  C

394. Decreased reading ability is seen in ?
A. Fusiform cataract
B. Zonular cataract
C. Blue dot cataract
D. Punctate cataract

Answer:  B

395. Lens subluxates in homocystinuria ?
A. Inferotemporal
B. Inferonasal
C. Superonasal
D. Superotemporal

Answer:  B

396. Second sight is seen in ?
A. Nuclear cataract
B. Cortical cataract
C. Zonular cataract
D. Punctate cataract

Answer:  A

397. Congenital cataract with visual disturbances surgery should be done ?
A. Immediately
B. After 2 months
C. After 4 months
D. After 1 year

Answer:  A

398. Most common type of congenital cataract is ?
A. Capsular
B. Zonular
C. Coralliform
D. Blue dot

Answer:  D

399. Treatment of traumatic cataract in children ?

A. ECCE + IOL
B. Lensectomy
C. Contact lens
D. Glasses

Answer:  A

400. Jack in box scotoma is seen after correction of Aphakia by?
A. IOL
B. Spectacles
C. Contact lens
D. None

Answer:  B

401. False about phacolytic glaucoma ?
A. Due to contact of iris to lens
B. Open angle glaucoma
C. Seen in hypermature stage of cataract
D. Lens induced glaucoma

Answer:  A

402. Neovascular glaucoma is seen in all except?
A. Diabetes
B. CRVO
C. Eale’s disease
D. Open angle glaucoma

Answer:  D

403. Laser iridotomy is done in ?
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Open angle glaucoma
C. Pigmentory glaucoma
D. None

Answer:  A

404. In acute angle closure glaucoma, primary mechanism of pathogenesis is ?
A. Increased secretion
B. Increased absorption but increased secretion
C. Outflow obstruction
D. None

Answer:  C

405. Not a risk factor for angle closure glaucoma ?
A. Small eye
B. Hypermetropia
C. Small cornea
D. Small lens

Answer:  D

406. Staphlyoma involvement ?
A. Iris with conjunctiva
B. Conjunctiva with cornea
C. Choroid with retina
D. Iris with cornea

Answer:  D

407. Best drug for open angle glaucoma ?
A. Latanoprost
B. Pilocarpine
C. Physostigmine
D. Apraclonidine

Answer:  A

408. Corneal tattooing is done by ?
A. Gold chloride
B. Silver chloride
C. Titanium chloride
D. Aluminium chloride

Answer:  A

409. Broadest neuroretinal rim is seen in
A. Sup pole
B. Inf pole
C. Nasal pole
D. Temporal lobe

Answer:  B

410. Enucleation is indicated in ?
A. Acute congestive glaucoma
B. Panophthalmitis
C. Retinoblastoma
D. None

Answer:  C

411. Retinitis pigmentosa is due to defect in which gene
A. Scotopsin
B. Rhodopsin
C. Pigmented epithelium
D. None

Answer:  B

412. Iris cloboma is most common in ?
A. Inferotemporal
B. Soperotemporal
C. Inferonasal
D. Soperonasal

Answer:  C

413. Eales disease is ?
A. Recurrent optic neuritis
B. Recurrent pappilloedema
C. Recurrent periphelbitis retinae
D. None

Answer:  C

414. Shaffer’s sign is seen in ?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Retinal detachment
C. CRVO
D. CRAO

Answer:  B

415. Deposit in retinal macular degeneration ?
A. Iron
B. Drusen
C. Lipochrome
D. Hemosiderine

Answer:  B

416. Vitreous hemorrhage in diabetic retinopathy ?
A. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
C. Both
D. None

Answer:  B

417. Head light in fog appearance is seen in ?
A. Syphilis
B. Toxoplasmoss
C. Toxocara
D. Herpes

Answer:  B

418. Coloboma, most common site ?
A. Superotemporal
B. Inferonasal
C. Inferotemporal
D. Superonasal

Answer:  B

419. Salt & pepper fundus ?
A. Cong toxoplasmosis
B. Cong histoplasmosis
C. Congenital syphilis
D. None

Answer:  C

420. Expulsive hemorrhage in cataract surgery is from?
A. Vortex vein
B. Ciliary artery
C. Choroidal vein
D. None

Answer:  B

421. Cattle track appearence ?
A. CRVO
B. CRAO
C. Diabetic retinopathy
D. Syphilitic retinopathy

Answer:  B

422. Eale’s disease is ?
A. Retinal hemorrhage
B. Vitreous hemorrhage
C. Conjunctival hemorrhage
D. Choroidal hemorrhage

Answer:  B

423. Extra retinal fibrovascular proliferation at ridge is?
A. Normal
B. Stage I ROM
C. Stage II ROM
D. Stage III ROM

Answer:  D

424. All are seen in 3′ nerve palsy ?
A. Mydriasis
B. Loss of light reflex
C. Loss of abduction
D. Ptosis

Answer:  C

425. Swinging light test is positive in ?
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Glaucoma
C. Retrobulbar neuritis
D. Keratoconus

Answer:  C

426. Optic tract lesion causes ?
A. Wernicke’s hemianopic pupil
B. Amauratic pupil
C. Amauratic pupil
D. None

Answer:  A

427. Amblyopia is caused by ?
A. Methyl alcohol
B. Penicillin
C. Propranolol
D. None

Answer:  A

428. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes ?
A. Centrocaecal scotoma
B. Binasal hemianopia
C. Constriction of peripheral field
D. Bitemporal hemianopia

Answer:  A

429. Cause of bilateral optic atrophy ?
A. Trauma to optic nerve
B. Intracranial neoplasma
C. CRAO
D. Optic neuritis

Answer:  B

430.Earliest muscle to involve in thyroid ophthalmopathy?
A. MR
B. LR
C. IR
D. SR

Answer:  C

431. Which of the following is longest extraocular muscle?
A. SR
B. MR
C. SO
D. IO

Answer:  C

432. Treatment of choice for amblyopia is ?
A. Convergent exercises
B. Spectacles
C. Surgery
D. Conventional occlusion

Answer:  D

433. Alkali causes ?
A. Symblepharon
B. Papilloedema
C. Optic neuritis
D. Retinal detachment

Answer:  A

434. Unilateral lacrimal gland destruction may be caused by?
A. Inferior orbital fissure fracture
B. Fracture of roof of orbit
C. Fracture of lateral wall
D. Fracture of sphenoid

Answer:  B

435. After trauma, A person cannot move eye outword beyond mid point. The nerve injured is ?
A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 6th

Answer:  D

436. Bilateral ptosis is seen in all except ?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Congenital
C. Trauma
D. Myotonic dystrophy

Answer:  C

437. Angle of squint is measured by ?
A. Gonioscopy
B. Prism
C. Retinoscopy
D. Keratometry

Answer:  B

438. Most common cause of intermittent proptosis ?
A. Orbital varix
B. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Retinoblastoma

Answer:  A

439. Most common cause of ophthalmoplegia ?
A. Aneurysm
B. Infection
C. Mysthenia gravis
D. None

Answer:  A

440. Massaging of nasolacrimal duct is done in ?
A. Acute dacryocystitis
B. Congenital dacryocystitis
C. Conjunctivitis
D. None

Answer:  B

441. Ataxia, nystagmus and ophthalmoplegia is seen in

A. Mysthenia gravis
B. Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia
C. 3rd nerve palsy
D. None

Answer:  B

442. Abnormally eccentric placed pupil is called ?
A. Polycoria
B. Corectopia
C. Corectopia
D. Ectopia lentis

Answer:  B

443. Child with mild squint. Intrauterine, birth history, developmental history till date all normal. Corneal reflex normal. All other eye parameters normal except exaggerated epicanthal fold. Diagnosis ?
A. Pseudostrabismus
B. Accommodative squint
C. Exophoria
D. Esophoria

Answer:  A

444. Madarosis is seen in ?
A. Addison’s disease
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Acromegaly
D. None

Answer:  B

445. MC orbital tumor ?
A. Nerve sheath tumor
B. Hemangioma
C. Lymphoma
D. Meningioma

Answer:  B

446. Loss of eyelashes is ?
A. Tylosis
B. Madarosis
C. Trichiasis
D. Ectropion

Answer:  B

447. Fusion of palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva is
A. Symblepharon
B. Trichiasis
C. Ectropion
D. Tylosis

Answer:  A

448.Most common orbital tumor has its origin from?
A. Blood vessels
B. Nerves
C. Muscle
D. Lymph node

Answer:  A

449. Retinal astrocytoma is seen in ?
A. Tuberous sclerosis
B. Sturge weber syndrome
C. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
D. None

Answer:  A

450. Most common malignant tumour of eyelid is ?
A. Sebaceous gland carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Malignant melanoma

Answer:  B

451. Most common carcinoma of conjunctiva ?
A. Squamous cell Ca
B. Basal cell ca
C. Melanoma
D. Lymphoma

Answer:  A

452. Astigmatism in emmetropic eye of elderly person contribute to:
A. +1d
B. +2D
C. +3d
D. +4d

Answer:  C

453. 100 day Glaucoma seen in which of the following condition:
A. Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)
B. Neovascular glaucoma
C. Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)
D. Steroid induced Glaucoma

Answer:  A

454. Q Roth spots is seen in:
A. Uveal melanoma
B. Acute leukaemia
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above

Answer:  B

455. Yoke muscle of right lateral rectus:
A. Lt medial rectus
B. Lt superior rectus
C. Lt lateral rectus
D. Lt inferior oblique

Answer:  A

456. Severe Conjunctivitis caused by:
A. Neisseria
B. Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. Haemophilus

Answer:  A

457. Which is example of the Simple Myopic Astigmatism among the prescriptions given below:
A. Rx (+) sphere
B. Rx will be plano (-)
C. Rx will be (-) sphere
D. (-)(+) (+)(-) on both 90 and 180 degree axis

Answer:  B

458. Blow out fracture of orbit involves:
A. Floor
B. Medial wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Roof

Answer:  A

459. A diabetic patient 2 days after post cataract surgery develops develops hypopyon. What will be the management?
A. Intravitreal antibiotics
B. Eye drops
C. Surgery
D. No treatment required

Answer:  A

460.What is the Thinnest part of neuro-retinal rim according to ISNT rule?
A. Inferior
B. Superficial
C. Temporal
D. Medial

Answer:  C

461. What causes shifting fluid?
A. Exudative Retinal detachment
B. Tractional Retinal Detachment
C. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
D. Retinodialysis

Answer:  A

462. Conjunctival injection, pharyngeal injection, polymorphic rash, cervical lymphadenopathy can be seen in
A. Kawasaki syndrome
B. Measles
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Mumps

Answer:  A

463. Incongruous Homonymous hemianopia with Wernicke’s hemianopia pupil is seen with the lesion of
A. Optic radiation
B. Lateral geniculate body
C. Optic tract
D. Anterior occipital cortex

Answer:  C

464. The patient came with proptosis, restriction of eye movements, and was Euthyroid. What could this be from?
A. Orbital Cellulitis
B. Orbital Lymphoma
C. Orbital pseudotumor
D. Thyroid ophthalmopathy

Answer:  C

465. Prerequisite for sympathetic ophthalmitis
A. Penetrating injury to the eye
B. Blunt ocular tumor
C. Chemical injury
D. Urinary tract infection

Answer:  A

466. Photostress test to differentiate
A. Lens and cornea
B. The macula and Optic nerve diseases
C. Cataract and glaucoma
D. Retinal and vitreous diseases

Answer:  B

467. Which layer of cornea helps in the hydration of stroma of cornea
A. Endothelium
B. Epithelium
C. Descemet membrane
D. Stroma

Answer:  A

468. A 65 old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes, presents to the OPD with complaints of diplopia and squint. On examination, the secondary deviation is more than the primary deviation. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis
A. concomitant squint
B. paralytic squint
C. Restrictive squint
D. Pseudo squint

Answer:  B

469. Esotropia is common in
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Emmetropia
D. Astigmatism

Answer:  B

470. An extra row of cilia posterior to the grey line
A. Distichiasis
B. Tylosis
C. Madarosis
D. Trichiasis

Answer:  A

471. The patient came with unilateral Proptosis and bilateral Abducent nerve palsy. This could be from
A. Cavernous sinus
B. Orbital cellulitis
C. Orbital pseudotumor
D. Orbital lymphoma

Answer:  A

472. The characteristic finding of fungal ulcers?
A. Satellite lesions
B. Dendritic ulcer
C. Ring abscess
D. White hypopyon

Answer:  A

473. A drug used in a patient with increased IOP and optic disc changes, ciliary congestion for decrease IOP acts by increasing uveoscleral outflow is
A. Latanoprost
B. Pilocarpine
C. Dorzolamide
D. Timolol

Answer:  A

474. A patient diagnosed with Rheumatoid arthritis was on medications. After 2 years, he developed a blurring vision and was found to have corneal opacity. Which drug is most likely to cause this?
A. Sulfasalazine
B. Chloroquine
C. Methotrexate
D. Leflunomide

Answer:  B

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